I have VS 2003 & SQL Server 2005.I have created VB.NET console application which calls various function. Based on data insertion/ updatation in SQL 2005 I need to call function from my VB.NET application. That is from SQL insert/update trigger I need to call function from my console application which is continuouly running.
I need help on how can I capture insert trigger event VS 2003 console application?
Is it possible to call/fire a method in a webservice (.asmx) from a trigger in MS SQL 2005? I would like to send out a notification to all the admins whenever a new row is inserted into a table in our db. If possible, can someone show me an example of how to?
View 1 Replies View RelatedI tried to call a exe from sql server through trigger with xp_cmdshell, But its not working as expected, shows preemptive_os_pipeops in process under the activity monitor and the process got hang.
View 18 Replies View RelatedHello,
I am trying to call a SQL Function in C#, as I want to get the value binded back to the column in a datagrid.
Any answers will be appreciated ...............Urgent.
:)
I'm calling a function with its full qualifiers.
That means servername.dbname.schemaname.functionname
I'm getting an error like this
Invalid column name 'servername'.
Is it possible to call a function name with its server name?
Thanks
Somu
Can I call a Stored Procedure in a function?
I created a SP:
CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.test_sp AS
BEGIN
select * from STOCK
END
GO
and I tried to create a function like that:
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.test_fn ()
RETURNS int AS
BEGIN
declare @a int
select @a = sto_id from dbo.test_sp
return @a
END
as seen the function uses the test_sp.but that gives syntax error. How can I do this?
thanks.
can a trigger firing cause a stored procedure to execute!! if this can be done then I will have more questions to follow! thanks, Scott
View 1 Replies View RelatedHi
I have a problem calling stored procedure in trigger..
When no exception occures stored procedure returns the value but if any exception occures executing that stored procedure then stored procedure will not return any value..
I have handled exception by returning values in case if any..
Here is the stored procedure
CREATE PROCEDURE BidAllDestinations
(
@ITSPID int,
@DestinationID int,
@BidAmount decimal (18,4),
@BidTime datetime,
@intErrorCode int out
)
AS
DECLARE @GatewayID int
DECLARE @GatewayExist int
SET @GatewayID = 0
SET @GatewayExist = 0
SET @intErrorCode = 0
UPDATE BID FOR CORRESPONDING GATEWAY
DECLARE GatewayList CURSOR FOR
SELECT Gateways.GatewayID
FROM Gateways INNER JOIN
GatewayDestinations ON Gateways.GatewayID = GatewayDestinations.GatewayID INNER JOIN
ITSPs ON Gateways.ITSPID = ITSPs.ITSPID
Where Gateways.ITSPID = @ITSPID AND DestinationID = @DestinationID
OPEN GatewayList
FETCH NEXT FROM GatewayList INTO @GatewayID
IF (@GatewayID = 0)
SET @intErrorCode = 1
ELSE
BEGIN
-- CHECK @@FETCH_STATUS TO SEE IF THERE ARE ANY MORE ROWS TO FETCH
WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0
BEGIN
SELECT@GatewayExist = Gatewayid
FROMTerminationBids
WHEREGatewayid = @Gatewayid AND DestinationID = @DestinationID
IF @GatewayExist > 0
UPDATE TerminationBids
SET BidAmount = @BidAmount,
BidTime = getdate()
WHERE GatewayID = @Gatewayid AND DestinationID = @DestinationID
ELSE
INSERT INTO TerminationBids (GatewayID, DestinationID, BidAmount)
VALUES (@GatewayID,@DestinationID,@BidAmount)
IF @@ERROR <> 0
BEGIN
GOTO PROBLEM
CLOSE GatewayList
DEALLOCATE GatewayList
END
FETCH NEXT FROM GatewayList INTO @GatewayID
END
CLOSE GatewayList
DEALLOCATE GatewayList
END
PROBLEM:
BEGIN
SET @intErrorCode = 100
END
RETURN @intErrorCode
GO
TRIGGER CODE:::
CREATE TRIGGER TR_TerminationBid
ON dbo.TerminatorBidHistory FOR INSERT
AS
DECLARE @ITSPID int
DECLARE @DestinationID int
DECLARE @BidAmount decimal (18,4)
DECLARE @BidTime datetime
DECLARE @intErrorCode INT
DECLARE @DistinationList varchar (8000)
DECLARE @DestinationLevel varchar (100)
SET @intErrorCode = 0
SET @ITSPID = 0
SET @DistinationList = ''
-- CHECK ITPSID' S VALIDITY
SELECT@ITSPID = i.ITSPID, @DestinationID= i.DestinationID,
@BidAmount = i.BidAmount, @BidTime = i.BidTime
FROM Inserted i
INNER JOIN ITSPS ON ITSPS.ITSPID = i.ITSPID
INNER JOIN Destinations ON Destinations.DestinationID = i.DestinationID
EXEC BidAllDestinations @ITSPID,@DestinationID,@BidAmount,@BidTime, @intErrorCode = @intErrorCode output
SELECT @intErrorCode
Following should return value for @intErrorCode if any exception occures
Any one can help what is wrong with it?
