Hello,
In DB2, we can do FOR UPDATE selection, in order to lock the records until the transaction is completed. e.g.
select field1, field2, field3
from table
FOR UPDATE;
How can I perform the equivalent feature in SQL Server?
Thanks!
I have this update working in an Oracle database and I need to make it run on SQL Server.
UPDATE table3 C
SET C.column1 = 'A'
WHERE (C.column2, C.column3) IN (SELECT B.column2, B.column3 FROM table1 A, table2 B WHERE A.column2 = B.column2 AND A.column3 = B.column3 AND B.column4 = 1)
Help please.
Thanx!
In answering this question you could just tell me what you think would work rather than trying to test it.
The following query works correctly and returns rows with pairs of values repid and repid2. I need loop through a large table and update *its* repid2 with rm_repid2 for any rows where its repid value equals rm_repid but only for the pairs that result in the below query
SELECT
rm.repid AS rm_repid
,rm.repid2 AS rm_repid2
,rm.id2contact
,r.repid AS r_repid
,r.prim AS r_prim
FROM sfrep r JOIN sfrepmst rm ON r.repid=rm.repid2
WHERE rm.repid IN
(
'TEST01'
,'TEST02'
)
Returns
rm_repid rm_repid2 id2contact r_repid
-------- --------- ---------------------------------------- -------
TEST01 NEW01 John Smith NEW01
TEST02 NEW02 Ken Roberts NEW02
TIA
Doug
I have a table with all varchar data for all different fields for money and int etc. I want to do a calcuation in one field with the rule as below:
UPDATE [dbo].[tblPayments]
SET [PreInjuryWage]=
CASE
WHEN [WeekNo]<14
THEN ([MaxWorkCover]+ [WeeklyEarnings] )/0.95
ELSE ([MaxWorkCover] + 0.80 * [WeeklyEarnings] ) /0.80
END
I tried this command after many other ways of tries
UPDATE [dbo].[tblPayments1]
SET [PreInjuryWage]=
CASE
WHEN [WeekNo]<14
THEN CAST ( (cast([MaxWorkCover] as money )+ cast([WeeklyEarnings] as money ))/0.95 AS Varchar(10) )
ELSE CAST ( (convert(money, [MaxWorkCover] + (0.80 * convert(money, [WeeklyEarnings] )) )/0.80 ) as varchar(10))
END
The structure of the table ( its a legacy table from 2000 i beleive)
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[tblPayments](
[PaymentID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
[ClaimID] [int] NOT NULL,
[WeekNo] [smallint] NULL,
[code]....
Arithmetic overflow error converting numeric to data type varchar.
Hi Guys
I need your help again, I am try to update several columns and the data type is 'money'.
Below is the code I have used:
UPDATE CAT_Products SET
UnitCost ='10.00',UnitCost2 = '10.00',UnitCost3 = '10.00',UnitCost4 = '10.00',UnitCost5 = '10.00',UnitCost6 = '10.00'
WHERE ProductCode = '0008'
But it will not update, instead I get this error:
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
>[Error] Script lines: 1-9 -------------------------- Disallowed implicit conversion from data type varchar to data type money, table 'dbo.CAT_Products', column 'UnitCost'. Use the CONVERT function to run this query.
More exceptions ... Disallowed implicit conversion from data type varchar to data type money, table '.dbo.CAT_Products', column 'UnitCost2'. Use the CONVERT function to run this query.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The error message indicates that I need to use the convert function. But the columns data type is set at 'money' not 'varcher' . So do I need to convert data type to 'varcher' in order to update and convert back to data type 'money' when update complete? Or do I need to indicate in the update statement that data type is already 'money'? I am not sure how I would either.
Thanks
I am trying to convert code I have working for access to work with SQL.
fldName, fldEmail, ID are the names in the database. recNum does have the value of the record that I want to edit. Here is the error I am getting.
System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Line 1: Incorrect syntax near '?'.
And here is the stack trace (which I don’t know how to read except for the line the error is on)
[SqlException: Line 1: Incorrect syntax near '?'.]
System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream) +723
System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() +194
goodellweb.adm_contact.editNow_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:Inetpubwwwrootwebrootgoodellwebadmadm_contacts.aspx.vb:306
System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) +108
System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +57
System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) +18
System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) +33
System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain() +1315
here is my code.
Dim editSQL As String = "Update tbEmail Set fldName=?, fldEmail=? Where ID=?"
