declare @newAnswerId int declare @newQuestionId int
set @QuestionName='New Question'
BEGIN TRANSACTION Q1
--Creates New QuestionId with AnswerId 0 INSERT INTO Questions(QuestionId,Name,AnswerId) SELECT 1 + COALESCE(MAX(QuestionId), 0),RTRIM(@QuestionName),0 FROM Questions
--QuestionId just now created SELECT @newQuestionId=QuestionId FROM Questions WHERE Name=@QuestionName
BEGIN TRANSACTION QA1
--Create an AnswerId INSERT INTO Answers(AnswerId) SELECT 1 + COALESCE(MAX(AnswerId), 0) FROM Answers
--AnswerId just now created(I hope not the best way to do like this) SELECT @newAnswerId=MAX(AnswerId) from Answers --is it the best way to call statement like this or any other way better than this
--update Questions Table with this new Answerid UPDATE Questions set AnswerId=@newAnswerId where QuestionId=@newQuestionId
COMMIT TRANSACTION QA1 COMMIT TRANSACTION Q1
I think the second Transaction is not locking the table.so some how i should be able to get the newly create AnswerId
i can't use the identity column in my tables
Can some one please have a look at it and suggest me how do we go about it..
How to create random number for the value in other colum. Please help and urgent
I have a table with 4 column ( ID, Ori_Quantity, Rand_Quantity, Location)
If Ori_quantity < 5000 then Rand_quanty as qty = I want Random number within 100 Else If Ori_quantity = 0 or < 10 then Rand_quanty as qty = I want Random number within 7 End if
From tblname where Location = 'DAS'
I have around 2500 field. So when I run the query I expect the result should be like below
Hello all, Is there any way to force Autonum to generate a number before an entire record is created? Some of my forms will not work because it needs a number already listed in its index (which uses Autonum) and cannot add to the table until it is created.I really need it to have a number ready and waiting upon the last record's completion.
I need to generate a random 10 digit alphanumeric string that is also unique within a table. My application will be calling a stored procedure to insert this number into the table. This number will be associated with a id from another table. Is it better to generate the random number within sql (and perform the lookup at the same time), then just pass the number back to the calling application ?
If the calling application generates the number, it will also need to make a call to check if its unique. So im thinking it would be best to simply have sql generate this random number, check the number against the table and then insert the new record.
Hi all anbody can help me writing sql code for this. All i need is to generate sequence basing on id_no Ex: if ID=ABC(twice) in seq_col as abc --1 abc ---2 Tables which I have Uniques_No ID_NO SEQ --------------------------------------------- 1 ABC 2 ABC 3 ABC 4 BBC 5 BBC
Expected results as below : ------------------
Uniques_No ID_NO SEQ --------------------------------------------- 1 ABC 1 2 ABC 2 3 ABC 3 4 BBC 1 5 BBC 2
Hi, in Access, I can use an Auto-Increment number for my primary key field. May I know how do I do that in SQL Express?
In addition, is there any tutorial on how to use SQL Express to generate customised unique numbers (such as membership number, Customer ID such as A001 where A is based on the customer's name while 001 is due to the fact that the customer is the first among those with names starting with A)?
I'm trying to do a simple insert into a table, something like this:
insert into sometable (ID, somecolumn) select 'Task-ID', somevalue from SomeOtherTable where something = 'someothervalue' (or something to that effect)
So, the SELECT would generate something that looks like this:
What I don't know is, how do I programatically generate the number sequence? Note: I do not have admin rights to the table, i.e. I cannot just change a column to IDENTITY.
Also the 'Task-ID' must remain part of the ID; in other words, I can't just generate a GUID, and it needs to be easily identifiable.
What I'm hoping to do is rewrite my SQL like this:
insert into sometable (ID, somecolumn) select 'Task-ID.' + (generated seq #), somevalue from SomeOtherTable where something = 'someothervalue'
'code'- varchar 255 (Unique number) data : chr456Umx 'Packs'- integer data : 6
Is it posible to generate 13 digit number using the above two columns, The reason is if I run the procedure I will get same 13 digit all the time depending on the above two colums
below is the sample procedure I am using
CREATE PROCEDURE AMZSelCen @imglink nvarchar(255)
AS
Select code as sku, PdtBarCode as [standard-product-id], 'EAN' as [product-id-type],
--generate 13 digit number
make+' '+model+' ' +', Price for '+cast(NumPacks as varchar(8)) +' '+'Packs' as title, make as manufacturer,'
I need to create a script that adds an incrementing suffix to two columns, but restarts based on the value of another column. I found a similar question in the SQL Server 2000 forum, but it doesn't quite fit and also I'm working with SQL Server 2008 R2. The code below both creates a table with test data and tries to carry out the task. If you run this, you will see that the VISITNUM column has a value of UNS in row 4, UNS.1 in row 5 and UNS.2 in row 6. In row 7 it's V200, then in rows 8 and 9 it's UNS.3 for both. The same suffix gets applied to the VISIT column, but of course if I can solve this for VISITNUM then adding the suffix to VIST as well will be easy.
