I'm wondering if there is a way to associate a job or task of some kind (i.e. SQL Agent job or SSIS package) with the generation of a report?
I have a need to provide an on-demand report that somehow initiates the updating of its data source prior to generation. In other words, I'd like the report to do *something* that can start an external process (external to the report) and wait for that process to complete before proceeding with the report generation.
As you can probably tell, updating the data source is expensive. It is normally scheduled along with a scheduled report, but I'd like the report to be runnable on demand when that is (rarely) the need, and I'd also like to guarantee the data source is updated when the scheduled report runs, which I can only do if I can somhow create a dependency between the updating process and the report generation.
Any ideas?
(The only way I can see to execute code synchronously from the report is to build a custom data processing extension/provider, which is fairly absurd.)
Hi. We're trying to setup a new case management system and I'm having a problem trying to store some of the information. I think I know how to go about it; however, I'm not sure if it's right.
We have two tables: Cases and Clients. The cases table stores relevant case information like case number, case type, etc. The Clients table stores information like name, address, phone number, email, etc.
What is the best way to associate these two tables together? I'm assuming I need a third table. Right? Thanks!
Hi all.Running SQL2K SP4 on W2K3 Standard, SP4.I have just refreshed a database on one server with a backup fromanother. The database had existed previously on the target server, andI am just refreshing its contents. I used the following approach1) From the target server, create a SQL script with users and roles2) From the source server, back up the db3) Transfer the file4) Restore the db, checking the location of the data and log files toensure correctness5) Remove orphaned users6) Run in the users/roles script generated in step 17) Run in a canned script containing object-level grants.I've done this dozens of times in other databases, but something alittle unusual has occurred here:My dbo user is orphaned. Normally it's associated with the 'sa' login,but at this point there is no associated user.I can see why this has happened - on the source db, the dbo user hasbeen associated with a non-default login.And, many of the objects in the db are owned by dbo.The only viable option I see is to change the ownership of theseobjects, drop dbo, re-add it with the association to sa, and reassertthe object-level grants.But what I would prefer is some way to change the association of thedbo user, to associate it with 'sa' without the need to drop andrecreate.Can anyone suggest an alternative strategy to associate a login and auser after-the-fact?Thanks much for all input!BD
Hello, im brand new to these forums, scrolled through a bit of the forum(mainly trying to figure out how to go about what im about to ask) and it seems like a good forum...anyways onto my question.
i am in need of ideas/know-how on how to structure a database like such:
its an online motorcycle accessories website, and this is the information i need to store in the db(basically these will be my tables in the db)
bike manufacturer bike name products
now my main question is how would i structure those tables so i can get this effect.
each product in the product table needs to have a bike associated to it, 99% of the time it will be more than one bike associated to it, so how would i go about doing that?
originally i had set it up with the bikes name being different columns in the products table with a bit type set to 1 if that product was available for that bike and 0 if it wasnt available. however as you are probably already thinking that isnt the best way to do that.
Currently a 2005 login has been granted sysadmin because I can not figure out how to grant the same login the SqlAgentUserRole. I thought I would use SSMS but there must be a trick. The role only exists in the msdb database, which the login has not been granted explicit access to. And the login does not appear in the list of Role Members or its sub windows. This should be real easy and intuitive . . .
i begin for Data mining ( analysis manager - sql server 2000) i create some mining model with Microsoft_decision_ trees or Clustering. it's oK but now i want to create a model to know "If customer 1 has product A in their basket, what products should I recommend ".
i read and see that "Microsoft analysis manager sp1" have support association rules. i install pack 4. but i don't see anything else . how i create a model with association rules.
Hi all, I've had this issue in the past but dealt with it in a way that I don't think is correct:
Let's say I have a database on Server1. On Server1 I create a login and a user on the database. Now I have User1 with a login authorization on Server1 as well as a user within my database. If I detach that database now, and re-attach it on a different server, User1 exists. Of course, on the new Server2 User1 does not have authorization to login. I've deleted the existing user in the database and then re-created a login on the server, cascading through with the GUI setup to re-create the user within the database, too. Of course this gets ugly if the user has objects within the database. If I create a server login with the same name as the database user the login is not associated with the user too, correct?
