Ending A Conversation In A CLR Activated Stored Procedure
Apr 26, 2006
I've read Remus' article on Fire and Forget tactics when it comes to ending conversations, and I have to admit I am guilty of sending a message to a service and immediately ending the conversation. I've set up a stored procedure to end the conversation on the initiator queue, but I'm guessing it's never being fired because I am not ending the conversation in the target activated stored proc, which is a CLR stored proc.
Can you tell me how to end the conversation from a CLR stored proc?
Now that I think of it none of the code I use in my TSQL activated stored procs to handle different message types and error-checking is done in the CLR stored proc.
I have a initiator and a target service broker peer.
Both are controlled by a C# unit test. The initiator uses the Microsoft.Samples.SqlServer class. The target service uses stored procedure activation.
Sending a message from the initiator to the target, saves the content of the message, along with its conversation handle in the target's database specific table.
The unit test needs - at a later time - to instruct the target to send a message back on the same conversation handle to the initiator service.
For this the C# unit test creates a Conversation off of the saved conversation handle:
Service client = new Service("cleintservicename", conn, tran);
Conversation dialog = null;
dialog = new Conversation(client, convHandle); Sending the message on this dialog generates an error "Message body: <Error xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/SQL/ServiceBroker/Error"><Code>-8495</Code><Description>The conversation has already been acknowledged by another instance of this service.</Description></Error>". Is the error due to the fact that a service - using the activated stored procedure already picked up the conversation, so that a new reference to the service can not be created through the Service class in CLR? If so, I might need then to skip the activated stored procedure in favor or a CLR service, alltogether? Any help - greatly appreciated.
I am attempting to learn Service Broker from Bob Beauchemin's book "A Developer's Guide to SQL Server" - Chapter 11. I'm finding it to be very good but I'm confused over the concept of closing a conversation. Could someone answer the following questions for me?
When a conversation is ended, can the conversation handle that was created when the conversation was created still be used? (I assume not) Beauchemin says, on page 511, that when a conversation ends, "Any messages still in the queue from the other end of the conversation are deleted with no warning." Does this mean that if I send a message that expects a reply, but I end the conversation, the message is still sent, it is still received by the other endpoint, the other endpoint processes it, but I'll never receive the reply? Beauchemin says that if no lifetime is specified, the conversation is active for the number of seconds which can be represented by the maximum size of an integer. Does this mean that if I don't specify a lifetime, a conversation is active for many, many years?
Is it possible for a stored procedure to be activated more than once even if a message is sent only once? After sending the message, I check the sys.dm_broker_activated_tasks and see that it activates more than once. Is there a way for me to prevent this from happening?
I'm having a problem debugging (with VS2005,) a CLR Stored Procedure which is activated on a queue. I know it is working because it is consuming and processing messages when one appears in the queue.
I can debug it 'manually' by either right-clicking on the SP within VS2005 and selecting 'Step into Stored Procedure' or by attaching to the SQL Server Management Studio process, setting a breakpoint and executing the stored procedure from a Management Studio query window.
However, if I send a message to my queue within Management Studio, my breakpoints are NOT being hit within VS2005, but the message IS reaching my queue and it IS being processed by the SP.
Hi I have a couple of questions to understand better Service Broker..
Every time I alter the activation Stored Procedure on the receiving queue I also execute the: alter database set new_broker rollback
1) can somebody explain me in a detailed way why I have to do that? what happen inside SQL Server when there is a Stored Procedure activated on a queue?? Also link to white papers, resouces on so on are appreciated.
My Activation Stored Procedure calls other stored procedure. 2) If ONLY one of the nested stored procedures changes I have to execute the command: alter database set new_broker rollback ???
I think that the answer to the first question will answer the second one..
