Derived Table Not Updatable

Oct 6, 2004

I got an error as follows:
Derived table 'A' is not updatable because a column of the derived table is derived or constant.
when I tried to run this query:
update A set MonthsUnbilled =99999888
FROM (select MonthsUnbilled from dbo.vw_MasterView
WHERE (RecordID =8377396)) A
This is a simplified query in order to pinpoint the culprit. I know I don't need to use a derived table if the real query is this simple.

Thanks in advance!

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Derived Tables Are UPDATABLE Or NOT ????

Sep 28, 2007

Hi,
In the SQL92 Specifications i read the foloowingf statement...
"All base tables are updatable. Derived tables are either updatable or read-only. The operations of insert, update, and delete are
permitted for updatable tables, subject to constraining Access
Rules. The operations of insert, update, and delete are not allowed
for read-only tables."
But i am concentrating on the below line from the above written lines,
"Derived tables are either updatable or read-only."
I want to ask that is derived tables are updatable or not??? if yes then how,???i tried the following querry but its not working...





Code Block

Update (select * from test1) AS de SET id=0
????

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Jul 20, 2005

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Oct 17, 2006

Hi,

I have created a publication for sql server 2005 Mobile Edition subscriber,

I need to add another Publication/merge replication on the same tables,

Scenario:

-Server A and mobile devices (publication for sql server 2005 Mobile Edition subscriber)

-The same Server A send data "1 way direction" to Server B by merge replication publication.

NB: My Tables are updatble in both publications.

Any idea?

Thanks,

Tarek Ghazali

SQL Server MVP

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Has anyone seen this error? It comes up when my app executes a select statement via linked server (from MSSQL 2000 to 2005) the second time it runs. It's basically a timed poll of tables in the remote database. It works once but the second time it executes I get the error from the remote db, it's just a select but I guess the cursor is still open so it can't run again. After the exception the select will run again, once and it just repeats. I have researched it a little and it looks like it mostly has to do with the isolation level of the transaction. Unfortunately based on the componet being used to access the database I don't beleive I have the ability to use transact SQL to call the isolation level (s) listed.

Here's the weird part though, at another site the same scenario is running fine. Same primary and remote db versions of MSSQL as well as the application and it runs fine. I guess my question is what type of setup parameters that may be defined in MSSQL 2005 for the remote database might make it behave in this manner in one instance and not the other? TIA in advance for any thoughts/assistance.

DT

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-Senthil

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Hi,
I have built a database for a university project, but am having trouble with the SQL syntax for inserting derived data from a calculation into a table.  At present my SQL is;
INSERT INTO MemberPayment (TotalCharge) VALUES ( [Total] )
SELECT ((MileageHistory.MileageUrban * Vehicle.EmissionsPerGramUrban) * 0.05) + ((MileageHistory.MileageCountry * Vehicle.EmissionsPerGramUrban) * 0.05) AS 'Total'
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(
SELECT
-- DealId ,DocketId,
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WHEN nullTHEN 'NA'
ELSE
CASE WHEN Participant2-Vote2 =0 THEN 'Yes'
ELSE 'No'
END
END AS Unanimous1
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[code].....

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Feb 1, 2007

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CONDITION 1: RateReview field should have yesterday's date
CONDITION 2: Email will be send to customer only once so Customer_GUID is UniqueIdentifier
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Is there any way i write the code specifying that no email should be sent more than once evereven if customer buys 10 tickets.
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SELECT
CAST(a.Transaction_GUID AS varchar(36)) as Transaction_GUID,
CAST(a.Customer_GUID AS varchar(36)) as Customer_GUID,
Film_id as MovieId,
First_nm as FirstName,
Last_nm as LastName,
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FROm
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and
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Feb 7, 2007

I have an application that has two different database backends, one is SQL Server Compact Edition and the other is SQL Server. The reason is because the application may run at home on one of our sales agent's computers or here in the office.

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Thank you,

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Jul 31, 2007

I have some questions on derived table. Below is my situation.

Table order, there are 40 columns and it has indexes for productID and addressID
Table product, there are 15 columns and it has index for productID
Table address, there are 20 columns and it has index for addressID

Query A
-------
select C.address, C.area, B.productname, B.category, A.qty, A.price
from order A
join product B
on A.productID = B.productID
join address C
on A.addressID = C.addressID

Query B
-------
select C.address, C.area, B.productname, B.category, A.qty, A.price
from (select qty, price, productID, addressID from order) A
join (select productID, productname, category from product) B
on A.productID = B.productID
join (select addressID, address, area from address) C
on A.addressID = C.addressID

Will I loss the indexing when using derived table?
Why query B performance is much better than query A?

Thanks.

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Feb 19, 2008



Hi,

I am working for my client on SQL 2005 Enterprise & observed a strange behaviour. Consider a table(EMPTABLE) as below:









PK, INT

VARCHAR


EMPID

EMPNAME


1

A


2

B


3

C


4

D


5

E


6

F


7

G


8

H


9

I


10

J


Now, I wanted the 5th highest EMPID from 2 from the table. Now, we know that the SQL

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SELECT MAX(EMPID) FROM
(
SELECT TOP 6 EMPID FROM EMPTABLE WHERE EMPID >=2
) der

But this returns me 10, when I would've thought 7 was the expected answer

I remodified my query as mentioned below to strangely get 7 as the result...
SELECT MAX(EMPID) FROM
(
SELECT TOP 6 EMPID FROM EMPTABLE WHERE EMPID >=2 ORDER BY EMPID ASC
) der


How did the ORDER BY hep it???

Also, if I use
SELECT MAX(EMPID) FROM
(
SELECT TOP 6 EMPID FROM EMPTABLE WHERE EMPID >2
) der


I get the same result without having to specify the ORDER BY in my derived TABLE...