I'd like to know the way that I can create a server authorization tied to the existing database user without dropping that database user, preferably within Enterprise Manager.
I'm currently running SQL Server 2005, and have been exploring the feasibility of grouping users to use a default file group and data file. This would be to group a set of users to have their new tables reside in a specific data file. I only see mechanisms for moving an already existing objects into a file group or to set the entire databases default file group--not a user level association or dynamic assignment of the default for that user, script, etc.
It's not looking good.
I'm looking for confimration that it's not possible or leads on doing so.
In one of my SSIS Project tasks I insert some records into a table. I want to somehow fire off an SSRS report and send this report to some staff members. how would I add a component to reference or run an SSRS report off the table I just inserted to all from SSIS? I assume I'd h ave to create the report in SSRS first, then somehow reference it from SSIS and then figure out a way to run the report, maybe export it into Excel format and send to the users....not sure how to go about all this in my SSIS package.
OK. I give up and need help. Hopefully it's something minor ...
I have a dataflow which returns email addresses to a recordset.
I pass this recordset into a ForEachLoop configuring the enumerator as (Foreach ADO Enumerator). I also map the email address as a variable with index 0.
I then have a Execute SQL task which receives this email address as a varchar variable (parameter 0) which I then use in my SQL command to limit the rows returned. I have commented out the where clause and returned all rows regardless of email address to try to troubleshoot this problem. In either event, I then use a resultset to store the query result of type object and result name 0.
I then pass this resultset into a script variable to start parsing the sql rows returned as type object. ( I assume this is the correct way to do this from other prior posts ...).
The script appears to throw an exception at the following line. I assume it's because I'm either not passing in the values properly or the query doesn't return anything. However, I am certain the query works as it executes just fine at the command prompt.
My intent is to email the query results to each email address with the following type of data by passing the parsed data from the script to a send mail task. Email works fine and sends out messages but the content is empty. I pass the parsed data as string values to the messagesource and define the messagesourcetype as a variable in the mail task.
part number leadtime
x 5
y 9
....
Does anyone have any idea what I might be doing wrong?
I'm using SSIS in Visual Studio 2012. My Execute SQL Task calls a Stored Procedure where I have a TRY-CATCH. Last week there was a problem and the CATCH was executed and logged an error to my error table, but for some reason the Execute SQL Task didn't fail. Is there a setting to make the Execute SQL Task fail when an SP encounters a failure?
I am trying to create a simple BI Application for SSIS. In Visual Studio 2005 I just get a Data Flow Task from the toolbar and add it to the project. When I double click it I get the following error:
The task with the name "Data Flow Task" and the creation name "DTS.Pipeline.1" is not registered for use on this computer.
Then when I try to delete it it gives this other error:
Cannot remove the specified item because it was not found in the specified Collection.
I am creating this application in an administrator account in this computer, so I doubt the problem is related to permissions. I am running SQL Server 2005 and Visual Studio 2005 in WinXP Tablet PC Edition.
Any suggestions why this is happening and how to fix it?
I am using the "Transfer SQL Server Objects Task" to copy some tables from database A to database B including data.
The tables, primary key constraints, Foreign key, data and all transfers nicely except for "DEFAULT CONSTRAINTS" on the tables.
I have failed to find any option in the "Transfer SQL Server Objects Task" task to explicitly say "copy default constraints". So I guess logically it should happen automatically but it doesn't. I hope it is not a bug :-)
I am using SQL 2005 SSIS. I am joining several large tables and then the move result into another table in the same database.
I would like know which method is faster:
Use Execute SQL Task to insert the result set to the target table
Use the Data Flow Task to insert the result set to the target table. (Use OLE DB source to execute SQL command and then use the SQL destination) Could you tell me why then other is slower?