Hi, I have a simple web application which calls a stored procedure. The stored procedure operates as a transaction and runs for several minutes. I've created a partial class to set the SQLcommand timeout property to avoid any timeouts, which works fine. Unfortunately though, when the application is run in the production environment, it ends in an error after a certain amount of time (maybe a couple of minutes - not exactly sure), which seems to be the same each run. It doesn't appear to end the stored procedure though, which results in locking the tables. It runs fine in the development environment, and it doesn't appear as though any error information is provided when the application crashes. I'm assuming that the ASP.NET application is timing out for some reason, but the stored procedure itself is fine. I can run it directly from SQL server without any dramas. In the Virtual Directory configuration within IIS, I have the script timeout period set to 1200 seconds. The Default Web-Site timeout property is set to 120 seconds, but I'm assuming that this is only for internet connection timeout, not database transaction timeouts. Any information as to what may be causing this is appreciated. Thanks
I have a stored procedure into which a bit type of parameter called '@activated' is being passed. This stored procedure gets all the users matching the condition : Activated = isnull(@activated, -1)
In users table, one of the columns is 'Activated' of bit type. The strange thing happening here is that if @activated is null, then the above condition is true for all rows in users table, even though we know that the column Activation is either 1 or 0 only and never -1.Can someone explain why this strange thing is happening?
1. Almost in every SB example you will see this sql :
BEGIN TRANSACTION
WAITFOR (
RECEIVE TOP (1)
@MessageType = message_type_name,
@Message = message_body
FROM [Queue1]
WHERE conversation_handle = @ConversationHandle
), timeout 5000;
If this sql in an activated sp do you really have to have the waitfor ? Since the sp will only be fired if there is a message on the queue ?
2. It is reccomended that for high volume SB apps you do not do a top(1) receive but process batches. Exactly what is the best practice to do this. Receive a batch into a table variable and then what ? Process through it with a cursor ? That is not very efficient either, i would just like some insight into batch queue processing as everywhere i have seen uses top (1) from the queue ?
I was wondering, i have experienced alot of stored procedure blocking where you have a stored procedure that get executed very frequently and is complex, when the sp has to recompile it is locked and cannot be executed by other processes.
How will this work with an activated stored procedure, our activated stored procedure will probably not be too complex but it may exec complex ones base on the message type.
Now lets say that a message is recieved by the activated sp he in turn executes a complex sp to process the message this causes the complex sp to recompile, during this time another activated sp is spawned by the queue with the same message type he execs the same complex sp that is busy recompiling, i presume that the second activated sp will be blocked until the sp has completed recompiling.
Is this correct, because on a very busy queue with very complex sp's being called by the activated stored procedure, the benefit of having multiple queue readers is negated by the blocking caused by the recompiling sp's called by the activated sp.
Basically no matter how many queue readers kick in to handle the messages they all wait for the sp to recompile from the first message.
I am hoping multiple spawned activated stored procedures somehow over come this? Or work differently somehow.
I have an activated SP that is issuing PRINT statements.
These are raised as ErrorLog and EventLog events when using SQLProfiler
However if you attach an event notification for ERRORLOG and EVENTLOG, nothing appears in the queue. Any other ERRORLOG or EVENTLOG event caught by profiler is caught by the event notification as expected.
I'm not really sure if my question should fall on Service Broker or T-SQL, but I hope someone helps me with this... After activating the stored procedure assigned to the queue, is there any way for me to find out if the stored procedure is already finished executing?
I have successfully sent messages to my queue but I have no way to know if all the processing is already done.
IF (@message_type = 'http://schemas.microsoft.com/SQL/ServiceBroker/EndDialog') BEGIN END CONVERSATION @handle; RETURN 0 END ......................... ......................... After this I do process the message and some other processing
And then
END CONVERSATION @handle;
Note I do have single conversation group
Is their a problem in the way I am receiving and processing messages. Is it possible because of the delay between RECEIVE and END CONVERSATION same message is read by two different threads.
I'm using service broker and keep getting errors in the log even though everythig is working as expected
SQL Server 2005 Two databases Two end points - 1 in each database Two stored procedures: SP1 is activated when a message enters the sending queue. it insert a new row in a table SP2 is activated when a response is sent from the receiving queue. it cleans up the sending queue.