Thanks
Hello,
I am trying to test a simple trigger on insert and it does not work when I call EXEC sp_send_cdosysmail.
However, the stored procedures does work if I right-click on it and select Execute Stored Procedure.
Below is a simple version of the trigger I am trying to implement. I know it works in SQL Server 2000 and 2005 but can't seem to get it to work in SQL Server 2005 Express. Any help is greatly appreciated!
ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[trig_Tableinsert]
ON [dbo].[Table]
FOR INSERT
AS
BEGIN
-- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from
-- interfering with SELECT statements.
Print 'Hello'
-- Insert statements for trigger here
EXEC sp_send_cdosysmail some@one.com', 'notify@me.com','New Insert', 'test'
END
Thanks!
I've been searching for a bit but I can't seem to find a difinitive answer.
Can an SQL Server trigger call native C/C++ functions? If so, what is the mechanism?
Thanks in advance.
hi,
when calling an SSIS package from a trigger causes it to run for ever. Know why??
In Detail;
Consider that there are two tables with the same schema in a db. Lets name that Test1 and Test2.
I develope a package whihc will transform data from Test1 to Test2. I initiate this package from a Trigger for Insert on Test1. For eg.
CREATE TRIGGER Trigger_Test1
ON Test1
AFTER INSERT
AS
BEGIN
EXEC xp_cmdshell 'dtexec /FILE "C:TestTestPackage1.dtsx"'
END
This runs for ever when a record is inserted into the Test1 table.
But, when the trigger is on someother table , everything works fine.For eg, if the trigger is on the table TT1 & this trigger initiates the same package while inserting a record into TT1, everything is fine.
Can anyone help me on this.
Thanks
Man
I need to know if there's any way to call a VB function from within an SQl statement. We have text in Rich Text format in a database and need it converted to regular text before we are able to perform searches on the data. Maybe I can use a stored procedure to accomplish this conversion or to call a function that would do this? Any help would be appreciated.
View 2 Replies View RelatedDoes anyone know if you can call an Access function from DTS?
I'm trying to delete data from an Access database, Compact the database, and load new data. My snag is calling a function in Access to compact the database.
Suggestions?
Hi
I have created a user function
the only way i can use this function is by specifying dbo. as prefix of the function
example
SELECT column1, dbo.MyFunc(column2)
FROM mytable
what i want is something like this
SELECT column1, MyFunc(column2)
FROM mytable
is this possible?
I have the next Function:
CREATE FUNCTION F_StoreName
(
@strTienda as varchar(3)--Numero de Tienda
)
RETURNS VARCHAR(200)
AS
BEGIN
declare
@strStoreName as varchar(30),
@strSQLString nvarchar(500),
@strParmDefinition nvarchar(500)
--set @strTienda='003'
SET @strSQLString = N'select @StoreName = max(nombre) ' +
' from ' + master.dbo.fGetServerName('bdSupport') + 'bdSupport..tbTiendas with (noLock) ' +
' where notienda= ' + @strTienda
SET @strParmDefinition = N'@StoreName varchar(30) OUTPUT';
--print @strSQL
EXECUTE sp_executesql @strSQLString, @strParmDefinition, @StoreName=@strStoreName OUTPUT;
RETURN @strStoreName
END
When I call this function:
select dbo.F_StoreName('002') as x
It sent me next error:
Only functions and extended stored procedures can be executed from within a function.
