I have a database table and it has a column called ttt_id which has an identity seed. Now the Id value is 2845746 and if I insert the new record the value would be 2845747. But I want to change that to 2865740 instead of 2845747. How can do that?
Thanks.
How can I change the value in a identity column? I cannot use update to change its value.
Thank you
Hey guys,
I have a content table with a field "[Content_ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL". I need to change the content id of some of the content because it was leaked into an xml feed and we want to stop people from accessing the content, is it possible to change/issue a new Id for a field that is set as "IDENTITY"?
Hey guys,
I have a content table with a field "[Content_ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL". I need to change the content id of some of the content because it was leaked into an xml feed and we want to stop people from accessing the content, is it possible to change/issue a new Id for a field that is set as "IDENTITY"?
Hi,
How to Change Increment Value for existing Identity Column (MS SQL2000) ?
I know how to change the seed :
DBCC CHECKIDENT (activity, RESEED,4233596)
but I need the future id generated with step 2
4233596
4233598
4233600
I would like to do it using T-sql because I will need to do it every day after syncronising with another SQL server .
Thanks,
Natalia
Dear Sir,
the following code is copied from the SQL Server Help Example.
CREATE TABLE MyCustomers2 (CustID INTEGER IDENTITY (100,1) PRIMARY KEY, CompanyName NvarChar (50))
INSERT INTO MyCustomers2 (CompanyName) VALUES ('A. Datum Corporation')
ALTER TABLE MyCustomers2 ALTER COLUMN CustId IDENTITY (200, 2)
It gives the following error.
Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 3
Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'IDENTITY'
Can U please guide me abt the error.
with regards,
wilfi
Is there anyway I can change Identity specification on column to yes ? and If I do that it supposed to take data as 1,2,3,4 like that?
But mine is not changing it's come up all data as 0. Is there any other way to do?
I have a set of staging tables that need to be used to update a hierarchy of tables with foreign keys between them, and identity columns for the primary keys. One way I'm thinking of doing this is to reset the identity seed on the target tables based on the number of rows I have in the staging tables, then to update the staging tables keys to match the vacated range of identity values. I'd insert them with SET IDENTITY_INSERT ON.
The question is: can this be done atomically? It seems that DBCC CHECKIDENT will return the current identity value, but can only change the seed to an absolute value. That would require that I get the current value, add "n" to it, then set the seed value. This would seem to be non-atomic, in that a new row could be inserted between the time I find the "current" value and the time I set the new value.
Does anyone know of a way to pre-allocate a block of identity values atomically? This has to be done in a live OLTB database.
Hi, I want to change an int column (not null) to identity column. I tried
the following:
alter table myTable alter column ID int identity(10, 1) not null
But it failed with the error message:
Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'identity'.
Can someone please show me the correct statement (if it exists)>
Many thanks.
I have a table named PERSON and a field named PERSON_ID. How can I set this field to Autonumber? I know I have to use the IDENTITY command, but when I view this field in "design" view, all the IDENTITY options are grayed out.
How can I set this field with the IDENTITY properties?
Thanks
While I have learned a lot from this thread I am still basically confused about the issues involved.
.I wanted to INSERT a record in a parent table, get the Identity back and use it in a child table. Seems simple.
To my knowledge, mine would be the only process running that would update these tables. I was told that there is no guarantee, because the OLEDB provider could write the second destination row before the first, that the proper parent-child relationship would be generated as expected. It was recommended that I create my own variable in memory to hold the Identity value and use that in my SSIS package.
1. A simple example SSIS .dts example illustrating the approach of using a variable for identity would be helpful.
2. Suppose I actually had two processes updating these tables, running at the same time. Then it seems the "variable" method will also have its problems. Is there a final solution other than locking the tables involved prior to updating them or doing something crazy like using a GUID for the primary key!
3. We have done the type of parent-child inserts I originally described from t-sql for years without any apparent problems. (Maybe we were just lucky.) Is the entire issue simply a t-sql one or does SSIS add a layer of complexity beyond t-sql that needs to be addressed?
TIA,
Barkingdog
I want to insert a new record into a table with an Identity field and return the new Identify field value back to the data stream (for later insertion as a foreign key in another table).
What is the most direct way to do this in SSIS?
TIA,
barkingdog
P.S. Or should I pass the identity value back in a variable and not make it part of the data stream?
I have table of three column first column is an ID column. However at creation of the table i have not set this column to auto increment. Then i have copied 50 rows in another table to this table then set the ID column values to zero.