I have a SQL Task that calls a stored procedure and returns an output parameter. The task fails with error "Value does not fall within the expected range." The Stored Procedure is defined as follows: Create Procedure [dbo].[TestOutputParms] @InParm INT , @OutParm INT OUTPUT as Set @OutParm = @InParm + 5 The task uses an OLEDB connection and has a source type of Direct Input. The SQL Statement is Exec TestOutputParms 7, ? output The parameter mapping is: Variable Name Direction Data Type Parameter Name User::OutParm Output LONG @OutParm
In the Control flow tab, I have an Execute SQL Task that outputs full Result set into a variable of an object type. Now how can I write the contents of the Full Result Set into a text file using Script Task. I also want to format the following way while I output into a file:
Column Name 1 : Column Value
Column Name 2: Column Value and so on
I tried writing the contents of the Object Variable into a file, but the file had an output of single word: System.__ComObject.
Code for Writing the Full Result Set into a Text File
Dim RSsqloutput as String = Dts.Variables("objVariable").Value.ToString
Dim strVal as String = "File completed on " & Now() & vbCrLf & "------------------------------------------------------" & vbCrLf
In short, does the €œTransfer SQL Server Objects Task€? support distributed transactions?
In trying to use a €œTransfer SQL Server Objects Task€? in a container using a transaction on the container. The task is set to support the transaction. It is setup to copy table data from several tables from a non-domain server (sql server 2000) to a domain-based server (sql server 2005). I get an error stating, €œThis task can not participate in a transaction€?.
I am wondering if it means exactly what it says €“ this task in SSIS can€™t participate at all. Or does it mean that it won€™t in this scenario for some reason. I attempted a simple copy of data from mssql 2005 to mssql 2005 (same server) and the task still failed). MSDTC appears to be running properly on my machine and such (I can do a simple distributed transaction across linked server to the 2000 server in Query Analyzer (QA)). Also, MSDTC appears to be working on both servers with distributed transaction query tests in QA.
Here€™s the error info€¦
SSIS package "Development BusinessContacts and Products Migration.dtsx" starting. Information: 0x4001100A at Copy BusinessContacts Data: Starting distributed transaction for this container. Error: 0xC002F319 at Copy BusinessContacts database table data 1, Transfer SQL Server Objects Task: This task can not participate in a transaction. Task failed: Copy BusinessContacts database table data 1 Information: 0x4001100C at Copy BusinessContacts database table data 1: Aborting the current distributed transaction. Information: 0x4001100C at Copy BusinessContacts Data: Aborting the current distributed transaction. SSIS package "Development BusinessContacts and Products Migration.dtsx" finished: Failure. The program '[4700] Development BusinessContacts and Products Migration.dtsx: DTS' has exited with code 0 (0x0).
I have an application like fetching records from the DataBase(MS Access 2000) and results i have to use in Script Task. At present i have used the record fetching query,connection string in Script itself. I would like to use in Independently. Is there any Tools like (Control Flow Tools like Execute SQL Task) are there to fetch the result set from Acccess and can use the fetching results in Script Task....
I have a stored procedure that is executed via a sql script task that returns a full result set. I map this result set to a variable or object type. Is there a way to use this variable as a data source in a subsequent data flow task?
I have made one package which extracts data from the source does transformation and submits the data to destination. Subsequently it also updates the required control files.
Now I want to add a functionality :
If the package is executed again it should check the status of previous execution in control file if success mark all tasks disable and stop
if failure mark all tasks at enable and start extracting data and continue further with execution.
I was able to attain similar functionality in SQL Server 2000 using activeX script. What code do I need to write as a part of Script Task in order to attain above functionality.
For first time I'm testing this task and surprisingly, when I try "Edit Package" option:
1)The DTS host failed to load or save the package properly 2)The selected package cannot be opened 3)Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM component
But after these messages you can see all the tasks but they haven't name!!
It seem as if RCW mechanism has failed between managed and unmanaged coded-partially.
I don't dare to follow doing more stuff, I don't know if that package is well-loaded or not from there. ?¿
2: Dataflow Task: Datareader--Script componant--OLE DB Destination (SQL Server 2005--a single table --always around 600,000 rows)
How do I set up a transaction where if there is a failure the Truncate Table command will roll back---and the OLE Destination (A single SQL Server table) will be left the same as before the load started.