Dim SqlConn As New SqlConnection(ConnStr)
Dim Cmd As New SqlCommand(editSQL, SqlConn)
Cmd.Parameters.Add(New SqlParameter("@fldName", nameEdit.Text))
Cmd.Parameters.Add(New SqlParameter("@fldEmail", emailEdit.Text))
Cmd.Parameters.Add(New SqlParameter("@recNum", recNum))
SqlConn.Open()
Try
Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery()
Finally
SqlConn.Close()
End Try
Response.Write("recNum " & recNum & " <br>")
Thanks
Michael
Hello!
I am trying to write an update t-SQL statement from the following select statement:
SELECT EduNextContacts.ssn
FROM EduNextContacts Left JOIN
EduContactsAuditChanges ON EduNextContacts.ssn = EduContactsAuditChanges.ssn AND
EduNextContacts.campaign_code = EduContactsAuditChanges.campaign_code
GROUP BY EduNextContacts.ssn
HAVING(SUM(CASE EduContactsAuditChanges.release_code WHEN '103' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) +
SUM(CASE EduContactsAuditChanges.release_code WHEN '102' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) >= 2)
I tried many versions of writing my update statement with no luck. My most recent version is as follows:
UPDATE EduNextContacts
SET EduNextContacts.overLMLimit = 'Y'
FROM EduNextContacts Left JOIN
EduContactsAuditChanges ON EduNextContacts.ssn = EduContactsAuditChanges.ssn AND
EduNextContacts.campaign_code = EduContactsAuditChanges.campaign_code
WHERE EduNextContacts.ssn = (SELECT DISTINCT EduContactsAuditChanges.ssn
FROM EduNextContacts Left JOIN
EduContactsAuditChanges ON EduNextContacts.ssn = EduContactsAuditChanges.ssn AND
EduNextContacts.campaign_code = EduContactsAuditChanges.campaign_code
GROUP BY EduContactsAuditChanges.ssn
HAVING(SUM(CASE EduContactsAuditChanges.release_code WHEN '103' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) +
SUM(CASE EduContactsAuditChanges.release_code WHEN '102' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) >= 2))
And gives the following error:
Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression.
Can anyone help shed some light on how to make an update statement from my SELECT query above?
Thanks in advance,
Harry
The problem...
A new value is inserted automatically with (convert(smalldatetime,getdate()103)) to a smalldatetime field (date) into a new row in the db
Existing data needs to be updated via an html form in the format ”dd/mm/yyyy” - I get this when I try: “Error The conversion of char data type to smalldatetime data type resulted in an out-of-range smalldatetime value”
Obviously the db field doesn’t like trying to update a smalldatetime field with a char type value. As the date field needs to use some SQL later with DATEADD, I can’t change the date field to char. (The date feild accepts ”dd/mm/yyyy” if I use Enterprise Manager and type it strait in but not via the update on a web page?)
The question...
How do I change the update SQL to convert from Char to Smalltimedate to accept dd/mm/yyyy?
( I am using MS-SQL and ASP3 JS and new(ish) to MS-SQL)
Consider the below script
CREATE TABLE #TEMP(Id int,CreatedBy varchar(30),ModfiedBy varchar(30))
CREATE TABLE #TEMP2 (ID int,SearchedBy varchar(30))
INSERT INTO #TEMP VALUES(1,'James',NULL)
INSERT INTO #TEMP VALUES(1,'James','George')
INSERT INTO #TEMP VALUES(1,'James','Vikas')
INSERT INTO #TEMP2(ID) VALUES(1)
INSERT INTO #TEMP2(ID) VALUES(1)
INSERT INTO #TEMP2(ID) VALUES(1)
Now i want to get the result as
;WITH CTE AS(
SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY Id ORDER BY ID ASC) AS RowNum ,*
FROM #TEMP
)
SELECT CASE WHEN RowNum=1 THEN CREATEDBY
WHEN RowNum > 1 THEN ModfiedBy
END
FROM CTE
But when i convert this select to update, i am missing something...
My update is
;WITH CTE AS(
SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY Id ORDER BY ID ASC) AS RowNum ,*
FROM #TEMP
)
UPDATE #TEMP2
SET SearchedBy =CASEWHEN RowNum=1 THEN CREATEDBY
WHEN RowNum > 1 THEN ModfiedBy
END
FROM CTE
WHERE #TEMP2.ID=CTE.ID
Only the first record gets updated...