I'm faced with a situation where I will need to calculate a column fora resultset by calling a component written as a VB6 DLL, passingparameters from the resultset to the component and setting (orupdating) a column with the result. I thought that perhaps the bestway out would be to create a UDF that passes the parameters to the VBcomponent using the sp_oa* OLE stored procs.For a test, I created an ActiveX DLL in VB6 (TestDLL) with someproperties and methods. I then created a function that creates theobject, sets the required properties and returns a result. I usesp_oaDestroy at the end of the function to remove the objectreference. The function seems to work surprisingly well except for asmall problem; when I use the function to calculate a column for aresultset with more that one row, the DLL appears to stay locked up("the file is being used by another person or program"). This leavesme with the impression that the object reference is not beingdestroyed. I have to stop/restart the SQL Server in order to free theDLL.Question:Is the UDF approach the best way? I don't like the idea of creatingand destroying the object at every pass which is what the UDF does.As an alternative, I suppose that I could have a single SP where Icreate the OLE object once, loop through the result set with a cursorand do my processing/updating, then close the OLE object. I must saythat I'm not too fond of that approach either.Thanks for your help,Bill E.Hollywood, FL(code is below)___________________________--Test the functionCreate Table #TestTable(Field1 int)INSERT INTO #TestTable VALUES (1)INSERT INTO #TestTable VALUES (2)SELECT Field1, dbo.fnTest(Field1,4) AS CalcColFROM #TestTableDrop Table #TestTable___________________________CREATE FUNCTION dbo.fnTest/*This function calls a VB DLL*/(--input variables@intValue1 smallint,@intValue2 smallint)RETURNS integerASBEGIN--Define the return variable and the counterDeclare @intReturnValue smallintSet @intReturnValue=0--Define other variablesDeclare @intObject intDeclare @intResult intDeclare @intError intSet @intError=0If @intError = 0exec @intError=sp_oaCreate 'TestDLL.Convert', @intObject OUTPUTIf @intError = 0exec @intError = sp_OASetProperty @intObject,'Input1', @intValue1If @intError = 0exec @intError = sp_OASetProperty @intObject,'Input2', @intValue2If @intError = 0exec @intError = sp_oamethod @intObject, 'Multiply'If @intError = 0exec @intError = sp_oagetproperty @intObject,'Output',@intReturnValue OutputIf @intError = 0exec @intError = sp_oadestroy @intObjectRETURN @intReturnValueEND
View 8 Replies View RelatedI was wondering if anyone knows the best way to call a function that is located in database on a different server then the database that is calling the function. Is it possible to do this with out linked servers? I am running SQL Server 2000. Any help in this matter would be greatly appreciated.
Hi,
I need to call a webservice directly from a tigger or stored procedrue instead of creating a window service to read from a table then call the webservice .Is it possible ? if yes, please i need your support.
Thanks,
hai,
the problem is - I have created a userdefined function using SQL 2000
create function getfulldate (@date varchar(10))returns datetimeasbegindeclare @getfulldate datetime set @getfulldate = dateadd (mi,55,@date)
return @getfulldateend
and normally we call this in the SQL statements as
select *, dbo.getfulldate('2006-05-03') from emp
This works fine and what I need was, I need to invoke the user-defined function like
select *, getfulldate('2006-05-03') from emp that is, without using "dbo".
If I call in that manner, it gives error as - 'getfulldate' is not a recognized function name.
So, here what is the purpose of dbo and can I call in my desired manner as mentioned above.
anyone guide me, thanks!
Hello all,
I'm trying to construct a select statement in a stored procedure that filters based on the returned values of a number of functions. My function works fine, but when I try to call the function from the stored procedure I get an error.
I'm going to try explain the thought process behind what I'm doing. Hope I make enough sense.The purpose of the stored procedure is to perform a wildcard search on a tool. The tool contains a number of FK that link to different tables (e.g., manufacturer, vendor). So I'm creating functions that also search the manufacturer and vendor and return the matching IDs.
