HI, how can i drop the identity on a column from the table. I have no access to the sql enterprise manager, i have to do it thru query analyser only. regards, varadish
Working on partitioning a few large tables. One of the tables included a text column and the €śTEXTIMAGE_ON [PRIMARY]€? clause which would prevent the partitioning of this table. After some research we found that the data was legacy and no longer used. We updated the column on the affected rows to NULLS and altered the column to a VARCHAR(20) When I attempted to run the ALTER TABLE SWITCH I encountered the error Msg 4947, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 ALTER TABLE SWITCH statement failed. There is no identical index in source table 'LocalDeltanet.dbo.testresultsjoe' for the index 'PKIDX_testSummary' in target table 'LocalDeltanet.dbo.testresults_part'. After a lot of grief and testing I determined that the message was bogus and the real issue is that the 'sys.tables' still has €ślob_data_space_id€? with a value of 1 for this table. I created a copy of the table with the text column altered to varchar and one with just the varchar to begin with. After copying data from the original table, I tried to run the alter switch. It failed once again for the text column altered to varchar table, but it worked for the varchar from the start.
Since it appears that this value is causing my issues, is there anyway to update the table in place. I know I can BCP the data out, but that would take too long and would defeat the advantage of using the alter switch method.
BOL States:
The allow updates option is still present in the sp_configure stored procedure, although its functionality is unavailable in Microsoft SQL Server 2005 (the setting has no effect). In SQL Server 2005, direct updates to the system tables are not supported. This means we cannot update the table manually.
we recently migrated from our in-house domain to the Enterprise domain. Everything went smooth except for the fact that I can no longer accept my dBs using my SA or my domain admin account. There is only 1 account I can get into the management studio with but it has no admin privileges, so I can't make any  password changes or add accounts. I don't have a test environment so kind of hesitant to experiment with our production system.
i wonder what is the best approach to use !!!i have creditLimit column in Customer Table the default value will be 500 and this limit to allow users to send sms from my website ..... every month they will be allowed to send 500 sms referring to the credit limit column.... now !!if the user sent today some sms and after few days sent another 20 and after one week he sent 150 SMS as a total so that means he has only 350 SMS as credit to use this month!!!so what is the best approach to implement this solution ? shall i have another field in the table called 'CreditUsed' and that will be updated each time the user will send SMS and this value will be compared with the credit limit ORi use the formula for the column to calculate the credit left and do the maths !!!what is the best approach as you think ???thnaks for reading this question !!
i am running this script SELECT dbo.SHOVEL_A.HOLEID, dbo.Shovel_Hole.HOLEID AS shovel_id, dbo.SHOVEL_A.PROJECTCODE, dbo.Shovel_Hole.Shotname, dbo.Shovel_Hole.B_FEET, dbo.Shovel_Hole.S_FEET, SQRT(square(dbo.SHOVEL_A.EAST - dbo.Shovel_Hole.EAST) + square(dbo.SHOVEL_A.NORTH - dbo.Shovel_Hole.NORTH)) AS distance_total FROM dbo.SHOVEL_A FULL OUTER JOIN dbo.Shovel_Hole ON dbo.SHOVEL_A.POLYGONO = dbo.Shovel_Hole.Shotname AND distance_total <= dbo.Shovel_Hole.B_FEET GROUP BY dbo.SHOVEL_A.HOLEID, dbo.Shovel_Hole.HOLEID, dbo.Shovel_Hole.Shotname, dbo.Shovel_Hole.B_FEET, dbo.Shovel_Hole.S_FEET, dbo.SHOVEL_A.PROJECTCODE, SQRT(square(dbo.SHOVEL_A.EAST - dbo.Shovel_Hole.EAST) + square(dbo.SHOVEL_A.NORTH - dbo.Shovel_Hole.NORTH)) HAVING (dbo.SHOVEL_A.PROJECTCODE = 'PRODL') AND (dbo.Shovel_Hole.Shotname = '20040524029')
but i have a result with the message that my colum name distance_total is wrong, so how can i fix that?
We are thinking of using general purpose column names in our application schema. We want to give the option to the end user to customize the filed names to fit their business . We want to build the functionality on the generic names so that it will work for multiple customes.
