Hello All,
Is it possible to force a delete of a table even when another program is using that DB, and still has some view data on that specific table.
I know that I can delete tables if another program is just have connection to the DB, but not using the specific table I'd like to delete. Can it be done also on a viewed table?
...not sure why, but when I create a new table in my database and connect to it using ODBC I can not update, or delete records in the table. However, I can update and delete records in all the other existing tables in the database, it's only when I create a new table that I can not. Wondering what settings I have to apply to the new table to allow updates and deletes from ODBC connections. I've tried messing with the permissions for the table, but any changes I make there do not seem to have any effect.
Thanks in advance.
TH
...not sure why, but when I create a new table in my database and connect to it using ODBC I can not update, or delete records in the table. However, I can update and delete records in all the other existing tables in the database, it's only when I create a new table that I can not. Wondering what settings I have to apply to the new table to allow updates and deletes from ODBC connections. I've tried messing with the permissions for the table, but any changes I make there do not seem to have any effect.
Thanks in advance.
TH
Hello All!
I have one web service, which Im testing.
I would like to connect it (the web service) to a a database with the same structure as the old database I was using before.
Only difference is the name of the database and that the web service was done in visual studio 2003.
I have now VS 2005.
Can this be done through Microsoft SQLServer management studio express?
Or how can I see to which database and table the web service is connected to?
Thanks in forehand!
Nikita
Hi seniors
there are two tables involve in replication let say table1 and replicated table is also rep.table1.
we are not deleting records physically in table1 so only a bit in table1 has true when u want to delete a record but the strange thing is that replication agaent report that this is hard delete operation on table1 so download and report hard delete operation and delete the record in replicated table which is very crucial.
plz let me know where am i wrong and how i put it into right way.
there is no triggers on published tables and noother trigger is created on published table.
regards
Ahmad Drshen
why we use sql exceptions ...
what the program will do if we caught that exception .. i need some suggestions ... i got this exception(String or binary data would be truncated.
The statement has been terminated.).. will it affect the functionality of the program...
hiow can i avoid this exception..
Hello specialists.
Maybe this is the wrong formum but I've got a question for which you probably have the answer, i hope.
Situation
------------
John is member of Group_A and Group_B
Bill is member of Group_B and Group_C
Allison is member of Group_A and Group_E
How can I create a query to input Allisons username into table 1 and groupmembership into table 2. Also updating the relationship within junction-table3 must be done automaticaly. I want to avoid duplicate records.
The final situation I want is given in red text.
The relationships between the tables are as follows
-------------------------------------------------------------
Table1 (PK)ID-Userinfo [ONE] <------------> [MANY] Table3 ID-Userinfo
Table3 (PK)ID-GroupInfo [MANY] <------------> [ONE] Table2 (PK)ID-GroupInfo
Table1: UserInfo
------------------------------
(PK)ID-Userinfo UserName
1 John
2 Bill
3 Allison
Table2: GroupInfo
------------------------------
(PK)ID-GroupInfo GroupName
1 Group_A
2 Group_B
3 Group_C
4 Group_E
Table3: MemberOf
------------------------------
(PK)ID-MemberOf ID-UserInfo ID-GroupInfo
1 1 1
2 1 2
3 2 2
4 2 3
5 3 1
6 3 4
I hope you can help me cracking this nut.