Example of tool SELECT statement:SELECT tool_number, tool_description
FROM tool
WHERE tool_manufacturer IN (UDFmanufacturer_SearchName(@search_string)
This gives me an error:'UDFmanufacturer_SearchName' is not a recognized built-in function name.
Function code (removed some wrapping code for simplicity):SELECT manufacturer_id
FROM manufacturer
WHERE manufacturer_name LIKE '%' + @search_string + '%'These statements both work if I run a independent query: SELECT *
FROM UDFmanufacturer_SearchName('mol') SELECT *
FROM tool
WHERE tool_manufacturer IN (SELECT *FROM UDFmanufacturer_SearchName('mol')) This code fails:SELECT *
FROM ato_tool
WHERE ato_tool_manufacturer IN (UDFmanufacturer_SearchName('mol'))
I'm stuck. I haven't been able to find anything that shows me where I'm going wrong. Any thoughts or suggestions are appreciated. Thanks,Jay
This is an issue with calling a stored procedure, which calls a function.this input parameter of the function is a list nvarchar.where i am giving the input like : 1,2,3,4,8 here for the corresponding id's 1,2,3,4,8i wanna take all the details and displaying it ina crystal report........ CREATE FUNCTION iter$simple_intlist_to_tbl (@list nvarchar(MAX)) RETURNS @tbl TABLE (number int NOT NULL) ASBEGIN DECLARE @pos int, @nextpos int, @valuelen int SELECT @pos = 0, @nextpos = 1 WHILE @nextpos > 0 BEGIN SELECT @nextpos = charindex(',', @list, @pos + 1) SELECT @valuelen = CASE WHEN @nextpos > 0 THEN @nextpos ELSE len(@list) + 1 END - @pos - 1 INSERT @tbl (number) VALUES (convert(int, substring(@list, @pos + 1, @valuelen))) SELECT @pos = @nextpos END RETURNEND create proc [dbo].[Comparison](@ProductVersionID VarChar(50))asbeginselect PV.Productversionname, F.FeatureID, F.Title, F.description, F.Modifieddate,PVF.IsPresent, FG.Title from features F,ProductVersionFeatures PVF, productversion PV, Featuregroup FG where F.FeatureID = PVF.FeatureID and PVF.productversionid = PV.ProductVersionID and iter$simple_intlist_to_tbl(@ProductVersionID) i ON PVF.productversionid = i.numberendThis is my Storeprocedure, where i am calling a function in this stored procedure but when i am trying to execute the Sp, i am facing an error liek this :Msg 195, Level 15, State 10, Procedure Comparison, Line 4'iter$simple_intlist_to_tbl' is not a recognized built-in function name. can any body please help me why this is hapenig, how can i solve this issue
View 11 Replies View RelatedI need to write SSIS package with 5 script task. I have one function which need to be called from each SSIS one by one. I wrote the that function at first SSIS task. For example:
Public Function Add() As Integer
Dim i, j As Integer
i = 10
j = 20
Return (i + j)
End Function
and I can call this function inside 1st SSIS task but how can I call this function on rest of 4 script task?
Thanks
Sanjeev
Is it possible to call a user-defined function without prefixing itwith 'dbo.' within a SELECT clause somehow? Just curious; it's not abig issue but just a stylistic one for me.Thanks!Joel Thornton ~ <groups@joelpt.eml.cc>
View 1 Replies View RelatedI want to execute a dynamically generated sql-statementfrom inside an user-defined-function. Calling functions andextended stored-procs is allowed so I tried sp_executesqlas well as sp_prepare/sp_execute ....but both fail with an error 'only functions and extended stored-procsmay be called from inside a function.'any idea where I might be wrong ?thx in advance,Joerg--************************************************** ***********Joerg ClausmeyerMedizinische Informatik und DatenmanagementCHARITE - Universitätsmedizin Berlin************************************************** ***********
View 3 Replies View Relatedhi, I have a trigger on a table for insert, once there is new data into that table I want to run a nother store procedure by passing all input from inserted to the store procedure as input parameter. can I do that.