Example: We may want to have 10 Strings, 10 numbers and 5 booleans pre defined and reports running off of the table. The customer can name first number as pressure, second one for length and map their data to the table. Other customer can use the first number for temperature and the second one for width.
Is there a way to do it in SQL server w/o having a lookup table for column name aliasing?
Hi All, I have a column called TIER in my database which is a long string. There are piece of these strings that are separated by spaces like this: 'A3A00 A2B00 B1A00 C2C06 C3A06 C5A00 D2C00 G6B00 M2B00 M3B00 P7A00 T2A00 G4C00 G3C00 T5A06' How do I select the last 2 characters of the piece of string when the first 2 chacters are M2? I have the following: This is retruning me all the rows that have 'M2'. declare @code varchar (2)set @code = 'M2'select tier from companywhere tier like '%'+@code+'___ %' Any help is appreciated. Thank you in advance.
i have a problem, i have a query which does a search based on a parameter, thing is i want to order them according to how relevant the results are such as 5 for beingan exact match, 0 for being no match. using a series of liek statements.
so that the most relevnat results are displayed at the top.
how do i achieve this - im a bit confused about this.
I have about 5 statements like the update below, depending on the PID different columns will be update "C2005, G2005,E2005...."
I would like to use 1 update statement in stead of 5 to update all columns below are 2 original update statements and my attempt at when then update. Note a different column is updated depending on the PID.
If when then isnt possible, any other suggestions are welcomed. Thanks UPDATE #Sec SET C2005 = Pos.USD / 1000 FROM #Sec INNER JOIN Pos ON #Sec.ID = Pos.ID WHERE (Pos.PID = 'B')
UPDATE #Sec SET G2005 = Pos.USD / 1000 FROM #Sec INNER JOIN Pos ON #Sec.ID = Pos.ID WHERE (Pos.PID = 'G')
UPDATE #Sec WHEN (Pos.PID = 'C') THEN SET C2005 = Pos.USD / 1000 end WHEN (Pos.PID = 'G') THEN SET G2005 = Pos.USD / 1000 end WHEN (Pos.PID = 'E') THEN SET E2005 = Pos.USD / 1000 end FROM #Sec INNER JOIN Pos ON #Sec.ID = Pos.ID
Im Working with stored procedure. How can i compare Columns with specific values. I want to get the greater values of those column and inserted it to other columns. i want something like these CASE WHEN a> b,c,d THEN a WHEN b> a,c,d THEN b WHEN c> a,b,d THEN c WHEN d> a,d,c THEN d
is there any ways to implement this? i got an error.. thanks please help..
SELECT @initial = CASE WHEN type = 1 THEN SUM(amount) END, @incomings = CASE WHEN type = 2 THEN SUM(amount) END, @outgoings = CASE WHEN type = 3 THEN SUM(amount) END, FROM Transactions WHERE date = '05/14/2006' AND STATION = 'apuyinc' GROUP BY type, amount
What I am trying to do is to sum all of the incomings transactions into @incomings, all of the outgoing transactions into @outgoings and the initial transaction into @initial where The incoming transactions is type 2, outgoing transactions is type 3
In SQL7, if you add a column to a table, is it necessary to recompile all stored procs that reference that table? Under 6.5, this caused problems at our site unless the Procs were 'refreshed'. Is this only necessary where select * is used? Thanks
Hi ,I have this querypaprojnumber is varcharpatx500 is textpalineitemseq is intselect Paprojnumber,Patx500,max(palineitemseq) from pa02101,pa01601wherepa02101.pabillnoteidx=pa01601.pabillnoteidx group bypaprojnumber,patx500it throws this errorServer: Msg 306, Level 16, State 2, Line 1The text, ntext, and image data types cannot be compared or sorted,except when using IS NULL or LIKE operator.Thanks a lot for your help.AJ
THe unique Id column is set to identity seed. Yet when transfering 1500 records it fails to stuff them all becuase it says there is a NULL in unique id column. "Cannot insert the value NULL into column UID column does not allow" Yet in the transformation screen I am setting the UID column to <ignore> meaning I do not have that value in my source and I am wanting the destination table to do it's thing and incrememnt by 1 the identity seed. Is this common? THe source and destination tables are in the same databes.