Thx in advance. Greetings Fred
Hello, Folks. I am not sure if this can be done (and a brief search ofthis group didn't yield any results that I thought would do the trick)but if it can be done it would make my life easier so here goes.First, what I am trying to accomplish is to make a program I've writtenautomatically update itself if there is a newer version on the network.Second, my application runs on one or more computers at manygeographically separated locations. I have remote control softwarethat enables me to remotely update and troubleshoot my application butI since I have to pay for this access per computer I don't have theability to control each and every computer that runs my software (forthose clients with more than one computer that uses my software).Third, my application uses as its data storage system MSDE 2000 (withcurrent service pack).Fourth, my users are not technical people and I want to rely on them aslittle as possible.Fifth, not all of the workstations are Internet enabled or connected,so having the application check a website for an update is notfeasible.Finally, to bring those different pieces together, what I want to beable to do is connect to and control the "server" (the computer withMSDE installed on it) and store in the database what the currentversion number is along with the current program files. Then, when theapplication launches, it will check that stored version number againstit's own version number to determine if there is a newer versionavailable. If there is a newer version available I want it to updateitself (that workstation) by retrieving that newer software from thedatabase. I want to avoid file sharing because it's problematic andsince I already have SQL Server (MSDE) running on the network I'd liketo use that.Is there some way that I can either a) store my program files (one EXEapproximately 5MB in size and one OCX approximately 250KB in size) in atable to be retrieved by my application so it can update itself or b) away to get SQL Server (MSDE) to read a file locally on the server andreturn it to my application just like it would any recordset so I couldjust tell it where the file was and let it read it from whicheverfolder it's stored in?I've looked at making a column of datatype Binary, and perhaps that'sthe way I'll go (re-creating the field to the correct size each time Ido an update or perhaps making it really big so I don't have to worryabout the size). But I thought I'd ask around first since this isn'tanything I know much about.Thank you for your time and help.--HC
View 2 Replies View RelatedHello:
Need some serious help with this one...
Background:
Am working on completing an ORM that can not only handles CRUD actions -- but that can also updates the structure of a table transparently when the class defs change. Reason for this is that I can't get the SQL scripts that would work for updating a software on SqlServer to be portable to other DBMS systems. Doing it by code, rather than SQL batch has a chance of making cross-platform, updateable, software...
Anyway, because it needs to be cross-DBMS capable, the constraints are that the system used must work for the lowest common denominator....ie, a 'recipe' of steps that will work on all DBMS's.
The Problem:
There might be simpler ways to do this with SqlServer (all ears :-) - just in case I can't make it cross platform right now) but, with simplistic DBMS's (SqlLite, etc) there is no way to ALTER table once formed: one has to COPY the Table to a new TMP name, adding a Column in the process, then delete the original, then rename the TMP to the original name.
This appears possible in SqlServer too --...as long as there are no CASCADE operations.
Truncate table doesn't seem to be the solution, nor drop, as they all seem to trigger a Cascade delete in the Foreign Table.
So -- please correct me if I am wrong here -- it appears that the operations would be
along the lines of:
a) Remove the Foreign Key references
b) Copy the table structure, and make a new temp table, adding the column
c) Copy the data over
d) Add the FK relations, that used to be in the first table, to the new table
e) Delete the original
f) Done?
The questions are:
a) How does one alter a table to REMOVE the Foreign Key References part, if it has no 'name'.
b) Anyone know of a good clean way to get, and save these constraints to reapply them to the new table. Hopefully with some cross platform ADO.NET solution? GetSchema etc appears to me to be very dbms dependant?
c) ANY and all tips on things I might run into later that I have not mentioned, are also greatly appreciated.
Thanks!
Sky
I'm trying to clean up a database design and I'm in a situation to where two tables need a FK but since it didn't exist before there are orphaned records.
Tables are:
Brokers and it's PK is BID
The 2nd table is Broker_Rates which also has a BID table.
I'm trying to figure out a t-sql statement that will parse through all the recrods in the Broker_Rates table and delete the record if there isn't a match for the BID record in the brokers table.
I know this isn't correct syntax but should hopefully clear up what I'm asking
DELETE FROM Broker_Rates
WHERE (Broker_Rates.BID <> Broker.BID)
Thanks
i need to check that the column exist in the table if yes the update/insert value in the column else i need to add the new column like new browser name in the table.
View 1 Replies View RelatedHI,
I'm programmatically able to import data between tables when the Destination table already exists but when Detination table has to be created on the fly (Name will be provided), I'm not successful in doing so.
Basically the requirement is to dump the resultset from the source in to a temp table so that the temp (Destination) table matches the Source's Schema exactly.
Has anybody done that?
Any help in this regard is greatly appreciated.
Pavan
hi ALL !!!
How can I insert Date in SQL Server 2000 database(table ) from ASP.NET 1.1. Program??
pls send me code if u can
pls help me ..
The requirement is: I should allow single row delete from a table but not bulk delete. An audit table should get updated if there is any single delete or single update. So I wrote the triggers as follows: for single and bulk delete
ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[TRG_Delete_Bulk_tbl_attendance]
ON [dbo].[tbl_attendance]
AFTER DELETE
AS
[code]...