What I need is for row 8 to have UNS and row 9 to have UNS.1. In other words, any time the VISITNUM is UNS several times in a row, I need to add that ".X" suffix, but if a row has something other than UNS, I need to start over again the next time it's UNS again.
Hello, I have a column that is not auto-incremented. I would like to make it auto-incremented. For the moment, the only solution I found is to delete my column and to add a new auto-incremented column. The problem is I cannot delete it without deleting dependencies on it... So is there a solution to make an existing column auto-incremented or is it necessary to a create a new column ?
I am trying to insert into a SQL Server table from an Oracle database. This table has an auto-incremented field, and when I try to insert into this table I get the following error:
Code Snippet [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Cannot insert the value NULL into column '<column_name>', table '<my_table>'; column does not allow nulls. UPDATE fails.[Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]The statement has been terminated. (SQL State: 23000; SQL Code: 515)
When I turn off all the triggers in the database, I don't get this error. But that is just a test environment, the production environment will need to have those triggers activated.
Good day gentleman, Is it possible to pad columns of Int data type with zeros?
I currently have a primary key column of data type Int which is auto-incremented by 1. My problem is I need to pad the auto-incremented ID's with ten zeros so, 0000000009 instead of 9.
I can pad the ID's in the c# dataaccess layer, but i need to generate/store them padded in the database to allow direct reporting.
I am using Enterprise Manager and i can see a Formula field when the table is in design view, can i use this? i am just guessing here.
and what I want to do is find the median of "data", but keyed off of "key", so if my desired median is 30, I want to take the two records (data, key) nearest to key = 30, and get the average of "data". ...and do this within each "header" value.
actually, to be precise, I want the linear interpolation, so for header = 500, I want to get the (data, key) pairs of (3.6, 25) and (3.7, 40) and return the interpolated "data" value of 3.6333 (as done here (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linear_interpolation))
How can I order the results of my query in non-linear fasion. I have afield with these values: Reg S, 144A, US and want to order my resultsby US, 144A, Reg S.I would prefer not to create another field in the table if possible.
Hi. After inserting data (new row) by using DetailsView control, how to read auto incremented primary key (identity) of this new row from sql database to use it as parameter passed to stored procedure?
This is a real challenge. I hope someone is smart enough to know howto do this.I have a tableTABLE1[Column 1- 2001][Column 2- 2002][Column 3- 2003][Column 4 - 2004][Column 5 - 2005][Column 6 - 2006][Column 7 - Slope][2001][2002][2003][2004][2005][2006] [Slope][1] [2] [3] [4] [5] [6] [1][1.2] [.9] [4] [5] [5.4] [6.2] [?]Slope is defined as "M" in the equation y=mx+bI need a way a finding the linear equation that best fits the points soI can have SQL calculate the slope.Are there any smart people around that would know how to do this?thanks
I would like to understand the algorithm that the linear regression method uses to choose the regressors in the model from a list of possible regressors.
I think that it is different from the common methods used in statistics like stepwise, forward or backward.
I have a sql sever 2005 express table with an automatically incremented primary key field. I use a Detailsview to insert new records and on the Detailsview itemInserted event, i send out automated notification emails. I then received two automated emails(indicating two records have been inserted) but looking at the database, the records are not there. Whats confusing me is that even the tables primary key field had been incremented by two, an indication that indeed the two records should actually be in table. Recovering these records is not abig deal because i can re-enter them but iam wondering what the possible cause is. How come the id field was even incremented and the records are not there yet iam 100% sure no one deleted them. Its only me who can delete a record. And then how come i insert new records now and they are all there in the database but now with two id numbers for those missing records skipped. Its not crucial data but for my learning, i feel i deserve understanding why it happened because next time, it might be costly.
The results we got are a model with intercept only. if we don't use the nested variable (the red line) we get a rigth model . (we had more variable ....)
When using linear regression in the SQL Server 2005 Business IntelIigence Studio I interpet the information below as follow: X has a standard deviation of +- 37.046. Is it possible to obtain the standard deviation of each coefficient in the regression expression?
I am trying to create a model using microsoft Linear Regression algorithm. But I want to constrain the coefficient of the parameters to non-negative value. There is concept of bound in SAS where we can specify the range of the coefficient. Does any of the SSAS mining algorithms support restricting the coefficient value?