I have a table with an update trigger In that trigger, if the updted row meets a certain condition a dialogue is created and a message is sent to the sending queue. I know that SP1 and SP2 are behaving properly because i get the expected result. Sp1 is inserteding the expected data in the table SP2 is cleaning up the sending queue.
In the Sql Server log however i'm getting errors on both of the stored procs. error #1 The activated proc <SP 1 Name> running on queue Applications.dbo.ffreceiverQueue output the following: 'The conversation handle is missing. Specify a conversation handle.'
error #2 The activated proc <SP 2 Name> running on queue ADAPT_APP.dbo.ffsenderQueue output the following: 'The conversation handle is missing. Specify a conversation handle.'
I would appreceiate anybody's help into why i'm getting this. have i set up the stored procs in correctly?
i can provide code of the stored procs if that helps.
My service broker was working perfectly fine earlier. As I was testing...I recreated the whole service broker once again.
Now I am able to get the message at the server end from intiator. When trying to send message from my server to the intiator it gives this error in sql profiler.
broker:message undeliverable: This message could not be delivered because the Conversation ID cannot be associated with an active conversation. The message origin is: 'Transport'.
broker:message undeliverable This message could not be delivered because the 'receive sequenced message' action cannot be performed in the 'ERROR' state.
We have implemented our service broker architecture using conversation handle reuse per MS/Remus's recommendations. We have all of the sudden started receiving the conversation handle not found errors in the sql log every hour or so (which makes perfect sense considering the dialog timer is set for 1 hour). My question is...is this expected behavior when you have employed conversation recycling? Should you expect to see these messages pop up every hour, but the logic in the queuing proc says to retry after deleting from your conversation handle table so the messages is enqueued as expected?
Second question...i think i know why we were not receiving these errors before and wanted to confirm this theory as well. In the queuing proc I was not initializing the variable @Counter to 0 so when it came down to the retry logic it could not add 1 to null so was never entering that part of the code...I am guessing with this set up it would actually output the error to the application calling the queueing proc and NOT into the SQL error logs...is this a correct assumption?
I have attached an example of one of the queuing procs below:
Code Block DECLARE @conversationHandle UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @err int, @counter int, @DialogTimeOut int, @Message nvarchar(max), @SendType int, @ConversationID uniqueidentifier select @Counter = 0 -- THIS PART VERY IMPORTANT LOL :) select @DialogTimeOut = Value from dbo.tConfiguration with (nolock) where keyvalue = 'ConversationEndpoints' and subvalue = 'DeleteAfterSec' WHILE (1=1) BEGIN -- Lookup the current SPIDs handle SELECT @conversationHandle = [handle] FROM tConversationSPID with (nolock) WHERE spid = @@SPID and messagetype = 'TestQueueMsg'; IF @conversationHandle IS NULL BEGIN BEGIN DIALOG CONVERSATION @conversationHandle FROM SERVICE [InitiatorQueue_SER] TO SERVICE 'ReceiveTestQueue_SER' ON CONTRACT [TestQueueMsg_CON] WITH ENCRYPTION = OFF; BEGIN CONVERSATION TIMER ( @conversationHandle ) TIMEOUT = @DialogTimeOut -- insert the conversation in the association table INSERT INTO tConversationSPID ([spid], MessageType,[handle]) VALUES (@@SPID, 'TestQueueMsg', @conversationHandle);
SEND ON CONVERSATION @conversationHandle MESSAGE TYPE [TestQueueMsg] (@Message)
END ELSE IF @conversationHandle IS NOT NULL BEGIN SEND ON CONVERSATION @conversationHandle MESSAGE TYPE [TestQueueMsg] (@Message) END SELECT @err = @@ERROR; -- if succeeded, exit the loop now IF (@err = 0) BREAK; SELECT @counter = @counter + 1; IF @counter > 10 BEGIN -- Refer to http://msdn2.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms164086.aspx for severity levels EXEC spLogMessageQueue 20002, 8, 'Failed to SEND on a conversation for more than 10 times. Error %i.' BREAK; END -- We tried on the said conversation, but failed -- remove the record from the association table, then -- let the loop try again DELETE FROM tConversationSPID WHERE [spid] = @@SPID; SELECT @conversationHandle = NULL; END;
