I was wondering, i have experienced alot of stored procedure blocking where you have a stored procedure that get executed very frequently and is complex, when the sp has to recompile it is locked and cannot be executed by other processes.
How will this work with an activated stored procedure, our activated stored procedure will probably not be too complex but it may exec complex ones base on the message type.
Now lets say that a message is recieved by the activated sp he in turn executes a complex sp to process the message this causes the complex sp to recompile, during this time another activated sp is spawned by the queue with the same message type he execs the same complex sp that is busy recompiling, i presume that the second activated sp will be blocked until the sp has completed recompiling.
Is this correct, because on a very busy queue with very complex sp's being called by the activated stored procedure, the benefit of having multiple queue readers is negated by the blocking caused by the recompiling sp's called by the activated sp.
Basically no matter how many queue readers kick in to handle the messages they all wait for the sp to recompile from the first message.
I am hoping multiple spawned activated stored procedures somehow over come this? Or work differently somehow.
I'm not really sure if my question should fall on Service Broker or T-SQL, but I hope someone helps me with this... After activating the stored procedure assigned to the queue, is there any way for me to find out if the stored procedure is already finished executing?
I have successfully sent messages to my queue but I have no way to know if all the processing is already done.
I checked sys.service_queues to confirm the my queue has an activated proc assigned to it and is activation_enabled.
I send messages to the service, however i see that the messages just sit in the queue. I run profiler with all SB and Error events there is nothing, i check the sql server log, there is also nothing.
So i have no idea why the activated proc is not firing, all i see in the profiler trace is that the messages are acknowledged but the activated proc does not execute.
For a while i was stumped. i then tried to execute the proc myself and i got a syntax error.
Basically what happened was that i altered a table that the proc used and now the proc cannot execute cos there are more columns that must be inserted so i altered the proc.
However the activated proc still did not fire.
I had to disable and re-enable activation for it to work.
What i am wondering is why was there no indication in profiler or the sql og as the the fact that something was wrong with the activated proc ? Surely the activated proc should have fired and given the same error i got either to the sql log or profiler ?
And why did i have to re-enable activation ? Does sql cache the proc when you activate it and not know that the proc has changed when you alter it ?
I have a stored procedure into which a bit type of parameter called '@activated' is being passed. This stored procedure gets all the users matching the condition : Activated = isnull(@activated, -1)
In users table, one of the columns is 'Activated' of bit type. The strange thing happening here is that if @activated is null, then the above condition is true for all rows in users table, even though we know that the column Activation is either 1 or 0 only and never -1.Can someone explain why this strange thing is happening?
Is it possible for a stored procedure to be activated more than once even if a message is sent only once? After sending the message, I check the sys.dm_broker_activated_tasks and see that it activates more than once. Is there a way for me to prevent this from happening?
I'm having a problem debugging (with VS2005,) a CLR Stored Procedure which is activated on a queue. I know it is working because it is consuming and processing messages when one appears in the queue.
I can debug it 'manually' by either right-clicking on the SP within VS2005 and selecting 'Step into Stored Procedure' or by attaching to the SQL Server Management Studio process, setting a breakpoint and executing the stored procedure from a Management Studio query window.
However, if I send a message to my queue within Management Studio, my breakpoints are NOT being hit within VS2005, but the message IS reaching my queue and it IS being processed by the SP.
Hi I have a couple of questions to understand better Service Broker..
Every time I alter the activation Stored Procedure on the receiving queue I also execute the: alter database set new_broker rollback
1) can somebody explain me in a detailed way why I have to do that? what happen inside SQL Server when there is a Stored Procedure activated on a queue?? Also link to white papers, resouces on so on are appreciated.
My Activation Stored Procedure calls other stored procedure. 2) If ONLY one of the nested stored procedures changes I have to execute the command: alter database set new_broker rollback ???
I think that the answer to the first question will answer the second one..
I've read Remus' article on Fire and Forget tactics when it comes to ending conversations, and I have to admit I am guilty of sending a message to a service and immediately ending the conversation. I've set up a stored procedure to end the conversation on the initiator queue, but I'm guessing it's never being fired because I am not ending the conversation in the target activated stored proc, which is a CLR stored proc.
Can you tell me how to end the conversation from a CLR stored proc?
Now that I think of it none of the code I use in my TSQL activated stored procs to handle different message types and error-checking is done in the CLR stored proc.
