Can You Associate A Task/job With A Report?

Aug 16, 2007

Hi there,

I'm wondering if there is a way to associate a job or task of some kind (i.e. SQL Agent job or SSIS package) with the generation of a report?

I have a need to provide an on-demand report that somehow initiates the updating of its data source prior to generation. In other words, I'd like the report to do *something* that can start an external process (external to the report) and wait for that process to complete before proceeding with the report generation.

As you can probably tell, updating the data source is expensive. It is normally scheduled along with a scheduled report, but I'd like the report to be runnable on demand when that is (rarely) the need, and I'd also like to guarantee the data source is updated when the scheduled report runs, which I can only do if I can somhow create a dependency between the updating process and the report generation.

Any ideas?

(The only way I can see to execute code synchronously from the report is to build a custom data processing extension/provider, which is fairly absurd.)

Thanks
Sam

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Best Way To Associate One To Many Setup...

May 8, 2008

Hi. We're trying to setup a new case management system and I'm having a problem trying to store some of the information. I think I know how to go about it; however, I'm not sure if it's right.

We have two tables: Cases and Clients. The cases table stores relevant case information like case number, case type, etc. The Clients table stores information like name, address, phone number, email, etc.

What is the best way to associate these two tables together? I'm assuming I need a third table. Right? Thanks!

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Dec 28, 2006

Hi all.Running SQL2K SP4 on W2K3 Standard, SP4.I have just refreshed a database on one server with a backup fromanother. The database had existed previously on the target server, andI am just refreshing its contents. I used the following approach1) From the target server, create a SQL script with users and roles2) From the source server, back up the db3) Transfer the file4) Restore the db, checking the location of the data and log files toensure correctness5) Remove orphaned users6) Run in the users/roles script generated in step 17) Run in a canned script containing object-level grants.I've done this dozens of times in other databases, but something alittle unusual has occurred here:My dbo user is orphaned. Normally it's associated with the 'sa' login,but at this point there is no associated user.I can see why this has happened - on the source db, the dbo user hasbeen associated with a non-default login.And, many of the objects in the db are owned by dbo.The only viable option I see is to change the ownership of theseobjects, drop dbo, re-add it with the association to sa, and reassertthe object-level grants.But what I would prefer is some way to change the association of thedbo user, to associate it with 'sa' without the need to drop andrecreate.Can anyone suggest an alternative strategy to associate a login and auser after-the-fact?Thanks much for all input!BD

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If You Are Associate With CALL CENTER, Then See

Mar 23, 2007

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Aug 26, 2006

Hello, im brand new to these forums, scrolled through a bit of the forum(mainly trying to figure out how to go about what im about to ask) and it seems like a good forum...anyways onto my question.

i am in need of ideas/know-how on how to structure a database like such:

its an online motorcycle accessories website, and this is the information i need to store in the db(basically these will be my tables in the db)

bike manufacturer
bike name
products

now my main question is how would i structure those tables so i can get this effect.

each product in the product table needs to have a bike associated to it, 99% of the time it will be more than one bike associated to it, so how would i go about doing that?

originally i had set it up with the bikes name being different columns in the products table with a bit type set to 1 if that product was available for that bike and 0 if it wasnt available. however as you are probably already thinking that isnt the best way to do that.

so what is the best way?

any info at all would be greatly appreciated.

thanks in advance

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Aug 21, 2007

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Thanks!

Michael

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i begin for Data mining ( analysis manager - sql server 2000)
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Nov 22, 2004

Hi all, I've had this issue in the past but dealt with it in a way that I don't think is correct:

Let's say I have a database on Server1. On Server1 I create a login and a user on the database. Now I have User1 with a login authorization on Server1 as well as a user within my database. If I detach that database now, and re-attach it on a different server, User1 exists. Of course, on the new Server2 User1 does not have authorization to login. I've deleted the existing user in the database and then re-created a login on the server, cascading through with the GUI setup to re-create the user within the database, too. Of course this gets ugly if the user has objects within the database. If I create a server login with the same name as the database user the login is not associated with the user too, correct?

I'd like to know the way that I can create a server authorization tied to the existing database user without dropping that database user, preferably within Enterprise Manager.

Thanks all,

MC

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Apr 20, 2007

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It's not looking good.

I'm looking for confimration that it's not possible or leads on doing so.

Thanx in advance

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Mar 14, 2006

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OK. I give up and need help. Hopefully it's something minor ...



I have a dataflow which returns email addresses to a recordset.

I pass this recordset into a ForEachLoop configuring the enumerator as (Foreach ADO Enumerator). I also map the email address as a variable with index 0.



I then have a Execute SQL task which receives this email address as a varchar variable (parameter 0) which I then use in my SQL command to limit the rows returned. I have commented out the where clause and returned all rows regardless of email address to try to troubleshoot this problem. In either event, I then use a resultset to store the query result of type object and result name 0.



I then pass this resultset into a script variable to start parsing the sql rows returned as type object. ( I assume this is the correct way to do this from other prior posts ...).



The script appears to throw an exception at the following line. I assume it's because I'm either not passing in the values properly or the query doesn't return anything. However, I am certain the query works as it executes just fine at the command prompt.



Try

ds = CType(Dts.Variables("VP_EMAIL_RESULTS_RS").Value, DataSet)



My intent is to email the query results to each email address with the following type of data by passing the parsed data from the script to a send mail task. Email works fine and sends out messages but the content is empty. I pass the parsed data as string values to the messagesource and define the messagesourcetype as a variable in the mail task.



part number leadtime

x 5

y 9

....



