Can someone help me with how I should set the relationship in my address tables and how they will affect the deleting of a client?
So, if I have:
tblClients ClientID
tblClientAddresses AddressID
tblClientAddressLinks AddressID, ClientID
Currently I have them set as a 1-M from tblClients to tblClientAddressLinks and a 1-M from tblClientAddresses to tblClientAddressLinks
If I try and delete a client and there address is shared wont this go very wrong?
So here is what happens when I try and delete a client:
The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK_tblClientAddressLinks_tblClients". The conflict occurred in database "DBSQL2", table "dbo.tblcLIENTAddressLinks", column 'clientID'.The statement has been terminated.
Here is what happens when I try and delete an address:
The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK_tblClientAddressLinks_tblClientAddresses". The conflict occurred in database "DBSQL2", table "dbo.tblClientAddressLinks", column 'Address_ID'.The statement has been terminated.
there are two tables involve in replication let say table1 and replicated table is also rep.table1.
we are not deleting records physically in table1 so only a bit in table1 has true when u want to delete a record but the strange thing is that replication agaent report that this is hard delete operation on table1 so download and report hard delete operation and delete the record in replicated table which is very crucial.
plz let me know where am i wrong and how i put it into right way.
there is no triggers on published tables and noother trigger is created on published table.
i have 6 table in SQL Server and i have created one view and create single table by linking all the table,now i want to join two column like
Column A and Column B = Column C e.g A B C Atul Jadhav Atuljadhav Vijay vijayvijay
in above exambe column A having firstName and Column B having second name and i want to join this two column in C column "atuljadhav" and if column B is blank then it join A value tow timestriger code as it is auto update column and every time (update, append, modify, delete) it should be update automatic
I have several pdf files that need to be imported into the database. Each pdf file is to link to several rows in a database. The files have different file names and keep coming every week. I need to import them into a table and link it with the data table. Need help on how to get the filename out of the pdf file and save it on the table with the image. I can use that filename as the foriegn key..Any help would be really great.. -Sri
Little puzzle this.I need to link from SQL2000 to Access to get to a table held within anAccess DB. Now you can link within Access to a SQL table, but can thisbe done the other way round ? It's the first time I've needed to dosomething like this.What I have is an application which was written (by me) with an Accessbackend (to run on a CD) and now it needs to run on SQL. However, Iwant to be able to swap over between backends so that I can choosewhere this runs from. I've done this with the sole exception of onetable. Previously most of the data was held in one MDB file and a linkto another (one local copy and one on CD). My queries use the link toquery both local and the CD copy data together.I can re-write things if I need to, but I was curious about there beinga way of doing this. What I want in effect is to query a view on SQL,but the data will be held in Access instead of on SQL.I suppose I can import as I need it as the data is purely read only. Idon't think this can be done, but wanted to check first. I can alwaysmove the remainder of the data over to SQL if needed. It's not a bigproblem, just something I'm curious about.Any pointers would be appreciated.Thanks in advanceRyanp.s. In case anyone wonders why I have taken this approach it isbecause we have a query tool and data that we send out to clients onCD. Some now want this web based, so I will publish the application ona Citrix server, and by changing a config file can swap within theapplication to point to SQL (by changing the ODBC settings). This way,I only need one copy of the application and can change backends as Ineed to.
I am trying to link a table from a MS SQL database into access97 thru ODBC. When I do this, I get the message "Can't define field more than once." When I look at the table in SQL, there are no duplicate field names, however, when I bring the table in to do a Crystal Report, I see there are 2 fields that have duplicate field names 6 times. (Evidently Crystal doesn't care about this as Access does.) Any clues on what is happening?
I would like to hear your thoughts on a philosophy I adhere to.
As a rule of thumb I've always preached that Unique Indexes are for linking tables and Primary Keys are used to ensure that records aren't duplicated. I’ve embraced this philosophy for a couple reasons, the main one being that I don’t have to create numerous foreign key fields in the foreign key table.
However I’ve done most of my programming in Access and am now in need of something more robust (SQL Server v7) and I’m wondering if I need to reconsider.
I do also have a how to question; that being is it possible to create a table join on a unique index in SQL Server v7 and if so how? I would like to have an Auto Number / Auto Incremented / Unique Identifier field in the Primary Key table that links to a numeric field in the Foreign Key table.
Rather than using the upsize wizard in MS Access to connect to tables on a backend SQL server, how would I go about linking an Access Database to an existing table on an SQL server?
Background: Am working on completing an ORM that can not only handles CRUD actions -- but that can also updates the structure of a table transparently when the class defs change. Reason for this is that I can't get the SQL scripts that would work for updating a software on SqlServer to be portable to other DBMS systems. Doing it by code, rather than SQL batch has a chance of making cross-platform, updateable, software...