Hi all - I'm trying to optimized my stored procedures to be a bit easier to maintain, and am sure this is possible, not am very unclear on the syntax to doing this correctly. For example, I have a simple stored procedure that takes a string as a parameter, and returns its resolved index that corresponds to a record in my database. ie exec dbo.DeriveStatusID 'Created' returns an int value as 1 (performed by "SELECT statusID FROM statusList WHERE statusName= 'Created') but I also have a second stored procedure that needs to make reference to this procedure first, in order to resolve an id - ie: exec dbo.AddProduct_Insert 'widget1' which currently performs:SET @statusID = (SELECT statusID FROM statusList WHERE statusName='Created')INSERT INTO Products (productname, statusID) VALUES (''widget1', @statusID) I want to simply the insert to perform (in one sproc): SET @statusID = EXEC deriveStatusID ('Created')INSERT INTO Products (productname, statusID) VALUES (''widget1', @statusID) This works fine if I call this stored procedure in code first, then pass it to the second stored procedure, but NOT if it is reference in the second stored procedure directly (I end up with an empty value for @statusID in this example). My actual "Insert" stored procedures are far more complicated, but I am working towards lightening the business logic in my application ( it shouldn't have to pre-vet the data prior to executing a valid insert). Hopefully this makes some sense - it doesn't seem right to me that this is impossible, and am fairly sure I'm just missing some simple syntax - can anyone assist?
I executed them and got the following results in SSMSE: TopSixAnalytes Unit AnalyteName 1 222.10 ug/Kg Acetone 2 220.30 ug/Kg Acetone 3 211.90 ug/Kg Acetone 4 140.30 ug/L Acetone 5 120.70 ug/L Acetone 6 90.70 ug/L Acetone ///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// Now, I try to use this Stored Procedure in my ADO.NET-VB 2005 Express programming: //////////////////--spTopSixAnalytes.vb--///////////
Public Class Form1
Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click
Dim sqlConnection As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection("Data Source = .SQLEXPRESS; Integrated Security = SSPI; Initial Catalog = ssmsExpressDB;")
Dim sqlDataAdapter As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdaptor("[spTopSixAnalytes]", sqlConnection)
'Pass the name of the DataSet through the overloaded contructor
'of the DataSet class.
Dim dataSet As DataSet ("ssmsExpressDB")
sqlConnection.Open()
sqlDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet)
sqlConnection.Close()
End Sub
End Class ///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
I executed the above code and I got the following 4 errors: Error #1: Type 'SqlConnection' is not defined (in Form1.vb) Error #2: Type 'SqlDataAdapter' is not defined (in Form1.vb) Error #3: Array bounds cannot appear in type specifiers (in Form1.vb) Error #4: 'DataSet' is not a type and cannot be used as an expression (in Form1)
Please help and advise.
Thanks in advance, Scott Chang
More Information for you to know: I have the "ssmsExpressDB" database in the Database Expolorer of VB 2005 Express. But I do not know how to get the SqlConnection and the SqlDataAdapter into the Form1. I do not know how to get the Fill Method implemented properly. I try to learn "Working with SELECT Statement in a Stored Procedure" for printing the 6 rows that are selected - they are not parameterized.
I have some code that I need to run every quarter. I have many that are similar to this one so I wanted to input two parameters rather than searching and replacing the values. I have another stored procedure that's executed from this one that I will also parameter-ize. The problem I'm having is in embedding a parameter in the name of the called procedure (exec statement at the end of the code). I tried it as I'm showing and it errored. I tried googling but I couldn't find anything related to this. Maybe I just don't have the right keywords. what is the syntax?