Q1. Model Prediction -- Suppose we already have a trained Microsoft Linear Regression Mining Model, say, target y regressed on two variables:
x1 and x2, where y, x1, x2 are of datatype Float. We try to perform Model Prediction with an Input Table in which some records consist of NULL x2 values. How are the resulting predicted y values calculated?
My guess:
The resulting linear regression formula is in the form:
where avg_x1 is the average of x1 in the training set, and avg_x2 is the average of x2 in the training set (Correct?).
I guess that for some variable being NULL in the Input Table, Microsoft Linear Regression just treat it as the average of that variable in the training set.
So for x2 being NULL, the whole term coeff2 * (x2 - avg_x2) just disappear, as it is zero if we substitute x2 with its average value.
Is this correct?
Q2. Model Training -- Using the above example that y regressed on x1 and x2, if we have a train set that, say, consist of 100 records in which
y: no NULL value
x1: no NULL value
x2: 70 records out of 100 records are NULL
Can someone help explain the mathematical procedure or algorithm that produce coeff1 and coeff2?
In particular, how is the information in the "partial records" used in the regression to contribute to coeff1 and the constant, etc ?
Q1. Model Prediction -- Suppose we already have a trained Microsoft Linear Regression Mining Model, say, target y regressed on two variables:
x1 and x2, where y, x1, x2 are of datatype Float. We try to perform Model Prediction with an Input Table in which some records consist of NULL x2 values. How are the resulting predicted y values calculated?
My guess:
The resulting linear regression formula is in the form:
where avg_x1 is the average of x1 in the training set, and avg_x2 is the average of x2 in the training set (Correct?).
I guess that for some variable being NULL in the Input Table, Microsoft Linear Regression just treat it as the average of that variable in the training set.
So for x2 being NULL, the whole term coeff2 * (x2 - avg_x2) just disappear, as it is zero if we substitute x2 with its average value.
Is this correct?
Q2. Model Training -- Using the above example that y regressed on x1 and x2, if we have a train set that, say, consist of 100 records in which
y: no NULL value
x1: no NULL value
x2: 70 records out of 100 records are NULL
Can soemone help explain the mathematical procedure or algorithm that produce coeff1 and coeff2?
In particular, how is the information in the "partial records" used in the regression to contribute to coeff1 and the constant, etc ?
With the number of threads it is difficult to know if this has been posted. If I use the Mining Content Viewer for Linear Regression, under Node Distribution, there are values given for Attribute Name, Attribute Value, Support, Probability, Variance, and Value Type. The output is similar to what Joris supplied in his thread about Predict Probability in Decision Trees. My questions:
1. How should these fields be interpreted?
2. With Linear Regression, is it possible to get the coefficient values and tests of significance (t-tests?), if they are not part of the output I have pointed to?
I'm using a bullet chart in a SSRS report and I want to set the Maximum value in the Linear Scale properties to highest value of the following 4 fields. Is there any way to do this?? This will make all charts line up properly.
Hello everybody,I was configuring a SqlDataSource control using SQL Authentication mode.I first added a database file (testdb.mdf) through Solution Explorer-Add New Items. Then through Database Explorer I created a table named "info"Then while configuring the SqlDataSource control I used the SQL Authentication mode and attached the "testdb.mdf" database file.Test Connection showed success. But when I hit the Ok button of the wizard it displayed the following error message:Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server. Only an integrated connection can generate a user instance.While configuring the SqlDataSource control I clicked "New Connection". Under Data Source section I tried both Microsoft SQL Server and Microsoft SQL Server Database File. And in both the cases I attached a databese file(testdb.mdf). Plz enlighten me on this.Thanks and Regards,Sankar.
I have recently been looking at a database and wondered if anyone can tell me what the advantages are supporting a unique collumn, which can essentially be seen as the primary key, with an identity seed integer primary key.
For example:
id [unique integer auto incremented primary key - not null], ClientCode [unique index varchar - not null], name [varchar null], surname [varchar null]
isn't it just better to use ClientCode as the primary key straight of because when one references the above table, it can be done easier with the ClientCode since you dont have to do a lookup on the ClientCode everytime.
I have created a local user on Report Server Computer and the user has the administrative rights. When i try to connect Report Server (http://xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx/reportserver) with this user's credantials. (ReportServer directory security is set -only- to Basic Authentication. ). I get the following error.
The number of requests for "XXXServerXXXUser" has exceeded the maximum number allowed for a single user. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SQL Server Reporting Services
Then i try to login using a different user with administrative rights on the machine, i can logon successfully. The system is up for a month but this problem occured today?!? What could be the problem?!?