When I try to run the website, the database error I am getting is:Transaction count after EXECUTE indicates that a COMMIT or ROLLBACK TRANSACTION statement is missing. Previous count = 0, current count = 1.
Can I return a value in a variable from a SSIS program back to C# after the SSIS program is run from C#?
View 1 Replies View Related'****************************************************************************
Cmd.CommandText = "Drop Table Raj"
Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery()
Cmd.CommandText = "Select * Into Raj From XXX"
Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery()
'**************************************************************************
This generates error that Table already exist.
If Wait 1 sec then execute statement then it works fine.
Thanks in Advance
Piyush Verma
Hi Experts,
In our production system, there are high number activities involving very huge tables ( around 250 million records ).
For performance benefits , we are using dynamic queries in the stored procedures. We are also using WITH clause to FORCE appropriate indexes.
Will forcing the indexes have any negative effects ? or Forcing the index would REALLY improve the performance.
Any inputs would be highly appreciated.
Thanks in advance.
Hariarul
I have an Itanium 64bit server to run SSIS packages on. I have one package with three parralell streams. When I run the package in 64 bit mode using dtexec, it runs through validation and exits with no reported errors, when I run it from a job, the job fails and says to see job log, which has no errors.
When I run it in 32 bit mode using the GUI, it runs all the way through.
Does anyone know how to launch SSIS in 32 bit mode from a job on an Itanium?
Thanks
Larry C
This is a really wide spread - more than a time discussed - on SQL CE MSDN Forums - Issue !!!
Is there any way i can commit changes which happens during runtime (when i am developing the application) such as inserts/updates and deletes to the .sdf DB on the machine ?????
Hi all,
As our DB has no primary keys or indexes ive taken a copy of all populated tables and tried to force primary keys within a new DB.
the problem is all off the tables have multiple datasets within them, a dataset for each year. This causes all instances of ID numbers to not be unique as they are replicated for every year they are active.
Its a school database so a student who has been here for 3 years will have 3 instances of his ID number, one for each years' data set.
So how do i force primary keys if there is no unique identifier? ive been highlighting both data set and ID columns and setting that combination as the primary key.
Essentially i need to analyse the relationships between the tabls in a diagram and also run some speed tests to see how fast the db works when it has indexes and primary keys.
the reason im writing is that ive done this on ten tables and with another 160 to do im just checking im doing the right thing?
greg
I have the following Case statement:
CASE
WHEN CAST(wo.start_date AS TIME) BETWEEN '00:00:00' AND '00:59:59' THEN 0
WHEN CAST(wo.start_date AS TIME) BETWEEN '01:00:00' AND '01:59:59' THEN 1
WHEN CAST(wo.start_date AS TIME) BETWEEN '02:00:00' AND '02:59:59' THEN 2
WHEN CAST(wo.start_date AS TIME) BETWEEN '03:00:00' AND '03:59:59' THEN 3
WHEN CAST(wo.start_date AS TIME) BETWEEN '04:00:00' AND '04:59:59' THEN 4
[code]....
The purpose is to take a row and set it to the hour of the day that it occurred in. This works fine, however I would like to force it to display every hour 0-23 regardless of whether or not it has a corresponding row.
So, if no row exists for 0, display 0 with null values for the rest of the columns.
In the following procedure i write the results to a temp table called #temp1I now want to count the results of #temp1, if the count of #temp1 = 0
I want to insert 'No Records Found' into #temp.ERRORMSG else return what is in the table
any idea on how to do this?
