I created a trigger on a replicated table in a publishing database on SQL Server 2000. When I attempt to ALTER TABLE ... DISABLE TRIGGER ..., I get a message that I cannot alter the table since it is part of a publication. Does anyone know if I would be able to issue a DROP TRIGGER or ALTER TRIGGER on a replicated table?
I have transaction replication setup on two SQL7 boxes and a nightly job runs a procedure that need to alter a table and disable a trigger. Since replication has been set up the disable doesn't work. Any way around this.
I have a DDL Trigger that writes a record into a table when any DDL event happens.
It works great except when I try dropping any object. I get an error at that point and the object is not dropped. The trigger and error are listed below.
SELECT failed because the following SET options have incorrect settings: 'ARITHABORT'. Verify that SET options are correct for use with indexed views and/or indexes on computed columns and/or query notifications and/or xml data type methods. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 1934)
Hi all in .net I've created an application that allows creation of triggers, i also want to allow the deletion of triggers. The trigger name is kept in a table, and apon deleting the record i want to use the field name to delete the trigger
I have the following Trigger
the error is at
DROP TRIGGER @DeleteTrigger
I'm guessing it dosen't like the trigger name being a variable instead of a static name how do i get around this?
Hi,I found this SQL in the news group to drop indexs in a table. I need ascript that will drop all indexes in all user tables of a givendatabase:DECLARE @indexName NVARCHAR(128)DECLARE @dropIndexSql NVARCHAR(4000)DECLARE tableIndexes CURSOR FORSELECT name FROM sysindexesWHERE id = OBJECT_ID(N'F_BI_Registration_Tracking_Summary')AND indid 0AND indid < 255AND INDEXPROPERTY(id, name, 'IsStatistics') = 0OPEN tableIndexesFETCH NEXT FROM tableIndexes INTO @indexNameWHILE @@fetch_status = 0BEGINSET @dropIndexSql = N' DROP INDEXF_BI_Registration_Tracking_Summary.' + @indexNameEXEC sp_executesql @dropIndexSqlFETCH NEXT FROM tableIndexes INTO @indexNameENDCLOSE tableIndexesDEALLOCATE tableIndexesTIARob
I created a trigger that will throw a message whenever a new record is inserted in the table. Now I want to remove this trigger. I am not able to remove.
CREATE TRIGGER prod_culture_trig ON Production.Culture AFTER INSERT AS SELECT 'New culture entry added';
I get the following error message:
Msg 2714, Level 16, State 2, Procedure prod_oulture_trig, Line 4 There is already an object named 'prod_oulture_trig' in the database.
This error confirms that we have the trigger already existing. Now I run the code
DROP TRIGGER prod_oulture_trig;
I get the following error message - Msg 3701, Level 11, State 5, Line 1 Cannot drop the trigger 'prod_culture_trig', because it does not exist or you do not have permission.
What permission do I require? This is a test database on my computer with me as the administrator.
Hello!I have an MS SQL-server with an database, that runs replication. In thisdatabase there is an table with an columni want to extend; varchar(50)->varchar(60).But I get this error (using design window of Enterprise Manager): Cannotdrop the table 'MytableName' because it is being used for replication.Thanks for helpBjoern
A customer wants to implement table partitioning on a replicated table.
They want to hold 13 months of data in the table and roll off the earliest/oldest month to an identical archive table. The table has a date field and partitioning by month makes sense all around.
So SWITCH PARTITION is the obvious solution to this, except for the fact that the table is replicated (transactional w/no subscriber updates).
What are his architectural or practical solutions to using table partitioning and replication?
Dear All, i've made repliaction stup using the information guide below. all the things are done axactly. now i've inserted a row in the publisher. but i'm not getting the record at the subscriber database. please let me know where i'm missing
Hope to be my last question. I used Transacational with update sub method. When adding new column to replicated table. Do I need to generate new snapshot again? Just want to know how can I apply the new schema to subsciber DB without doing all regenerate snapshot, recreate all tables and bulk copy.. Please help
I have a strange problem. I have a computed column in a replicated table, the Formula is as follows:
(isnull(hashbytes('SHA2_256',CONVERT([varchar](256),[AccrualReference],(0))),(0))) the column is also Persisted.
This gets around a case sensitivity issue and is used as the Primary Key column, which works well.The problem is that this table is then replicated to another server. On the subscriber the value of this computed field is being returned as 0x00000000 for every row, so this must be the ISNULL function doing its job. But why? The AccrualReference is the true PrimaryKey and is never NULL.
If I remove the computed specification and set the field up as varbinary(64) the value then gets replicated. This then means maintaining a different table schema for in excess of 500 tables.