Anyway, because it needs to be cross-DBMS capable, the constraints are that the system used must work for the lowest common denominator....ie, a 'recipe' of steps that will work on all DBMS's.
The Problem: There might be simpler ways to do this with SqlServer (all ears :-) - just in case I can't make it cross platform right now) but, with simplistic DBMS's (SqlLite, etc) there is no way to ALTER table once formed: one has to COPY the Table to a new TMP name, adding a Column in the process, then delete the original, then rename the TMP to the original name.
This appears possible in SqlServer too --...as long as there are no CASCADE operations. Truncate table doesn't seem to be the solution, nor drop, as they all seem to trigger a Cascade delete in the Foreign Table.
So -- please correct me if I am wrong here -- it appears that the operations would be along the lines of: a) Remove the Foreign Key references b) Copy the table structure, and make a new temp table, adding the column c) Copy the data over d) Add the FK relations, that used to be in the first table, to the new table e) Delete the original f) Done?
The questions are: a) How does one alter a table to REMOVE the Foreign Key References part, if it has no 'name'. b) Anyone know of a good clean way to get, and save these constraints to reapply them to the new table. Hopefully with some cross platform ADO.NET solution? GetSchema etc appears to me to be very dbms dependant? c) ANY and all tips on things I might run into later that I have not mentioned, are also greatly appreciated.
I'm trying to clean up a database design and I'm in a situation to where two tables need a FK but since it didn't exist before there are orphaned records.
Tables are:
Brokers and it's PK is BID
The 2nd table is Broker_Rates which also has a BID table.
I'm trying to figure out a t-sql statement that will parse through all the recrods in the Broker_Rates table and delete the record if there isn't a match for the BID record in the brokers table.
I know this isn't correct syntax but should hopefully clear up what I'm asking
I would like to create a MSAccess97 front end for some SQL7 data. I created an odbc source system dsn for the server holding the SQL7 data. When I try to add a table to my Access97 database by linking it to a SQL7 table, the only choices presented me are tables in the default database for SQL7 on my server. How do I link to tables in another database on that server? Thanks.
I`m trying out SQLServer7, have installed it on my workstation, have been able to open access97 and link to sql7 tables I created. Want another user to use access97 to set up her own database and link to my sql7 tables. Do I need to install anything from the sql7 beta disk on her desktop? Right now she can`t link a sql7 table to her access97 db. Thanks.
I'm having problems seeing the correct data type when linking my Access tables to MS SQL Server 2005. My varchar(max) fields are showing as text(255). I'm using the SQL Native Client.Has anyone else ssen this issue?
Something strange has happened to my table. I used Enterprise Manager today to delete 3 columns. When I went to re-link the table using Access Linked Table Manager, it gave me an error. I then deleted the link to the table, and tried to Link it again using 'Get External Data---Link Tables'. I am getting an error (no surprise!):
" 'dbo.tblSpaceUse.PK_RoomID' is not a valid name. Make sure that it does not include invalid characters or punctuation and that it is not too long".
When I go into Enterprise Manager to 'manage Indexes' on the table, it shows me that the existing index is in fact dbo.tblSpaceUse.PK_RoomID.
About a month ago, I had to rename the index, because it had been pointing to the wrong table. The SQL I used to rename it (in Query Analyzer) is: EXEC sp_rename 'dbo.tblSpaceUse.PK_RoomID', 'tblSpaceUse.PK_RoomID', 'INDEX'
I have been using the table successfully since then, until today. I have not done anything with the index; the only change I attempted was to delete 3 columns (not related to the index). I do not think I have made any changes to the table since I renamed the index.
I tried to run the rename SQL again (a desperate attempt!) and get the error message: Server: Msg 15248, Level 11, State 1, Procedure sp_rename, Line 192 Either the parameter @objname is ambiguous or the claimed @objtype (INDEX) is wrong.
Any ideas on what went wrong and what I can do to fix it???
I am using SQL 2008 r2. I have two SQL Queries from 2 different database but they share one server. I need to linked these two SQL Queries as they share the same Primary key which CustomerID see example below
Query 1
Database::Student Select StudentID , FName, LName From Student
Query 2
Database ::Finance Select StudentID,Tution FROM Payment
I need to be able combine two query which come from two database but they share one server.I would like to use two temp tables so that I can perform a left / right join to retrieve the data by linking two queries using primary id which they both share ( StudentID)
Summary : I have two DB's on the same server. I have two simple select queries for each DB which work correctly.