ALTER PROC [dbo].[SPU_RPT_Savings_AnomalyDispatches] 40,'04/01/07|06/30/07'
@PropertyID varchar(4000),
@DropDown varchar(50)
AS
SELECT Client.CLIENT, Client.CLIENTID, ErrorEmailLog.ID, ErrorEmailLog.SITEID, ErrorEmailLog.PROPID, ErrorEmailLog.DISTINCTERRORS,
ErrorEmailLog.ERRORMSG, ErrorEmailLog.ERRORDATETIME, ErrorEmailLog.EMAILRECIPIENTS, Property.PROPERTY, Property.STREET,
Property.CITY, Property.STATE, Property.ZIP, Property.PHONE
INTO #TEMP1
FROM ErrorEmailLog INNER JOIN
Property ON ErrorEmailLog.PROPID = Property.PROPID INNER JOIN
Client ON Property.CLIENTID = Client.CLIENTID
WHERE (ErrorEmailLog.ERRORDATETIME BETWEEN SUBSTRING(CONVERT(VARCHAR(12), @DropDown), 0, 9)
I have two tables that are related by keys. For instance,Table employee {last_name char(40) not null,first_name char(40) not null,department_name char(40) not null,age int not null,...}Employee table has a primary key (combination of last_name and first_name).Table address {last_name char(40) not null,first_name char(40) not null,street char(200) not null,city char(100) not null,...}Address table has a primary key (combination of last_name, first_name andstreet in which (last_name, first_name) reference (last_name, first_name) inemployee table.Now I want to delete some rows in Address table based on department_name inEmployee table. What is sql for this delete?I appreciate your help. Please ignore table design and I just use it for myproblem illustration.Jim
View 1 Replies View RelatedI need to delete records from a table (Table1) which has a foreign key column in a related table (Table2).
Table1 columns are: table1Id; Name. Table2 columns include Table2.table1Id which is the foreign key to Table1.
What is the syntax to delete records from Table1 using Table1.Name='some name' and remove any records in Table2 that have Table2.table1Id equal to Table1.table1Id?
I have contract table which has built in foreign key constrains. How can I alter this table for delete/ update cascade without recreating the table so whenever studentId/ contactId is modified, the change is effected to the contract table.
Thanks
************************************************** ******
Contract table DDL is
create table contract(
contractNum int identity(1,1) primary key,
contractDate smalldatetime not null,
tuition money not null,
studentId char(4) not null foreign key references student (studentId),
contactId int not null foreign key references contact (contactId)
);
I need to delete all records in the TBL_PCL_LENS_DATA table that do not have a corresponding record in the TBL_VERIFICATION table.
Primary Table: TBL_PCL_LENS_DATA
PK: Serial Number
PK: ProcessedDateTime
Child Table: TBL_VERIFICATION
PK: Serial Number
Thanks,
Sean
Hello all,
Is there any way to force Autonum to generate a number before an entire record is created? Some of my forms will not work because it needs a number already listed in its index (which uses Autonum) and cannot add to the table until it is created.I really need it to have a number ready and waiting upon the last record's completion.
im testing an application change that should handle a timeout on a stored procedure being called from the application. thing is, the timeout that we experience in production that led to this fix is random. so is there some way for me to setup a test stored procedure or some way to call the SP so that i can test a timeout scenario?
im using MFC and the CDatabase::ExecuteSQL method to call this SP if you were wondering at all.
this app is running locally on the server that has an instance of SQL Server Express 2k5 on it. server is running win 2k3.
Hi Guys,
I have a slight problem, a query that i have written produces data with 2 primary keys the same... however, DINSTINCT wont work in this case as the rows are still different...
Is their a way to force 1 column to always be unique?
Heres the query:
SELECT TOP 5 ORDER_ITEM.ItemID AS 'Item ID', ITEM.ItemName AS 'Item Name',
(SELECT SUM(OrdItem2.ItemQuantity) FROM ORDER_ITEM OrdItem2
WHERE OrdItem2.ItemID = ORDER_ITEM.ItemID
) AS Total_Purchased, SUM(ORDER_ITEM.ItemQuantity) AS 'Customer Purchased',
CUSTOMER.customerForename AS 'Customer Forename',
CUSTOMER.customerSurname AS 'Customer Surname'
FROM ITEM, ORDER_ITEM, ORDER_T, CUSTOMER
WHERE ITEM.ItemID = ORDER_ITEM.ItemID
AND ORDER_ITEM.OrderID = ORDER_0510096.OrderID
AND ORDER_T.CustomerID = CUSTOMER.CustomerID
GROUP BY ORDER_ITEM.ItemID, ITEM.ItemName,
CUSTOMER.customerForename, CUSTOMER.customerSurname
ORDER BY Total_Purchased DESC
The query is supposed to select the TOP 5 Products sold as well as selecting the customer that purchased the greatest amount of that item and the amount they purchased.
Currently, i will get 2 duplicate rows (except for customers name and the items the purchased. Like this:
ItemID
83630Mathew Smith
8 366Tony Wattage
Which is kinda annoying.... is there anyway i can prevent this?