Thanks
Ali
I have UDF in a database on SQL2000 server. Is it possible to call this UDF from other server (SQL2005)? I did setup a linked server to SQL2000
Call to the following function returns an error:
Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1
Invalid column name 'srv2000'.
select [srv2000].db_test.dbo.F_TEST()
Hi All
Yesterday Peso was gracious enough to help me with creating function/views/sp's
I took those examples and extended what had from excel into function in SQL
however I see myself repeating certain parts of the query and i'm wondering if there is a way to call a function (in part or in whole) from another function?
Here are excerpts two functions I have:
We'll call this function UserUsage()
------------------------------------
RETURN(
SELECT ut.LastName, ut.FirstName,
CEILING(Sum(hu.session_time)/ 60000) AS [Time Spent(MIN)],
Max(hu.time_stamp) AS [Last Log Date],
pct.Title, cat.topic_name
FROM ZSRIVENDEL.dbo.UserTable ut,
ZSRIVENDEL.dbo.history_usage hu,
ZSRIVENDEL.dbo.pc_CourseTitles pct,
ZSRIVENDEL.dbo.cam_topics cat
WHERE ut.student_id = hu.student_id
AND hu.course_id = pct.CourseID
AND hu.topic_id = cat.topic_id
AND ((ut.ClientID=@ClientID)
AND (pct.ClientID=@ClientID)
AND (ut.GroupID=3400)
AND (hu.time_stamp>= @StartDate
And hu.time_stamp< @EndDate)
AND (hu.session_time<21600000))
GROUP BY ut.LastName, ut.FirstName, pct.Title, cat.topic_name
)
and will call this function UserSummary():
-----------------------------------------
RETURN (
SELECTut.LastName, ut.FirstName,
CEILING(SUM(hu.Session_Time) / 60000.0) AS [Time Spent(MIN)]
FROM ZSRIVENDEL.dbo.UserTable AS ut
INNER JOIN ZSRIVENDEL.dbo.History_Usage AS hu
ON hu.Student_ID = ut.Student_ID
WHERE ut.ClientID = @ClientID
AND ut.GroupID = 3400
AND hu.Time_Stamp >= @StartDate
AND hu.Time_Stamp < @EndDate
AND hu.Session_Time < 21600000
GROUP BY ut.LastName, ut.FirstName
)
As you can see the first part of the both query are simlar. In particular the:
SELECTut.LastName, ut.FirstName,
CEILING(SUM(hu.Session_Time) / 60000.0) AS [Time Spent(MIN)]
and also the variables @StartDate and @EndDate.
In C# it would create a method and just call that method as well as the variables. However i'm not sure how to do that with sql functions. Could someone shed some light please?
Thank you!
I have to control my business rules in a Instead of Insert, Update Trigger.
Since the Control Flow is quite complicated I wanted to break it into stored procedures that get called from within the trigger.
I know that Insert Statements embedded in a Instead of Trigger do not execute the Insert of the trigger you are calling.
But... If I embed stored procedures that handle my inserts in the Instead of Insert trigger call the trigger and put in a endless loop or are the stored procedure inserts treated the same as trigger embedded inserts.
I have the following procedure, that calls a Padding function to pad characters to a field.
Here is what the procedure looks like
Code:
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[Pad_Left]
@Table VARCHAR(255),
@Column VARCHAR(255),
@PadChar CHAR(1),
@PadToLen INT
AS
DECLARE @Query Varchar(5000)
SET @Query = 'UPDATE ' + @Table + '
SET ' + @Column + ' = dbo.Function_PadLeft(' + @Column + ', ''' + @PadChar + ''', ' + @PadToLen + ')'
EXECUTE(@Query)
GO
When I run this I get the error
Server: Msg 245, Level 16, State 1, Procedure Pad_Left, Line 13
Syntax error converting the varchar value 'UPDATE Lincoln
SET baths = dbo.Function_PadLeft(baths, '0', ' to a column of data type int.
But when I just run this query, it works
Code:
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[Pad_Left]
@Table VARCHAR(255),
@Column VARCHAR(255),
@PadChar CHAR(1),
@PadToLen INT
AS
UPDATE Lincoln
SET Baths = dbo.Function_PadLeft(Baths, '0', 4)
GO
Why would one work but not the other? I don't understand, as they are the same thing, just one calls the function dynamically?