I am working with a large application and am trying to track down a bug. I believe an error that occurs in the stored procedure isbubbling back up to the application and is causing the application not to run. Don't ask why, but we do not have some of the sourcecode that was used to build the application, so I am not able to trace into the code. So basically I want to examine the stored procedure. If I run the stored procedure through Query Analyzer, I get the following error message: Msg 2758, Level 16, State 1, Procedure GetPortalSettings, Line 74RAISERROR could not locate entry for error 60002 in sysmessages. (1 row(s) affected) (1 row(s) affected) I don't know if the error message is sufficient enough to cause the application from not running? Does anyone know? If the RAISERROR occursmdiway through the stored procedure, does the stored procedure terminate execution? Also, Is there a way to trace into a stored procedure through Query Analyzer? -------------------------------------------As a side note, below is a small portion of my stored proc where the error is being raised: SELECT @PortalPermissionValue = isnull(max(PermissionValue),0)FROM Permission, PermissionType, #GroupsWHERE Permission.ResourceId = @PortalIdAND Permission.PartyId = #Groups.PartyIdAND Permission.PermissionTypeId = PermissionType.PermissionTypeId IF @PortalPermissionValue = 0BEGIN RAISERROR (60002, 16, 1) return -3END
I am having trouble executing a stored procedure on a remote server. On my local server, I have a linked server setup as follows: Server1.abcd.myserver.comSQLServer2005,1563
This works fine on my local server:
Select * From [Server1.abcd.myserver.comSQLServer2005,1563].DatabaseName.dbo.TableName
This does not work (Attempting to execute a remote stored proc named 'Data_Add':
When I attempt to run the above, I get the following error: Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'Server1.abcd.myserver.comSQLServer2005,1563'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly.
Could anyone shed some light on what I need to do to get this to work?
Hi All,Quick question, I have always heard it best practice to check for exist, ifso, drop, then create the proc. I just wanted to know why that's a bestpractice. I am trying to put that theory in place at my work, but they areasking for a good reason to do this before actually implementing. All Icould think of was that so when you're creating a proc you won't get anerror if the procedure already exists, but doesn't it also have to do withCompilation and perhaps Execution. Does anyone have a good argument fordoing stored procs this way? All feedback is appreciated.TIA,~CK
I have a initiator and a target service broker peer.
Both are controlled by a C# unit test. The initiator uses the Microsoft.Samples.SqlServer class. The target service uses stored procedure activation.
Sending a message from the initiator to the target, saves the content of the message, along with its conversation handle in the target's database specific table.
The unit test needs - at a later time - to instruct the target to send a message back on the same conversation handle to the initiator service.
For this the C# unit test creates a Conversation off of the saved conversation handle:
Service client = new Service("cleintservicename", conn, tran);
Conversation dialog = null;
dialog = new Conversation(client, convHandle); Sending the message on this dialog generates an error "Message body: <Error xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/SQL/ServiceBroker/Error"><Code>-8495</Code><Description>The conversation has already been acknowledged by another instance of this service.</Description></Error>". Is the error due to the fact that a service - using the activated stored procedure already picked up the conversation, so that a new reference to the service can not be created through the Service class in CLR? If so, I might need then to skip the activated stored procedure in favor or a CLR service, alltogether? Any help - greatly appreciated.
I have an ASP that has been working fine for several months, but itsuddenly broke. I wonder if windows update has installed some securitypatch that is causing it.The problem is that I am calling a stored procedure via an ASP(classic, not .NET) , but nothing happens. The procedure doesn't work,and I don't get any error messages.I've tried dropping and re-creating the user and permissions, to noavail. If it was a permissions problem, there would be an errormessage. I trace the calls in Profiler, and it has no complaints. Thedatabase is getting the stored proc call.I finally got it to work again, but this is not a viable solution forour production environment:1. response.write the SQL call to the stored procedure from the ASPand copy the text to the clipboard.2. log in to QueryAnalyzer using the same user as used by the ASP.3. paste and run the SQL call to the stored proc in query analyzer.After I have done this, it not only works in Query Analyzer, but thenthe ASP works too. It continues to work, even after I reboot themachine. This is truly bizzare and has us stumped. My hunch is thatwindows update installed something that has created this issue, but Ihave not been able to track it down.
I have a stored procedure "uspX" that calls another stored procedure "uspY" and I need to retrieve the return value from uspY and use it within uspX. Does anyone know the syntax for this?
I have about 5 stored procedures that, among other things, execute exactly the same SELECT statement
Instead of copying the SELECT statement 5 times, I'd like each stored proc to call a single stored proc that executes the SELECT statement and returns the resultset to the calling stored proc
The SELECT statement in question retrieves a single row from a table containing 10 columns.