I need to rename a replicated table columns.will this affect my current replication (Transactional replication)? Do i have to create a new snapshot and restart the subscriber?
When I try to remove a table, it complains because it's part of apublication. I could script the publication and subscriptions suchthat they can be deleted, the table removed, and then added again.But, I not sure if this is the 'best' approach.Anyone faced this challenge before?Regards,gary
I have a trigger set on TABLE1 so that any update to this column should set off trigger to write to the AUDIT log table, it works fine otherwise but not the very first time when table1 has null in the column. if i comment out
and i.req_fname <> d.req_fname from the where clause then it works fine the first time too. Seems like null value of the column is messing things up
Any thoughts?
Here is my t-sql
Insert into dbo.AUDIT (audit_req, audit_new_value, audit_field, audit_user)
select i.req_guid, i.req_fname, 'req_fname', IsNull(i.req_last_update_user,@default_user) as username from inserted i, deleted d
I'm merge replicating a SQL Server 2005 database (publisher) to SQL Compact databases (subscribers) on mobile devices. I understood that I could add a "not null" column to a replicated table on the server as long as I specified a default value, but it seems this is not possible. I ran the following script on the server database:
ALTER TABLE Activity ADD ActivityRequiresProject bit not null default(0)
which executed OK. When I went to synchronize the db on the mobile device I got the following error:
Alter table only allows columns to be added which can contain null values. The column cannot be added to the table because it does not allow null values. The SQL statement failed to execute. If this occurred while using merge replication, this is an internal error. If this occurred while using RDA, then the SQL statement is invalid either on the PULL statement or on the SubmitSQL statement. [ SQL statement = alter table "Activity" add "ActivityRequiresProject" bit not NULL constraint "DF__Activity__Activi__4A47DDAE" default ( ( 0 ) ) ]
Does anyone know if this is a valid error? Is is possible to add a not null column with default, and if not how do I update the schema on a replicated database?
For SQL 2005 transactional replication I have 1400 articles (tables, views, functions, sp) that are all replicated.
Will SQL 2005 allow me to drop a table from from the publication and drop it from the publication database that is referenced by exising views or sps that are replicated or does it somehow check that?
I'm new to replication and am trying to determine the best approach to add a column (NOT NULL with no DEFAULT) to a replicated table. The only success I have had is if I do the following:
Delete entire Subscription Delete entire Publication Add column to table Create new Publication Create new Subscription Run SnapShot
The problem with this approach is that each step affects the entire database and not just the modified table. I think it is inefficient to redo replication for a simple object change. What am I missing? Is there a way to only replicate the changes made to the one table without having to run a SnapShot for the entire publication? Keep in mind the column must be defined as NOT NULL and cannot have a Default.
How would I best go about changing a published table's column from smallint to int? I could not find anything about it in BOL or MS.com. I do not think EM/Replication Properties allows the change. I suspect I have to run "Alter Table/Column" on the Publisher and each Subscriber the old-fashioned way. Is that true?
For reasons that are not relevant (though I explain them below *), Iwant, for all my users whatever privelige level, an SP which createsand inserts into a temporary table and then another SP which reads anddrops the same temporary table.My users are not able to create dbo tables (eg dbo.tblTest), but arepermitted to create tables under their own user (eg MyUser.tblTest). Ihave found that I can achieve my aim by using code like this . . .SET @SQL = 'CREATE TABLE ' + @MyUserName + '.' + 'tblTest(tstIDDATETIME)'EXEC (@SQL)SET @SQL = 'INSERT INTO ' + @MyUserName + '.' + 'tblTest(tstID) VALUES(GETDATE())'EXEC (@SQL)This becomes exceptionally cumbersome for the complex INSERT & SELECTcode. I'm looking for a simpler way.Simplified down, I am looking for something like this . . .CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.TestInsert ASCREATE TABLE tblTest(tstID DATETIME)INSERT INTO tblTest(tstID) VALUES(GETDATE())GOCREATE PROCEDURE dbo.TestSelect ASSELECT * FROM tblTestDROP TABLE tblTestIn the above example, if the SPs are owned by dbo (as above), CREATETABLE & DROP TABLE use MyUser.tblTest while INSERT & SELECT usedbo.tblTest.If the SPs are owned by the user (eg MyUser.TestInsert), it workscorrectly (MyUser.tblTest is used throughout) but I would have to havea pair of SPs for each user.* I have MS Access ADP front end linked to a SQL Server database. Forreports with complex datasets, it times out. Therefore it suit mypurposes to create a temporary table first and then to open the reportbased on that temporary table.