What's up with this?
This takes like 0 secs to complete:
update xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:
update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?
Edit:
Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.
2nd Edit:
Could it be to do with this linked server setting?
Collation Compatible
right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine.
However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane...
(0 row(s) affected)
(1 row(s) affected)
How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect)
(1 row(s) affected)
If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it.
Thanks
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE(
ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName)
VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL
FROM MYOTHERTABLE
Dear Experts,Ok, I hate to ask such a seemingly dumb question, but I'vealready spent far too much time on this. More that Iwould care to admit.In Sql server, how do I simply change a character into a number??????In Oracle, it is:select to_number(20.55)from dualTO_NUMBER(20.55)----------------20.55And we are on with our lives.In sql server, using the Northwinds database:SELECTr.regionid,STR(r.regionid,7,2) as a_string,CONVERT(numeric, STR(r.regionid,7,2)) as a_number,cast ( STR(r.regionid) as int ) as cast_to_numberFROM REGION R1 1.00112 2.00223 3.00334 4.0044SELECTr.regionid,STR(r.regionid,7,2) as a_string,CONVERT(numeric, STR(r.regionid,7,2) ) as a_number,cast (STR(r.regionid,7,2) as numeric ) as cast_to_numberFROM REGION R1 1.00112 2.00223 3.00334 4.0044Str converts from number to string in one motion.Isn't there a simple function in Sql Server to convertfrom string to number?What is the secret?Thanks
View 4 Replies View RelatedI'm new to this forum.
This 'problem' has occured many times, but I've always found a way around it.
I have pages with datagrids, in which a user can edit a certain fields and then update the tables with new data. Lets say when a user edit a Name field and a money field. If he/she left those two fields blank, the table is automatically updated with a <null> (for the name field) and a 0 (for the money field.) Both these columns were set up to allow Null values.
Anyone has an idea why they were updated that way? And is there like a standard on how the data types are updated if a field is left blank?
Thank you very much.
Hello,
I'm using SQL Server 7. I have an invoice table. The invoice table has a datetime column called InvoiceDate. The InvoiceDate column contains the following date format:
5/3/00
I would like to use the InvoiceDate column to update the char (6) column called zInvoiceDate as a formatted date field like yymmdd.
The following syntax did not work:
SET zInvoiceDate = Convert([ARInvoiceID],GetDate()12)
Any suggestions please :)
Thanks,
Denise
Hi,
I have a SQL Server 2005 Database that I would like to export to SQL Server Express.
How do I go about this?
I've tried backing it up, creating a new (blank) SQL Server Express Database and trying to restore it, but get the following message:
TITLE: Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio------------------------------
Restore failed for Server 'PRODSOL-LAPTOP1SQLEXPRESS'. (Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo)
For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?ProdName=Microsoft+SQL+Server&ProdVer=9.00.2047.00&EvtSrc=Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.ExceptionTemplates.FailedOperationExceptionText&EvtID=Restore+Server&LinkId=20476
------------------------------ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
System.Data.SqlClient.SqlError: The backup set holds a backup of a database other than the existing 'ProdsolPGC' database. (Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo)
For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?ProdName=Microsoft+SQL+Server&ProdVer=9.00.2047.00&LinkId=20476
Neither of the links provide any more information and I'm sure that I'm missing a step out. I've tried scripting the existing database and then running the script against the new database, but I can't get that to work either - these blooming newbies!
Please help!
Thanks very much.
Regards
Gary
Hello firends
These files belong to a program that runs in DOS:
DETFILE.DIN FILEMERG.COM FP2 FP2.EXE FP.BAT NETLOG.TXT FPSTVL.DT1 FPSTVL.DTA MEMFIL.DTA
NUTRA.FDS NUTRNMS.DTA OROM.DIN OROM.RDA RDAFILE.RDA
RDAVALS.DTA SELNMS.DTA SLAAM.DIN UNITNMS.DTA
Which file is database?
Is it possible to convert this file so that SQL server can use it?
Thanks Good luck
I run the following statement and it will not update beyond 7 million plus rows and I have about 38 million to complete. I keep checking updated row counts and after 1/2 day it's still the same so I know something is wrong because it was rolling through no problem when I initiated it. I need to complete ASAP so it's adding to my frustration. The 'Acct_Num_CH' field is an encrypted field (fyi).