Is there a way for a stored proc to call another stored proc and gain access to the resultset of the called stored proc?
I know about stored proc return values and about output parameters, but I think I am looking for something different.
I would like to know if the following is possible/permissible:
myCLRstoredproc (or some C# stored proc) { //call some T SQL stored procedure spSQL and get the result set here to work with
INSERT INTO #tmpCLR EXECUTE spSQL }
spSQL (
INSERT INTO #tmpABC EXECUTE spSQL2 )
spSQL2 ( // some other t-sql stored proc )
Can we do that? I know that doing this in SQL server would throw (nested EXECUTE not allowed). I dont want to go re-writing the spSQL in C# again, I just want to get whatever spSQL returns and then work with the result set to do row-level computations, thereby avoiding to use cursors in spSQL.
I am calling a stored procedure (say X) and from that stored procedure (i mean X) i want to call another stored procedure (say Y)asynchoronoulsy. Once stored procedure X is completed then i want to return execution to main program. In background, Stored procedure Y will contiue his work. Please let me know how to do that using SQL Server 2000 and ASP.NET 2.
Hi Peeps I have a SP that returns xml I have writen another stored proc in which I want to do something like this:Select FieldOne, FieldTwo, ( exec sp_that_returns_xml ( @a, @b) ), FieldThree from TableName But it seems that I cant call the proc from within a select. I have also tried declare @v xml set @v = exec sp_that_returns_xml ( @a, @b) But this again doesn't work I have tried changing the statements syntax i.e. brackets and no brackets etc..., The only way Ive got it to work is to create a temp table, insert the result from the xml proc into it and then set @v as a select from the temp table - Which to be frank is god awful way to do it. Any and all help appreciated. Kal
I have multiple queues with the same activated stored procedure (for various reasons we are trying this scenario).
My biggest obsticle is i cannot figure out a way to determine with the activated sp which queue caused it to activate.
Basically i need to make the sp dynamic, so that no matter which queue activated the sp the sp can determine the queue name and use that dynamically to do the receive command from the right queue.
I am sure it is possible since sys.dm_broker_activated_tasks shows how many sp's are activated by each queue, however the sp name is the same for all queues so that does not help me.
How do i determine within an activated sp which queue caused it to activate?
1. Almost in every SB example you will see this sql :
BEGIN TRANSACTION
WAITFOR (
RECEIVE TOP (1)
@MessageType = message_type_name,
@Message = message_body
FROM [Queue1]
WHERE conversation_handle = @ConversationHandle
), timeout 5000;
If this sql in an activated sp do you really have to have the waitfor ? Since the sp will only be fired if there is a message on the queue ?
2. It is reccomended that for high volume SB apps you do not do a top(1) receive but process batches. Exactly what is the best practice to do this. Receive a batch into a table variable and then what ? Process through it with a cursor ? That is not very efficient either, i would just like some insight into batch queue processing as everywhere i have seen uses top (1) from the queue ?
Now, I've to get active data for a particular date range. Let me explain the active data definition as below:
StartDate : 01-Jul-2015 EndDate : 31-Dec-2015
It should return all the data which was active for that date range even if it was only for one day.If no data found for that date range, check the last record before start date and and if its active then it should be returned else not.
I though of creating a function and pass primary key with date range and return the final status but that doesn't seems like an optimized query.
I didn't want to maintain similar/identical tables in a legacy FoxPro system and another system with SQL Server back end. Both systems are active, but some tables are shared.
Initially I was going to use a Linked Server to the FoxPro to pull the FP data when needed. This works. But, I've come up with what I believe is a better solution. Keep in mind that these tables are largely static - occassional changes, edits.
I will do a 1 time DTS from FP into SQL Server tables.
I then create INSERT and UPDATE triggers within FoxPro.
These triggers fire a stored procedure in FoxPro that establishes a connection to the SQL Server and fire the appropriate stored procedure on SQL Server to CREATE and/or UPDATE the corresponding table there.
In the end - the tables are local to both apps.
If the UPDATES or TRIGGERS fail I write to an error log - and in that rare case - I can manually fix. I could set it up to email me from within FoxPro as well if needed.
Here's the FoxPro and SQL Server code for reference for the Record Insert:
Im trying to perform an update with a stored procedure thats all working but an exception is thrown ....violation of primary key contraint....cannot insert duplicate pri key I understand whats going on but how do you update some ones details if its protected this way. ?