I must be missing something very obvious
Thanks for any help!
I seem to be getting tasks that I am not familiar with these days. I am a
guy that has coded it all in the asp page or in the code behind in .NET.
This problem is outlined below and I need a help / advice on doing this. I
had the flow of the 3 parts to it expanded below. A call is made to a Stored
Procedure, The SP then calls a user defined function that runs SQL, this
returns a 1 or 0 to the SP which then returns the value back to the call on
the asp page. This is a lot I know but it is the way the lead guy wants it
done. Any help so I can keep most of the hair I have left is appreciated :-)
Short list of process flow:
1. Form.asp calls to rx_sp_HasAccessToClient in SQL SERVER
2. rx_sp_HasAccessToClient then calls ab_HasAccessToClient
3. ab_HasAccessToClient runs SQL command on db and sends return bit back to
rx_sp_HasAccessToClient
4. rx_sp_HasAccessToClient then sends this back to the call in the Form.asp
page
5. Form.asp then checks the Boolean and if 1 then show or if 0 then deny.
<FLOW WITH CODE AND FUNCTIONS :>
This is not the correct syntax but is showing what I understand sort of how
this is to be done so far.
This panel loads up the Vendors and id's when the user clicks on the link
"view detailed list of vendors associated with this client". This is the
beginning of the process.
This is code in Form.asp
'PANEL ONE
XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX----
>
If ValidateInput(Request.Querystring("Postback"))="FormDetails" then 'Check
Postback Type
'We need to load up vendors associated with the current client.
'--------- CHECK ACCESS HERE via function ab_HasAccessToClient
--------
'If the call returns 1, then the employee has access.
'Otherwise, just write out "Access to this client is denied."
'CALL SP - Not sure what parameters need to go with it or its syntax
Execute_SP("rx_sp_HasAccessToClient '" & ClientSSN & "', 1)
'When it returns can check it here........
if ab_HasAccessToClient result is a 1 then
'boolean would be 1 so show panel
Else
'boolean would be 0 so show access denied
'allow them to go back to the original page.
end if
'PANEL ONE
XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX----
>
ON SQL SERVER: Stored Procedure
----------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------
rx_sp_HasAccessToClient
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[ rx_sp_HasAccessToClient]
@EmployeeID INT,
@ClientSSN varchar(50),
@ReturnBitValue = OUTPUT
/*
' Parameters here passed via call from Form.asp - not sure what is passed
yet.
*/
AS
set nocount on
/*
Written by Mike Belcher 9/27/2007 for Form.asp
'Calls ab_HasAccessToClient function - not sure of the syntax as of yet,
just making flow.
'Gets return bit and passes that back to the call from Form.asp
*/
GO
----------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------
ON SQL SERVER: User-Defined Function
----------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------
ab_HasAccessToClient
CREATE FUNCTION ab_HasAccessToClient (@employeeID INT, @ClientSSN
VARCHAR(50))
@ClientSSN varchar(50),
@EmployeeID,
@ReturnBitValue = OUTPUT
AS
SELECT 1
FROM tblEmployeesClients ec
INNER JOIN tblClients c ON ec.ClientID = c.ClientSSN
INNER JOIN tblEmployees e ON ec.Employee = e.EmployeeLogInName
WHERE e.EmployeeID= @EmployeeID
AND c.InActiveClient=0
AND c.ClientSSN = @ClientSSN
'Some Code here to save result bit ..
RETURN @ReturnBitValue 'Back to rx_sp_HasAccessToClient
----------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------
</FLOW WITH CODE AND FUNCTIONS :>
I seem to be getting tasks that I am not familiar with these days. I am a
guy that has coded it all in the asp page or in the code behind in .NET.