I tried looking for similar threads. But nothing could explain this to me...

If anyone knows what I am not able to understand, please let me know.

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Apr 6, 2007

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Aug 1, 2007

I'm trying not to use a temp table, but i may have to do so..
I'm using sql2005 for this case.

i have a derived table that makes the following results:



ID Status Name

2 1 "A"

2 2 "B"



I want to get the following:

ID Name1 Name2

2 "A" "B"



but like I said before, I can't repeat the query that gets the first 2 rows, as it's pretty invovled. a temp table is the best route I see right now, but I just wanted to be sure I'm not missing something. If I've aliased it as 'results', is there a way to alias results again as something else? or maybe a trick with CTEs? I will try that! It seems promising.

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Aug 1, 2007



I'm trying not to use a temp table, but i may have to do so..

i have a derived table that makes the following results:

ID Status Name
2 1 "A"
2 2 "B"

I want to get the following:
ID Name1 Name2
2 "A" "B"

but like I said before, I can't repeat the query that gets the first 2 rows, as it's pretty invovled. a temp table is the best route I see right now, but I just wanted to be sure I'm not missing something.

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Nov 2, 2014

In my TSQL code i use a derived table to extract the value of account 321 to compare if they are the same that the SUM of my line invoice cost multiply by quantity line : Sum(fi.ecusto*qtt)

This is my script:

SELECT ft.ndoc [Doctype],ft.fno [Docnr] , Sum(fi.ecusto*qtt) [totalcostof my Invoiceline], xctb.conta [accountancy account],
sum(Case when ft.tipodoc = 1 then Xctb.ecre else Xctb.edeb end) as [Value of Cost of invoice in accountancy],
[DIF] = Sum(fi.ecusto*qtt) - Sum(Case when ft.tipodoc = 1 then xctb.ecre else xctb.edeb end)

[Code] ....

My problem is if i have more than on line on my invoice, for example 2 lines, the value of column [Value of Cost of invoice in accountancy] are duplicated, for 3 line invoice the value are multiply by 3.

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Jul 23, 2007

I have discovered what looks like a bug in the optimiser. I've posted it at https://connect.microsoft.com/SQLServer/feedback/ViewFeedback.aspx?FeedbackID=288243 but I wonder if any of you with SQL 2005 RTM, 2005 SP1 or 2008 CTP could confirm when this was introduced and whether it is still an issue?






Code Snippet

-- Bug report

-- 2007/07/19

-- Alasdair Cunningham-Smith

-- alasdair at acs-solutions dot co dot uk

set nocount on

go

-- example date in in British date format

set dateformat dmy

go



use tempdb

go



create table foo( bar varchar( 30 ) not null )

go



insert into foo( bar ) values ( 'fishy' )

insert into foo( bar ) values ( '19/07/2007' )

go



-- this works fine in all versions - only valid dates are passed to the convert function

select

convert( smalldatetime, bar, 103 ) as bardate

from

foo

where

bar like '__/__/____'

go



-- this works on SQL 2000, but fails on SQL 2005 SP2 (I've not tried other SPs of SQL 2005):

-- Msg 295, Level 16, State 3, Line 2

-- Conversion failed when converting character string to smalldatetime data type.

--

-- I believe the query is rewritten as if the derived table query contained

-- "and convert( smalldatetime, bar, 103 ) < getdate()"

-- which would expose the convert to the invalid data

select

*

from

(

select

convert( smalldatetime, bar, 103 ) as bardate

from

foo

where

bar like '__/__/____'

) as derived

where

bardate < getdate()

go



-- Workaround:

-- Use a case statement to protect the convert operator from the invalid data

select

*

from

(

select

case when bar like '__/__/____' then

convert( smalldatetime, bar, 103 )

else

null

end as bardate

from

foo

where

bar like '__/__/____'

) as derived

where

bardate < getdate()

go



drop table foo

go



The workaround I discovered is simple but ugly. I invite your comments...



alasdair.

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I'm not a database pro, I'm a programmer thrust into this role. Needless to say, I'm a bit of a newbie on these things!

Anyway, the view's code:
<pre>
CREATE VIEW dbo.RJ2_V_Client_Import
AS
SELECT Clients. IDENTITYCOL, Clients.CompanyName,
Clients.Address1, Clients.Address2, Clients.StateID,
Clients.City, Clients.Zip, Clients.CountryID, Clients.PhoneMain,
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Clients.ParentCompany, Clients.DivisionDepartment,
People.NameFirst, People.NameLast,
People.AddressPrimary1, People.AddressPrimary2,
People.CityPrimary, People.StatePrimaryID,
People.ZipPrimary, People.CountryPrimaryID,
People.PhoneWork, People.PhoneWorkExtension,
Clients.EnteredDate, Clients.UserLevelID, Clients.Revenue,
Clients.NumberOfContractors, Clients.SICCode,
Clients.Industry, Clients.ReceptionistName
FROM Clients INNER JOIN
People ON Clients.BillingPersonID = People.PID
</pre>

The reason there is a "People" table is because several (SEVERAL) tables in this database contain records for people, and we felt that this was a better design because of it.

The data we're trying to import contains records for billing contacts, which are the People.* fields referenced. It's extremely important that we get this data in the system.

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For this particular set, I could do it manually -- only two records are affected. BUT, for future sets, I can't do it manually -- literally thousands of records will be affected, and I just don't have the time (or inclination) to do the entry ... Plus, think of the potential error rate!

Thanks in advance

John

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jg

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Server: Msg 4405, Level 16, State 2, Line 1
View 'Data_test' is not updatable because the FROM clause names multiple tables.


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