I have a stored procedure , where i want to return identity column after insert but before insert i want to check if the record exist then select its identity value to return , after select statement it is retutrning null CREATE PROCEDURE SP_Attendance1 (@DIVISIONID int,@EMPLOYEEID int,@CALLDATE datetime,@RECEIVEDDATE datetime,@DOC datetime,@SYSTEMNAME VARCHAR(20),@DELETED int,@attendanceID int output) AS---DECLARE @ID intIF EXISTS (SELECT ID FROM TBLATTENDANCE WHERE EMPLOYEEID = @EMPLOYEEID AND YEAR ( CALLDATE ) = YEAR ( @CALLDATE)AND MONTH (CALLDATE) = MONTH ( @CALLDATE) AND DAY (CALLDATE) = DAY ( @CALLDATE) )BEGIN SET @attendanceID = SCOPE_IDENTITY()END ELSE BEGIN INSERT INTO TBLATTENDANCE (DIVISIONID ,EMPLOYEEID ,CALLDATE , RECEIVEDDATE ,DOC,SYSTEMNAME ,DELETED )VALUES (@DIVISIONID ,@EMPLOYEEID ,@CALLDATE , @RECEIVEDDATE ,@DOC,@SYSTEMNAME ,@DELETED ) ;SELECT DIVISIONID, EMPLOYEEID, CALLDATE, RECEIVEDDATE, DOC, SYSTEMNAME, DELETED,ID FROM TBLATTENDANCE WHERE (ID = SCOPE_IDENTITY())SELECT @attendanceID = SCOPE_IDENTITY()ENDGO Kindly help with this
I am trying to create a stored proc, that delivers a recordset, per the user requirements BUT,
I want to create a Geneirc search Proc that can handle a few criteria
I was wondering if it is possible to create a VB like Select case depending on Information supplied to the stored proc
i.e @Loc_Thing @Loc_OtherThing
SELECT FirstName,LastName,CIty,Job,,Company,Webpage FROM RECORDSET WHERE Select case @Loc_Thing Case "Mickey" LastName = @Loc_OtherThing Case "Walt" Company = @Loc_OtherThing
...... etc
is it possible to create a strored proc like this? I have found a Select case in SQL, but it doesn't work I would like it? Any Idea's?
Hello, So I created my first SP today which returned data to populate a datagrid. Worked to perfection. Now I'm trying to do a simple login and I'm having a hard time getting it together. I want the user to enter in a username and pass then if user exists, to return their userid and update their last login date. But I can't get it. Any help would be awesome.
Here's my SP...
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[userLogin] @username varchar(50), @pass varchar(50) AS
declare @x int declare @userid int
if exists (SELECT userid FROM users WHERE username = @username AND password = @pass) set @x = 1 else set @x = 0
if @x = 1 UPDATE users SET lastlogin = getdate() WHERE userid = (SELECT userid AS name FROM users WHERE username = @username AND password = @pass) else return '0'
if @x = 1 SET @userid = (SELECT userid FROM users WHERE username = @username AND password = @pass) return @userid GO
Any constructive criticism on my SP is welcome. Also, should I be using Print or Return if I want to send back a value to my VB code?
And my VB:
Dim user As String = txtUsername.Text Dim pass As String = txtPassword.Text Dim objDataSet As DataSet Dim objAdapter As SqlDataAdapter
Try Dim cmd As New SqlCommand
'Enter Param's here Dim myParam1 As SqlParameter = cmd.Parameters.Add("@username", SqlDbType.VarChar) Dim myParam2 As SqlParameter = cmd.Parameters.Add("@pass", SqlDbType.VarChar)
Dim str As String = cmd.Parameters("@userid").Value() cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() If str = "0" Then 'Error Login Page Response.Redirect("login_err.aspx") Else Session("userid") = str Response.Redirect("home.aspx") End If
Table2 has the same ID field and a date field which are both unique (PK, FK)
I need to write a stored procedure that will query the ID field from table1 like
Select distinct(id) from Table1
Would return:
ID
1
2
3
4
5
Now on the first of every month I want a job to run that would create a new record for EACH ID from the above query. The new record would be created in Table2 with the ID and a date (that I will determine), resulting in:
ID DATE
1 01/01/06
2 01/01/06
3 01/01/06
4 01/01/06
5 01/01/06
The following month, after running it again, the table would look like:
ID DATE
1 01/01/06
1 02/01/06
2 01/01/06
2 02/01/06
3 01/01/06
3 02/01/06
4 01/01/06
4 02/01/06
5 01/01/06
5 02/01/06
I have no idea how to “loop� through this record set for each record in Table1 and in turn insert into Table2.