I have a table 'Group2Operation' that stores many to many relationsbetween the 'Group' table and the 'Operation' table (each group is haspermission to perform one or more of the available operations)PROBLEM=======I need to prevent duplicate entries being created. e.g. lets say thatin the 'Group2Operation' table a record links the 'editor' group tothe 'publish' operation. Should I prevent an administrator creating aduplicate of that record? (Otherwise deleting that permission willhave to be done twice or more for it to be effective)SOLUTION?=========So far I've done this with a trigger:CREATE TRIGGER Group2OperationDuplicates ON dbo.Group2OperationFOR INSERT, UPDATEAS UPDATE Group2OperationSET NoDuplicate = CONVERT(nvarchar(10),GroupID) + OperationTagThe 'NoDuplicate' unique index column in the Group2Operation tablestores a concatenation of the unique group and operation identifiers.So when an attempt is made to create a record, the trigger is fired.If there is a duplicate, this will mean a duplicate entry in the'NoDuplicate' column. As a result, the INSERT or UPDATE will fail andthe duplication will be prevented.WHAT DO YOU THINK?==================What do you think? Am I going about this in the right way? Is atrigger a good way to do this or should I rely on application logic toprevent duplicates?Any help appreciated by this db novice.John Grist
Hi there, I just upsized my access database which has several tables and query linked to one of the tables residing on a seperate access database. When I do add in the diagram section, I see only table, then my question how would I be able to do the same thing under SQL Server 2005? thank you
I have an assignment where I am to create two tables within a database. One of the tables have the name ContactPerson with the attributes; ID, Forename, Surname, Email, PhoneNumber. The other table is called Company and has the attributes: ID, CompanyName.
Now my problem is that I have to link a ContactPerson to a specific company, but I can't have them in the same table.
I understand that I can use the join statement to show both tables in one query but I need the database to know which person is linked to which company when I implement this databse into my asp.net project.
The requirement is: I should allow single row delete from a table but not bulk delete. An audit table should get updated if there is any single delete or single update. So I wrote the triggers as follows: for single and bulk delete
ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[TRG_Delete_Bulk_tbl_attendance] ON [dbo].[tbl_attendance] AFTER DELETE AS
[code]...
When I try to run the website, the database error I am getting is:Transaction count after EXECUTE indicates that a COMMIT or ROLLBACK TRANSACTION statement is missing. Previous count = 0, current count = 1.
I have transaction table where the rows entered into the transactioncan come a result of changes that take place if four different tables.So the situation is as follows:Transaction Table-TranId-Calc AmountTable 1 (the amount is inserted into the transaction table)- Tb1Id- Tb1AmtTable 2 (an amount is calculated based on the percentage and insertedinto the transaction table)-Tbl2Id-Tb2PercentageTable 3 (the amount is inserted into the transaction table)-Tbl3Id-Tbl3AmutTable 4 (an amount is calculated based on the percentage and insertedinto the transaction table. )-Tbl2Id-Tb2PercentageHow do I create referential integrity between the Transaction table andthe rest of the tables. When I make changes to the values in Table 1 -4, I need to be able to reflect this in the Transaction table.Thanks.
I am modelling two fact tables of Actuals and Budget which are at different granularity, Actuals are at day, customer and product sub category level. Budgets are at month, Region and Product category level.
Month, Region and Product Category is present in Date, Region and Product Category dimension respectively. I have only three dimensions as Customer, Product and Date. Linking those dimensions to Actual Fact table is not an issue, what is the best way and options are there to link budget fact table to those three dimensions.