And also apart from the Where Joins... is there a more efficient way of writing this?
thx for reading :-)
--Philkills
I am developing a simple DB-Library program in C calling SQL Server 2000 onwindows 2003 and NT 4. I have some T-SQL code that checks for the existenceof a table and want to abort the program if the table doesn't exist. I issuea raiserror if the table doesn't exist and then call RETURN.I construct the string using sprintf and pass it dbfcnd and dbsqlexec. Sincethe commands work, there is no error to halt the execution of the program.Is there an easy, clean way to force dbsqlexec to fail? Do I need a storedprocedure to return an error code and then deal with that?Thanks for any advice,-Gary
View 3 Replies View RelatedA stored procedure in the cache is automatically recompiled when a table it refers to has a table structure change. User defined functions are not. Here's a simplified code sample:
set nocount on
go
create table tmpTest (a int, b int, c int)
insert into tmpTest (a, b, c) values (1, 2, 3)
insert into tmpTest (a, b, c) values (2, 3, 4)
go
if exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[fTest]') and xtype in (N'FN', N'IF', N'TF'))
drop function [dbo].[fTest]
GO
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.fTest (@a int)
RETURNS TABLE
AS
RETURN (SELECT * from tmpTest where a = @a)
GO
select * from fTest(1)
CREATE TABLE dbo.Tmp_tmpTest
(
a int NULL,
b int NULL,
d int NULL,
c int NULL
) ON [PRIMARY]
IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM dbo.tmpTest)
EXEC('INSERT INTO dbo.Tmp_tmpTest (a, b, c)
SELECT a, b, c FROM dbo.tmpTest TABLOCKX')
DROP TABLE dbo.tmpTest
EXECUTE sp_rename N'dbo.Tmp_tmpTest', N'tmpTest', 'OBJECT'
select * from fTest(1)
drop table tmpTest
Running it, the output is:
a b c
----------- ----------- -----------
1 2 3
Caution: Changing any part of an object name could break scripts and stored procedures.
The OBJECT was renamed to 'tmpTest'.
a b c
----------- ----------- -----------
1 2 NULL
(I know that "select *" is bad, but it's a lot of legacy code that I'm working with here, and that's how it's written.)
The function doesn't detect that the table has changed in structure, or even that there is no longer a dependency on tmpTest. (Appending a column rather than inserting has the same effect, in that only the first 3 columns are returned.)
DBCC FREEPROCCACHE has no effect, not that I really expected it to, but you never know...
Is there any way, other than dropping and recreating, to force a recompilation of a particular function in memory, or perhaps all functions?
Thanks in anticipation.
Tom
Due to a lack of planning during an Active Directory migration last year, I'm now stuck with an immutable service master key on one of my production servers. Since I'm posting here, I guess it's obvious that we have no backup from which to restore. The account that all of the SQL services used to run under no longer exists, so the WITH OLD_ACCOUNT workaround is not viable. And REGENERATE fails, as expected, with Msg 15329, Level 16, State 2, Line 2, "The current master key cannot be decrypted..."
After some research, including several of Laurentiu's blog entries, it seems that my only path at this point is to use the FORCE option to REGENERATE. (And then to immediately backup the service master key at several geographically disparate locations!!
Considering that:
We aren't actively using any of SQL Server's encryption capabilities, the closest we come is that one of our legacy applications calls the old PWDENCRYPT() function to hash passwords
##MS_ServiceMasterKey## is the only record in master.sys.symmetric_keys, and every other database's sys.symmetric_keys table is empty
What, if anything, am I likely to lose if I ALTER SERVICE MASTER KEY FORCE REGENERATE? My understanding is that since we don't have any database master keys and aren't using encryption, there's no real potential for corruption or loss. However, I want to be a little more confident about this before I give it a go.
Pointers appreciated.
Hi,
Im trying to do an interactive sort , one of the rows returned from my datasource called 'Total' i wish to display at the bottom always. is there a way i can do this?
I've tried the below on the column header but the total is either at the bottom or the top how can i check the ordering if Ascending or Descending? Then i cld swop the 1 and the 2 around.
=iif(Fields!Item.Value <> "Total", 1 ,2) & Fields!Item.Value
Otherwise doesnt anyone know how to palce a row from the detail section into the footer?
Many thanks
Dave