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[runDMQ3_2014LDLComplete] @QQ_YYYY char(7), @YYYYQQ char(8) AS begin SET NOCOUNT ON; select [provider group],provider, NPI, [01-Total Patients with DM], [02-Total DM Patients with LDL],
I checked sys.service_queues to confirm the my queue has an activated proc assigned to it and is activation_enabled.
I send messages to the service, however i see that the messages just sit in the queue. I run profiler with all SB and Error events there is nothing, i check the sql server log, there is also nothing.
So i have no idea why the activated proc is not firing, all i see in the profiler trace is that the messages are acknowledged but the activated proc does not execute.
For a while i was stumped. i then tried to execute the proc myself and i got a syntax error.
Basically what happened was that i altered a table that the proc used and now the proc cannot execute cos there are more columns that must be inserted so i altered the proc.
However the activated proc still did not fire.
I had to disable and re-enable activation for it to work.
What i am wondering is why was there no indication in profiler or the sql og as the the fact that something was wrong with the activated proc ? Surely the activated proc should have fired and given the same error i got either to the sql log or profiler ?
And why did i have to re-enable activation ? Does sql cache the proc when you activate it and not know that the proc has changed when you alter it ?
I have multiple queues with the same activated stored procedure (for various reasons we are trying this scenario).
My biggest obsticle is i cannot figure out a way to determine with the activated sp which queue caused it to activate.
Basically i need to make the sp dynamic, so that no matter which queue activated the sp the sp can determine the queue name and use that dynamically to do the receive command from the right queue.
I am sure it is possible since sys.dm_broker_activated_tasks shows how many sp's are activated by each queue, however the sp name is the same for all queues so that does not help me.
How do i determine within an activated sp which queue caused it to activate?
I have a sub that passes values from my form to my stored procedure. The stored procedure passes back an @@IDENTITY but I'm not sure how to grab that in my asp page and then pass that to my next called procedure from my aspx page. Here's where I'm stuck: Public Sub InsertOrder() Conn.Open() cmd = New SqlCommand("Add_NewOrder", Conn) cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure ' pass customer info to stored proc cmd.Parameters.Add("@FirstName", txtFName.Text) cmd.Parameters.Add("@LastName", txtLName.Text) cmd.Parameters.Add("@AddressLine1", txtStreet.Text) cmd.Parameters.Add("@CityID", dropdown_city.SelectedValue) cmd.Parameters.Add("@Zip", intZip.Text) cmd.Parameters.Add("@EmailPrefix", txtEmailPre.Text) cmd.Parameters.Add("@EmailSuffix", txtEmailSuf.Text) cmd.Parameters.Add("@PhoneAreaCode", txtPhoneArea.Text) cmd.Parameters.Add("@PhonePrefix", txtPhonePre.Text) cmd.Parameters.Add("@PhoneSuffix", txtPhoneSuf.Text) ' pass order info to stored proc cmd.Parameters.Add("@NumberOfPeopleID", dropdown_people.SelectedValue) cmd.Parameters.Add("@BeanOptionID", dropdown_beans.SelectedValue) cmd.Parameters.Add("@TortillaOptionID", dropdown_tortilla.SelectedValue) 'Session.Add("FirstName", txtFName.Text) cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() cmd = New SqlCommand("Add_EntreeItems", Conn) cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.Parameters.Add("@CateringOrderID", get identity from previous stored proc) <------------------------- Dim li As ListItem Dim p As SqlParameter = cmd.Parameters.Add("@EntreeID", Data.SqlDbType.VarChar) For Each li In chbxl_entrees.Items If li.Selected Then p.Value = li.Value cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() End If Next Conn.Close()I want to somehow grab the @CateringOrderID that was created as an end product of my first called stored procedure (Add_NewOrder) and pass that to my second stored procedure (Add_EntreeItems)
I have a stored procedure and in that I will be calling a stored procedure. Now, based on the parameter value I will get stored procedure name to be executed. how to execute dynamic sp in a stored rocedure
at present it is like EXECUTE usp_print_list_full @ID, @TNumber, @ErrMsg OUTPUT
I want to do like EXECUTE @SpName @ID, @TNumber, @ErrMsg OUTPUT
Now, I've to get active data for a particular date range. Let me explain the active data definition as below:
StartDate : 01-Jul-2015 EndDate : 31-Dec-2015
It should return all the data which was active for that date range even if it was only for one day.If no data found for that date range, check the last record before start date and and if its active then it should be returned else not.