This problem is outlined below and I need a help / advice on doing this. I
had the flow of the 3 parts to it expanded below. A call is made to a Stored
Procedure, The SP then calls a user defined function that runs SQL, this
returns a 1 or 0 to the SP which then returns the value back to the call on
the asp page. This is a lot I know but it is the way the lead guy wants it
done. Any help so I can keep most of the hair I have left is appreciated :-)
Short list of process flow:
1. Form.asp calls to rx_sp_HasAccessToClient in SQL SERVER
2. rx_sp_HasAccessToClient then calls ab_HasAccessToClient
3. ab_HasAccessToClient runs SQL command on db and sends return bit back to
rx_sp_HasAccessToClient
4. rx_sp_HasAccessToClient then sends this back to the call in the Form.asp
page
5. Form.asp then checks the Boolean and if 1 then show or if 0 then deny.
<FLOW WITH CODE AND FUNCTIONS :>
This is not the correct syntax but is showing what I understand sort of how
this is to be done so far.
This panel loads up the Vendors and id's when the user clicks on the link
"view detailed list of vendors associated with this client". This is the
beginning of the process.
This is code in Form.asp
'PANEL ONE
XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX----
>
If ValidateInput(Request.Querystring("Postback"))="Fo rmDetails" then 'Check
Postback Type
'We need to load up vendors associated with the current client.
'--------- CHECK ACCESS HERE via function ab_HasAccessToClient
--------
'If the call returns 1, then the employee has access.
'Otherwise, just write out "Access to this client is denied."
'CALL SP - Not sure what parameters need to go with it or its syntax
Execute_SP("rx_sp_HasAccessToClient '" & ClientSSN & "', 1)
'When it returns can check it here........
if ab_HasAccessToClient result is a 1 then
'boolean would be 1 so show panel
Else
'boolean would be 0 so show access denied
'allow them to go back to the original page.
end if
'PANEL ONE
XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX----
>
ON SQL SERVER: Stored Procedure
----------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------
rx_sp_HasAccessToClient
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[ rx_sp_HasAccessToClient]
@EmployeeID INT,
@ClientSSN varchar(50),
@ReturnBitValue = OUTPUT
/*
' Parameters here passed via call from Form.asp - not sure what is passed
yet.
*/
AS
set nocount on
/*
Written by Mike Belcher 9/27/2007 for Form.asp
'Calls ab_HasAccessToClient function - not sure of the syntax as of yet,
just making flow.
'Gets return bit and passes that back to the call from Form.asp
*/
GO
----------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------
ON SQL SERVER: User-Defined Function
----------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------
ab_HasAccessToClient
CREATE FUNCTION ab_HasAccessToClient (@employeeID INT, @ClientSSN
VARCHAR(50))
@ClientSSN varchar(50),
@EmployeeID,
@ReturnBitValue = OUTPUT
AS
SELECT 1
FROM tblEmployeesClients ec
INNER JOIN tblClients c ON ec.ClientID = c.ClientSSN
INNER JOIN tblEmployees e ON ec.Employee = e.EmployeeLogInName
WHERE e.EmployeeID= @EmployeeID
AND c.InActiveClient=0
AND c.ClientSSN = @ClientSSN
'Some Code here to save result bit ..
RETURN @ReturnBitValue 'Back to rx_sp_HasAccessToClient
----------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------
</FLOW WITH CODE AND FUNCTIONS :>
I use a database that has user names stored in Encrypted format usingthe following API.Declare Sub Encrypt2 Lib "QPRO32.DLL" (ByVal Work As String, ByValPASSWORD As String)Every time i require the user name i have to again decrypt the nameusing the same function.My problem is that when i fetch a large number of records i have toloop through every record and call the encrypt function for eachrecord.Instead of binding the recordset to my control i need to loopthrough and fill my controlA MSHFlexGrid in Vb6.0.Is there a way out to this problem that will make my record populatiogfaster withoutout changing the current Encrypted users.Thanx in Advance
View 2 Replies View RelatedHi!I have a scalar function that returns integer:xview (int)Now, I'm trying to build a procedure that has the following selectinside:select atr1, xview(atr2)from tablenameBut, I get the 'Invalid name' error when I try to execute thatprocedure.If I got it right, I must use user.fn_name() syntax, but I cannot usedbo.xview() inside my procedure since it means xview will always beexecuted as dbo, which is unaccaptable.I'm a bit confused, so any hint is very welcomed.Thanks!Mario.
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