Hi all,We're selecting data from our database, FirstName, LastName, MobileNumber etc.We're using the detaials view function to return it in a table upon selection. However all of the variables are returned as they are in the database, ie: without spaces. We tried putting in spaces by selecting "AS what ever", but MSSQL does not seem to like spaces.Any ideas?Thanks
Urgent help needed!I moved an application from ASP+ACCESS to ASP+MS SQLSERVER and I havethe following problem:If the join on two tables results on duplicate colum names (whichappear in both tables) I could reference them by using:RECORDSET("TABLENAME.COLUMNAME")However with SQLServer if I try this kind of reference I get an errormessage.How can between two colums with the same name from two differen tables?Thanks in advance!Adam
I have a complex view in my sql 2005 database. The view returns a column that could be null (as the result of a left outer join). The coulmn that is returned is an integer. Everything works fine if I run the view from SQL 2005 Management Studio. My column value is always null if I use ADO.NET's SqlAdapter to return a DataTable. Has anybody seen this behaviour before? Any help appreciated. Regards, Paul.
While I have learned a lot from this thread I am still basically confused about the issues involved.
.I wanted to INSERT a record in a parent table, get the Identity back and use it in a child table. Seems simple.
To my knowledge, mine would be the only process running that would update these tables. I was told that there is no guarantee, because the OLEDB provider could write the second destination row before the first, that the proper parent-child relationship would be generated as expected. It was recommended that I create my own variable in memory to hold the Identity value and use that in my SSIS package.
1. A simple example SSIS .dts example illustrating the approach of using a variable for identity would be helpful.
2. Suppose I actually had two processes updating these tables, running at the same time. Then it seems the "variable" method will also have its problems. Is there a final solution other than locking the tables involved prior to updating them or doing something crazy like using a GUID for the primary key!
3. We have done the type of parent-child inserts I originally described from t-sql for years without any apparent problems. (Maybe we were just lucky.) Is the entire issue simply a t-sql one or does SSIS add a layer of complexity beyond t-sql that needs to be addressed?
I want to insert a new record into a table with an Identity field and return the new Identify field value back to the data stream (for later insertion as a foreign key in another table).
What is the most direct way to do this in SSIS?
TIA,
barkingdog
P.S. Or should I pass the identity value back in a variable and not make it part of the data stream?
I like to define my procedure parameter type to match a referenced table colum type, similar to PL/SQL "table.column%type" notation. That way, when the table column is changes, I would not have to change my stored proc. Any suggestion?
Hello!I have an MS SQL-server with an database, that runs replication. In thisdatabase there is an table with an columni want to extend; varchar(50)->varchar(60).But I get this error (using design window of Enterprise Manager): Cannotdrop the table 'MytableName' because it is being used for replication.Thanks for helpBjoern
I have table of three column first column is an ID column. However at creation of the table i have not set this column to auto increment. Then i have copied 50 rows in another table to this table then set the ID column values to zero.
Now I have changed the ID column to auto increment seed=1 increment=1 but the problem is i couldn't figure out how to update this ID column with zero value set to each row with this auto increment values so the ID column would have values from 1-50. Is there a away to do this?
Ok,I just need to know how to get the last record inserted by the highestIDENTITY number. Even if the computer was rebooted and it was twoweeks ago. (Does not have to do with the session).Any help is appreciated.Thanks,Trint
Hi, I am having problem in bulk update of a sql server table haning identity column from a datatable( has no identity column) using sqlbulkcopy. I tried several approaches, but it does not show any error nor is the table getting updated. But the identity value seems to getting increased every time. thanks. varun
I'm working with a third-party database (SQL Server 2005) and the problem here is the following:
- There are a bunch of ETL processes that needs to insert rows on a table (let's call this table T) and at the same time, an ERP (owner of T) is up and running (reading, updating and inserting on T).
- The PK of T is an Integer.
Today all ETL processes uses (select max(ID) + 1 from T) to insert new rows, so just picture the scenario. It is a mess! Everyday they get duplicate key error when 2 or more concurrent processes are trying to insert a row (with the max) at the same time.
Considering that I can't change the PK, what is the best approach to solve this problem?
To sum up:
* I need to have processes in parallel inserting on T