I though of creating a function and pass primary key with date range and return the final status but that doesn't seems like an optimized query.
Hi Guys, Im having trouble stopping a transaction once the result on one or more of my sql statements rolls back the transaction. Take a look at one my first 'IF' statement (below). If the parameter '@Return' is 'False' i want the transaction rolleback and all sql execution to stop. But my problem is the rest of the sql gets executed and i end up getting rubbish data. Im still new to transactions so i think im doing something really wrong. Please take a look at my sql and help me out in what ever way you think is best. thanks in advance. MattBEGIN TRY SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE BEGIN TRANSACTION; BEGIN DECLARE @Return BIT; SELECT @Return = (SELECT IsReturnable FROM INVENTORY WHERE InventoryID = 6) IF (@Return = 'False') ROLLBACK TRANSACTION; DECLARE @Already_In INT; SELECT @Already_In = (SELECT ReturnedBy FROM InventoryInUse WHERE (CheckOutNumber = 375)) IF (@Already_In IS NOT NULL) ROLLBACK TRANSACTION; DECLARE @Outstanding As INT; SELECT @Outstanding = (SELECT (QtyTaken - 40) AS Outstanding FROM InventoryInUse WHERE (CheckOutNumber = 375)); DECLARE @OutstandingReason As VARCHAR(200); DECLARE @Get_Person_ID INT; Select @Get_Person_ID = (SELECT PersonID From [User] WHERE Username = 'matthewsk'); IF (@Outstanding < 0) ROLLBACK TRANSACTION; ELSE IF (@Outstanding > 0)BEGIN IF (@OutstandingReason = '') SELECT @RollBack = @RollBack + 1; UPDATE InventoryInUse SET ReturnedBy = @Get_Person_ID, ReturnDate = GETDATE(), QtyReturned = 40, QtyOutstanding = @Outstanding, WriteOffReason = 'Testing This' WHERE (CheckOutNumber = 375); UPDATE Inventory SET TotalQty = TotalQty - @Outstanding, QuantityInUse = QuantityInUse - (40 + @Outstanding) WHERE InventoryID = 6; END;ELSE IF (@Outstanding = 0) BEGIN UPDATE InventoryInUse SET ReturnedBy = @Get_Person_ID, ReturnDate = GETDATE(), QtyReturned = 50 WHERE CheckOutNumber = 375; UPDATE Inventory SET QuantityInUse = QuantityInUse - 50 WHERE InventoryID = 6; END; COMMIT TRANSACTION; END;END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF (XACT_STATE()) = -1 BEGIN ROLLBACK TRANSACTION;
Thanks for your help in my date problem. It worked perfectly. I was away and could not answer back promptly.
yesterday, i was inserting data from a data file into a SQL table. 1 record had a name field as varchar. But it accidently, ended with a &. For example, "New Construction &". when I am inserting, its taking all records except this record that ends with a &. Is there any way to include this one Or should I tell my client that this is an error. If its an error, what is the expalnation(Like string char does not end with a & and & is a ------). Thanks others in the forum.
I am sorry. "New Construction &". Its not a column name. Its just a record. The table has a column called Name and it accidently, got a record that has "New Construction &" for the Name column.
Its not inserting that record with "New Construction &" in the Name field. Other records are fine.