SET rowcount 10000
UPDATE [dbo].[CC_Info_T]
SET [Acct_Num_CH] = 'ayIWt6C8sgimC6t61EJ9d8BB3+bfIZ8v'
WHERE [Acct_Num_CH] IS NOT NULL
WHILE @@ROWCOUNT > 0
BEGIN
SET rowcount 10000
UPDATE [dbo].[CC_Info_T]
SET [Acct_Num_CH] = 'ayIWt6C8sgimC6t61EJ9d8BB3+bfIZ8v'
WHERE [Acct_Num_CH] IS NOT NULL
END
SET rowcount 0
if (!Page.IsPostBack)
{ if (Session["users"] != null && (Session[flag"] == "true"))
{
String IP = Request.ServerVariables["remote_host"].ToString();
String Datee = DateTime.Now.Date.ToString();
OleDbConnection con = new OleDbConnection("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;data source="
+ HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/result.mdb"));
OleDbCommand cmd = new OleDbCommand("Insert Into KullaniciSayisi (IP,Datee) Values (IPDatee)", con);
cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("IP", IP);
cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("Datee", Datee);
con.Open();
intresultt = cmd.ExecuteNonQuery();
con.Close();
Session["flag"] = "false";
}
}
I want to convert this code to SQL sever . However I can not do it? Can you help me?
Select Function(field1) from table1
Please tell me what's the Function. Thanks
Hi, Is there a tool that anyone here is aware of which converts SQL, stored procedures and such stuff from Oracle compatibility to SQL Server compatibility? I have some Oracle based SQL that I wud like to convert into T-sql instead of re writing the whole T-SQL..
Thanks,
Can I convert .MDB file to SQL Server database or I need to develop SQLserver database from begin, every table, every field?
View 2 Replies View RelatedI'm searching functions to convert hexadecimal into decimal or bin to hex or more.....
I did'nt find anything yet...
Thanks in advance
Laurent
Hello does anybody know how to convert an SQL Server file into a DBF or an Excel sheet? I need to do this programmitically with C# or python. Preferrably C#. Also, the converted file must be placed into a different folder. Thanks.
View 4 Replies View RelatedI have to downgrade a eCommerce database from Sql Server 2005 to Sql Server 2000 due to hosting server's support compatibility. Almost all features in the original (2005) version are available in 2000.
Any recommendations as on an easy conversion? Thanks a lot.
-Yubo
Is there anyway to convert an SQL Express database to SQL server or Access format?
View 1 Replies View RelatedI have a sql server database and i need to convert to Access, how can i do this using sql server?
View 4 Replies View RelatedSorry if this has been answered before. Could not find any answers.
OS Vista Business, SQL Server 2005 Express.
I have a CSV file which I imported to Access only 100 records with 8 fields. Then ran Tools >> Database Utilities >> Upsizing Wisard. The result was I exported the table field headers but not the data. Is there any method on how I can get the field headers and data into SQL Server Express?
Hello There,
I would really appreciate if you can help me with this problem. I am currently using SQL Server 2005 Express for one of my web application. I have a .bak file (backup file) provided by my client which I want to use for testing purpose. Now I just want to know how can I use that backup file without installing SQL SERVER 2005 as one way to do this I know is to restore the database in SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Manager but I can't install SQL Server 2005.
To my knowledge, SQL Server Express uses .mdf file for database but what I have is .BAK file..
I would be really glad to see your quick answers.
Thank you for reading this far.
Sincerely,
Zulfiqar
I'm trying to convert a simple SQL Statement over to Oracle...
Select top 25 * from Customers
Is there a way to just select the top 25 in Oracle??
Thanks
can someone please supply some information to help with this??
I am moving data from db2 8.1 for windows. the dates in db2 are defined as timestamp. i want to convert these to sql server datetime format in sql server 2000 using dts and sql.
does anyone have examples or something??
any help would be greatly appreciated.
is it possible to convert an Access database to SQL Server 2005 or 2000?
View 3 Replies View RelatedI am new to T-SQL development and here's what I am trying to do.
declare @cmd varchar(255)
set @cmd = 'select dbid from sys.sysdatabases where dbid not in (1,2,3,4)'
while (@cmd <=13)
begin
insert into #dbcheck values (@cmd)
Set @cmd = @cmd + 1
end
but it is giving me an error
'Msg 245, Level 16, State 1, Line 3
Conversion failed when converting the varchar value 'select dbid from sys.sysdatabases where dbid not in (1,2,3,4)' to data type int.'
Note - #dbcheck has only one column id int