Does anyone have any idea what I might be doing wrong?

thanks

John

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May 25, 2006

 

I have just spent two hours banging my head off the wall to figure this one out... wondering if I had a problem with variable scope or something...

I had a Script Task which was taking a few package level variables to use in the script.

So I put the list of variables in the ReadWriteVariables property.

Specified them like this:

"User::FileBeingProcessed, User::FileSource"

And all was well....

Then later on decided to use the same set of variables in a Script Component contained in a Data Flow.

And kept kept getting a "..variable not found.." error dialog when I clicked on Design Script.

Finally the solution came to me: Spaces in the list of variables !

In a script task you can have a space after a comma in the list... but in a script component you CAN'T !!

So what works in a Script Task is :

Task :   "User::FileBeingProcessed, User::FileSource"

But that will not work in a Script Component...

See the difference?:

Task     :"User::FileBeingProcessed, User::FileSource"
Component:"User::FileBeingProcessed,User::FileSource"


I know the BOL says to use a comma separated list.. but.. some consistency would be nice...

 

PJ

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Jul 1, 2015

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May 4, 2006



Hi,

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The task with the name "Data Flow Task" and the creation name "DTS.Pipeline.1" is not registered for use on this computer.

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Cannot remove the specified item because it was not found in the specified Collection.

I am creating this application in an administrator account in this computer, so I doubt the problem is related to permissions. I am running SQL Server 2005 and Visual Studio 2005 in WinXP Tablet PC Edition.

Any suggestions why this is happening and how to fix it?

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Feb 21, 2008



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I have failed to find any option in the "Transfer SQL Server Objects Task" task to explicitly say "copy default constraints". So I guess logically it should happen automatically but it doesn't. I hope it is not a bug :-)

Any option anyone knows will help.

Thanks.

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Mar 12, 2008



I am using SQL 2005 SSIS. I am joining several large tables and then the move result into another table in the same database.

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Use Execute SQL Task to insert the result set to the target table

Use the Data Flow Task to insert the result set to the target table. (Use OLE DB source to execute SQL command and then use the SQL destination)
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Thanks.

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Dec 2, 2005

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Mar 28, 2007

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Column Name 1 : Column Value

Column Name 2: Column Value and so on

I tried writing the contents of the Object Variable into a file, but the file had an output of single word: System.__ComObject.




Code for Writing the Full Result Set into a Text File

Dim RSsqloutput as String = Dts.Variables("objVariable").Value.ToString

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oLogFile.WriteAllText("C:MyFile.txt", rsSQLOutput)



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Would you please give me a hint of code how I can go upon.





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Feb 1, 2007

In short, does the €œTransfer SQL Server Objects Task€? support distributed transactions?

In trying to use a €œTransfer SQL Server Objects Task€? in a container using a transaction on the container. The task is set to support the transaction. It is setup to copy table data from several tables from a non-domain server (sql server 2000) to a domain-based server (sql server 2005). I get an error stating, €œThis task can not participate in a transaction€?.

I am wondering if it means exactly what it says €“ this task in SSIS can€™t participate at all. Or does it mean that it won€™t in this scenario for some reason. I attempted a simple copy of data from mssql 2005 to mssql 2005 (same server) and the task still failed). MSDTC appears to be running properly on my machine and such (I can do a simple distributed transaction across linked server to the 2000 server in Query Analyzer (QA)). Also, MSDTC appears to be working on both servers with distributed transaction query tests in QA.

Here€™s the error info€¦

SSIS package "Development BusinessContacts and Products Migration.dtsx" starting.
Information: 0x4001100A at Copy BusinessContacts Data: Starting distributed transaction for this container.
Error: 0xC002F319 at Copy BusinessContacts database table data 1, Transfer SQL Server Objects Task: This task can not participate in a transaction.
Task failed: Copy BusinessContacts database table data 1
Information: 0x4001100C at Copy BusinessContacts database table data 1: Aborting the current distributed transaction.
Information: 0x4001100C at Copy BusinessContacts Data: Aborting the current distributed transaction.
SSIS package "Development BusinessContacts and Products Migration.dtsx" finished: Failure.
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Jun 14, 2006

Hi

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Oct 2, 2007

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A.

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Mar 6, 2006

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How do I set up a transaction where if there is a failure the Truncate Table command will roll back---and the OLE Destination (A single SQL Server table) will be left the same as before the load started.

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I've created my own posting for this. The original post was here, I apologize: http://forums.microsoft.com/forums/ShowPost.aspx?PostID=2906512&SiteID=1

According to the poster it's not possible. But there has to be some way to do it? Reflection (don't know how)?


I need to get a reference to the task host in an SSIS Task component.

Basically the scenario is this:

I have a custom task I have created. However I would like to validate that the ExecValueVariable is infact a string variable during the validate event of the task. I know how to verify its a string variable. But I can't figure out how to read what the user selected (such as User::Myvariable). The only way I've been able to figure out how to do it, but it only works if you open my custom task UI.

What I did is this:

I've implemented IDtsTaskUI and during the initialize section I wrote:

Sub Initialize(ByVal taskHost As TaskHost, ByVal serviceProvider As IServiceProvider) Implements IDtsTaskUI.Initialize
' Store the TaskHost of the task.
Me.taskHostValue = taskHost
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Public NotInheritable Class CustomTask
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Problem is, this only works if the custom task calls the initialize method, and this only happens when you open the custom editor.

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