Hi can anyone help me with the format of my stored procedure below. I have two tables (Publication and PublicationAuthors). PublicaitonAuthors is the linking table containing foreign keys PublicaitonID and AuthorID. Seeming as one Publication can have many authors associated with it, i need the stored procedure to create the a single row in the publication table and then recognise that multiple authors need to be inserted into the linking table for that single PublicationID. For this i have a listbox with multiple selection =true. At the moment with the storedprocedure below it is creating two rows in PublicaitonID, and then inserting two rows into PublicationAuthors with only the first selected Author from the listbox??? Can anyone help???ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.StoredProcedureTest2 @publicationID Int=null,@typeID smallint=null, @title nvarchar(MAX)=null,@authorID smallint=null AS BEGIN TRANSACTION SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @ERROR Int --Create a new publication entry INSERT INTO Publication (typeID, title) VALUES (@typeID, @title) --Obtain the ID of the created publication SET @publicationID = @@IDENTITY SET @ERROR = @@ERROR --Create new entry in linking table PublicationAuthors INSERT INTO PublicationAuthors (publicationID, authorID) VALUES (@publicationID, @authorID) SET @ERROR = @@ERROR IF (@ERROR<>0) ROLLBACK TRANSACTION ELSE COMMIT TRANSACTION
Hi can anyone help me with the format of my stored procedure below. I have two tables (Publication and PublicationAuthors). PublicaitonAuthors is the linking table containing foreign keys PublicaitonID and AuthorID. Seeming as one Publication can have many authors associated with it, i need the stored procedure to create the a single row in the publication table and then recognise that multiple authors need to be inserted into the linking table for that single PublicationID. For this i have a listbox with multiple selection =true. At the moment with the storedprocedure below it is creating two rows in PublicaitonID, and then inserting two rows into PublicationAuthors with only the first selected Author from the listbox??? Can anyone help???ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.StoredProcedureTest2 @publicationID Int=null,@typeID smallint=null, @title nvarchar(MAX)=null,@authorID smallint=null AS BEGIN TRANSACTION SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @ERROR Int --Create a new publication entry INSERT INTO Publication (typeID, title) VALUES (@typeID, @title) --Obtain the ID of the created publication SET @publicationID = @@IDENTITY SET @ERROR = @@ERROR --Create new entry in linking table PublicationAuthors INSERT INTO PublicationAuthors (publicationID, authorID) VALUES (@publicationID, @authorID) SET @ERROR = @@ERROR IF (@ERROR<>0) ROLLBACK TRANSACTION ELSE COMMIT TRANSACTION
I have two tables that are related by keys. For instance,Table employee {last_name char(40) not null,first_name char(40) not null,department_name char(40) not null,age int not null,...}Employee table has a primary key (combination of last_name and first_name).Table address {last_name char(40) not null,first_name char(40) not null,street char(200) not null,city char(100) not null,...}Address table has a primary key (combination of last_name, first_name andstreet in which (last_name, first_name) reference (last_name, first_name) inemployee table.Now I want to delete some rows in Address table based on department_name inEmployee table. What is sql for this delete?I appreciate your help. Please ignore table design and I just use it for myproblem illustration.Jim
I need to delete records from a table (Table1) which has a foreign key column in a related table (Table2).
Table1 columns are: table1Id; Name. Table2 columns include Table2.table1Id which is the foreign key to Table1.
What is the syntax to delete records from Table1 using Table1.Name='some name' and remove any records in Table2 that have Table2.table1Id equal to Table1.table1Id?
I have contract table which has built in foreign key constrains. How can I alter this table for delete/ update cascade without recreating the table so whenever studentId/ contactId is modified, the change is effected to the contract table.
Thanks
************************************************** ****** Contract table DDL is
create table contract( contractNum int identity(1,1) primary key, contractDate smalldatetime not null, tuition money not null, studentId char(4) not null foreign key references student (studentId), contactId int not null foreign key references contact (contactId) );
I have one table that has unique id's associated with each row of information. I want to delete rows of information in one table that have a unique ID that references information in another table.
Here is a basic breakdown of what I am trying to do:
Table1 (the table where the rows need to be deleted from) Column_x (Holds the id that is unique to the various rows of data - User ID)
Table2 (Holds the user information & has the associated ID) Column_z (holds the User ID)
I tried this on a test set of tables and could not get it to work. What I am trying to do is skip all rows of Table1 that have ID's present in Table2, and delete the rows of ID's that are not present in Table2.
Code:
SELECT Column_z FROM dbo.Table2 DELETE FROM dbo.Table1 WHERE Column_z <> Column_x
This did not seem to do what I needed, it did not delete any rows at all.
I wanted it to delete all rows in Table1 that did not have a reference to a user ID that matched any ID's in Column_z of Table2
Then I tried another scenerio that I also needed to do:
Code:
SELECT Column_z, Column_a FROM dbo.Table2 DELETE FROM dbo.Table1 WHERE Column_z = Column_x AND Column_a='0'
'0' being the user id is inactive so I wanted to delete rows in Table1 and remove all references to users that were in an inactive status in Table2.
Neither one of the Queries wanted to work for me in the Query Analyzer when I ran them. It just said (0) rows affected.
with actividades_secundarias as ( select a.*, r.Antigo, r.Novo, rn = row_number() over (PARTITION BY a.nif_antigo, r.novo ORDER BY a.nif_antigo) from ACT_SECUNDARIAS a inner join ((select
[Code] ....
I want to make a delete statement like this:
select * into #table1 from actvidades_secundarias where rn>1 Delete from act_secundarias where act_secundarias.nif_antigo = #table1.nif_antigo and act_secundarias.cod_cae = #table1.cod_cae
A table was created in version 6.5 that has 2 blank spaces and a slash '/' in it's name (i.e. Item Type w/Groups). This was done in error and now the table cannot be dropped or renamed and dropped.
Does anyone know how I can delete this table? Please let me know.
which one is smarter, where there is no indexing on the table which is really simple table delete everything or recreate table. I got an argument with one of my coworker. He says it doesnt matter i say do delete. Any opinions.