Another question with that volume of data --600,000 rows will a truncate table be pratical in a transaction
HI, I need to trigger some packages upon existance of specific files in a particular directory. Sound lkike the file watcher task (from SQLIS) would do the job but I am wondering what is the difference of using this tool instead of a for each loop container. I mean, If a file exists in a directory, the for each loop container will detect it. Since the file watcher is not a service, the package containing it needs to ne scheduled on a regular basis for the filewatcher to detect the file, right? So, a for each loop container would do the job? So, waht wouldbe the advantage of using the file watcher task?
A common issue that I run across with clients is they want only want to process a file if it's finished transmitting to the server. This SQL Server 2005 task reads the properties of a file and writes the values to a series of variables. For example, you can use this task to determine if the file is in use (still be uploaded or written to) and then conditionally run the Data Flow task to load the file if it's not being used. You can also use it to determine when the file was created in order to determine if it must be archived.
I'm trying to get a record count out of a databse using OLE DB Source and row count tasks but keep getting an error. I set up a variable as int32 and select the variable name in the row count task and when I go to the Input Columns tab to select a field to count, it gives me this error:
Error at Data Flow Task[Row Count[505]]: The component "Row Count" (505) has forbidden the requested use of the input column with lineage ID 32.
Hi, I have to researching of how to accesss package tasks and component using the SqlServer.Dts.Runtime class and so far, I havent found any solution. For example, if you package has a scriptiong task and a data flow task(<- which contains a data source component). Is it possible to use the scripting component to access the data source component in the data flow task and manipulate its properites like sqlcommand etc.
I've created my own posting for this. The original post was here, I apologize: http://forums.microsoft.com/forums/ShowPost.aspx?PostID=2906512&SiteID=1
According to the poster it's not possible. But there has to be some way to do it? Reflection (don't know how)?
I need to get a reference to the task host in an SSIS Task component.
Basically the scenario is this:
I have a custom task I have created. However I would like to validate that the ExecValueVariable is infact a string variable during the validate event of the task. I know how to verify its a string variable. But I can't figure out how to read what the user selected (such as User::Myvariable). The only way I've been able to figure out how to do it, but it only works if you open my custom task UI.
What I did is this:
I've implemented IDtsTaskUI and during the initialize section I wrote:
Sub Initialize(ByVal taskHost As TaskHost, ByVal serviceProvider As IServiceProvider) Implements IDtsTaskUI.Initialize ' Store the TaskHost of the task. Me.taskHostValue = taskHost Dim myTask As CustomTask= CType(taskHost.InnerObject, CustomTask) myTask.myTaskHost = taskHost End Sub
My Task is named: CustomTask. I have a public variable in my task as follows:
Public NotInheritable Class CustomTask Inherits Task Implements IDTSComponentPersist Public myTaskHost As TaskHost = Nothing
Therefore I pass back the taskhost value to the CustomTask class, and voila I have it.
Problem is, this only works if the custom task calls the initialize method, and this only happens when you open the custom editor.
I then do the validation in my CustomTask class and it works fine, but myTaskHost is null/nothing until you actually open the custom task UI
I created a package with SQL 2005. The package gets the Access DB and then inserts it into SQL Server.
If I open the package in .NET, I can see the SQL Task and Data Flow Task. The SQL Task has a property sqlstatementsource, which has the necxessary SQL code to create the tables.
How can I tell the SQL Task to recompile the SQL code if I give it another DB name, because the tables differ and don't map in the Data Flow Task
Sometimes we have some pretty serious CPU spikes and I would like to be able to pinpoint the exact issue. I have been able through the DMVs to associate a session with an operating system thread. That's great if I have a batch that's causing the problem with a non NULL sql_handle. However, how do I further narrow down what is going on with the background service broker tasks using the DMVs? Or am I just at the blind mercy of SQL Server at this point? What can I query to know what the heck is going on?