I have a scenario where I need to add a blank column to a table that is a publisher. This table contains over 100 million records. What is the best way to add the column? In the past where I had to make an update, it breaks replication because the update would take forever as jobs are continuously updating the table so replication can't catch up.
If I alter a table and add a column, would this column automatically get picked up in replication?
I'm trying to replicate a table(s) in access 2000 to MS SQL server 2000/2005 programatically on a timed instance and then have these tables merged in SQL to create one table.
Hi All, Is there a way by which we can modify the width of a column of a table which is being replicated without touching the ongoing transactional replication? This is for MSSQL2000 Transactional Replication.
I know (and successfully tried) that we can add a column to a table and that gets propaged to the replicate database and indeed the added column gets reflected there. How to add a column? sp_repaddcolumn or Right Click on the Publication-Properties and it shows a button to Add a Column.
This is what I have tried for modifying the width of a column of a table participating in Transactional Replication from varchar(10) to varchar(100)
MH (source) -> MH1 (Replicate)
The column €ścol1€? had width of varchar(10) and this was altered to varchar(100).
I'm new to this whole SQL Server 2005 thing as well as database design and I've read up on various ways I can integrate business constraints into my database. I'm not sure which way applies to me, but I could use a helping hand in the right direction.
A quick explanation of the various tables I'm dealing with: WBS - the Work Breakdown Structure, for example: A - Widget 1, AA - Widget 1 Subsystem 1, and etc. Impacts - the Risk or Opportunity impacts for the weights of a part/assembly. (See Assemblies have Impacts below) Allocations - the review of the product in question, say Widget 1, in terms of various weight totals, including all parts. Example - September allocation, Initial Demo allocation, etc. Mostly used for weight history and trending Parts - There are hundreds of Parts which will eventually lead to thousands. Each part has a WBS element. [Seems redundant, but parts are managed in-house, and WBS elements are cross-company and issued by the Government] Parts have Allocations - For weight history and trending (see Allocations). Example, Nut 17 can have a September 1st allocation, a September 5th allocation, etc. Assemblies - Parts are assemblies by themselves and can belong to multiple assemblies. Now, there can be multiple parts on a product, say, an unmanned ground vehicle (UGV), and so those parts can belong to a higher "assembly" [For example, there can be 3 Nut 17's (lower assembly) on Widget 1 Subsystem 2 (higher assembly) and 4 more on Widget 1 Subsystem 5, etc.]. What I'm concerned about is ensuring that the weight roll-ups are accurate for all of the assemblies. Assemblies have Impacts - There is a risk and opportunity impact setup modeled into this design to allow for a risk or opportunity to be marked on a per-assembly level. That's all this table represents.
A part is allocated a weight and then assigned to an assembly. The Assemblies table holds this hierarchical information - the lower assembly and the higher one, both of which are Parts entries in the [Parts have Allocations] table.
Therefore, to ensure proper weight roll ups in the [Parts have Allocations] table on a per part-basis, I would like to check for any inserts, updates, deletes on both the [Parts have Allocations] table as well as the [Assemblies] table and then re-calculate the weight roll up for every assembly. Now, I'm not sure if this is a huge performance hog, but I do need to keep all the information as up-to-date and as accurate as possible. As such, I'm not sure which method is even correct, although it seems an AFTER DML trigger is in order (from what I've gathered thus far). Keep in mind, this trigger needs to go through and check every WBS or Part and then go through and check all of it's associated assemblies and then ensure the weights are correct by re-summing the weights listed.
If you need the design or create script (table layout), please let me know.
Are there any limitations or gotchas to updating the same table whichfired a trigger from within the trigger?Some example code below. Hmmm.... This example seems to be workingfine so it must be something with my specific schema/code. We'reworking on running a SQL trace but if anybody has any input, fireaway.Thanks!create table x(Id int,Account varchar(25),Info int)GOinsert into x values ( 1, 'Smith', 15);insert into x values ( 2, 'SmithX', 25);/* Update trigger tu_x for table x */create trigger tu_xon xfor updateasbegindeclare @TriggerRowCount intset @TriggerRowCount = @@ROWCOUNTif ( @TriggerRowCount = 0 )returnif ( @TriggerRowCount > 1 )beginraiserror( 'tu_x: @@ROWCOUNT[%d] Trigger does not handle @@ROWCOUNT[color=blue]> 1 !', 17, 127, @TriggerRowCount) with seterror, nowait[/color]returnendupdate xsetAccount = left( i.Account, 24) + 'X',Info = i.Infofrom deleted, inserted iwhere x.Account = left( deleted.Account, 24) + 'X'endupdate x set Account = 'Blair', Info = 999 where Account = 'Smith'