Now I have changed the ID column to auto increment seed=1 increment=1 but the problem is i couldn't figure out how to update this ID column with zero value set to each row with this auto increment values so the ID column would have values from 1-50. Is there a away to do this?
Ok,I just need to know how to get the last record inserted by the highestIDENTITY number. Even if the computer was rebooted and it was twoweeks ago. (Does not have to do with the session).Any help is appreciated.Thanks,Trint
View 2 Replies View RelatedTrying to determine what the minimum permissions i can grant to a user so they can see the change tracking data
View 1 Replies View RelatedHi,
I am having problem in bulk update of a sql server table haning identity column from a datatable( has no identity column) using sqlbulkcopy. I tried several approaches, but it does not show any error nor is the table getting updated. But the identity value seems to getting increased every time.
thanks.
varun
I'm working with a third-party database (SQL Server 2005) and the problem here is the following:
- There are a bunch of ETL processes that needs to insert rows on a table (let's call this table T) and at the same time, an ERP (owner of T) is up and running (reading, updating and inserting on T).
- The PK of T is an Integer.
Today all ETL processes uses (select max(ID) + 1 from T) to insert new rows, so just picture the scenario. It is a mess! Everyday they get duplicate key error when 2 or more concurrent processes are trying to insert a row (with the max) at the same time.
Considering that I can't change the PK, what is the best approach to solve this problem?
To sum up:
* I need to have processes in parallel inserting on T
* I can't change anything on T
* The PK is NOT an Identity
We ran into weird/interesting issue with below details.
Version: Microsoft SQL Server 2012 (SP1) - 11.0.3000.0 (X64) Standard Edition (64-bit) on Windows NT 6.2 <X64> (Build 9200):
We are using SQLCMD to run DDL script on our product database in below order. That script has below content.
step # 1 - database collation change (case -sensitive) statement as very first statement of the script
step # 2 - Actual DDL SQL statements
step # 3 - database collation change back to original (case insensitive)
When we execute all above 3 steps in single script using SQLCMD on our test_server#1 , it is successful but when same is being implemented on test_ server#2 , it is failing.We ensured that there is no other user accessing the db and setting on both the server are all default/basic. Separating out all 3 steps in 3 different script working fine. This is only problem when we combine them into single script and fire it using SQLCMD. If it is something related to session/transaction then we should hit same issue on our test_server#1 server as well but that is not the case.test_server#1 and test_server#2 has exact same database/data, just two different physical machine & SQL Server instance.
when i alter non identity column to identity column using this Query alter table testid alter column test int identity(1,1) then i got this error message Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 3 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'identity'.
View 2 Replies View Relatedi have found loads of topics on this but have yet to find one that gives the answer i need.I want to display the last insert id into a label/textbox after the INSERT functionhow do i do this?
View 18 Replies View RelatedI got two tables
one table has the fields ie table1
orderid ofd orderdate customername
where order id is autonumber
the other table2
orderid ofd product id productname
the problem here is thatif customer purchases 3 product at a time all the 3 products get the same ofd number ........and any 2 customers can have the same ofd number................ now i have to pull the order ID value from table 1 to table 2............ can somebody help with this i am the front end is asp.net amd the database is done on SQL server management studio
Hi, I was looking through this thread about @@Identity: http://forums.asp.net/p/1039145/1443971.aspx#1443971 I'm still unsure how to ue it. I have an Orders table, a Products table and a Products_Orders table. When I add an order to the Orders table I want the PK OrderID in this table to also update the FK OrderID in my Products_Orders table. I'm using SQL EXP05 and I'm in C#.
View 1 Replies View RelatedHi i want to get the naxt identity number how can i get it pls help me very urgent
View 3 Replies View RelatedI know identity key in a table can cause problems when the table is replicated. Should we avoid using identity key altogether, if we don't know in advance whether replication will come into the picture?
Thanks for any advice.
hello,
I've got a problem reading the @@identity in vb.net
I tried it the way below and get the error: Public member 'EOF' on type 'Integer' not found.
(--> means with rsLastIdent)
comm_user = "SET NOCOUNT ON; INSERT INTO user (firstname, lastname, company, emailAddress) VALUES ...); SELECT @@IDENTITY AS Ident;"
comm = new SqlCommand(comm_user, dbConnection)
dbConnection.Open()
Try
rsLastIdent = comm.ExecuteNonQuery()
Catch ex As Exception
Response.Write("Exception:")
Response.Write(ex.ToString)
End Try
if NOT rsLastIdent.EOF then
feed_userID = rsLastIdent.Fields.Item("Ident").Value
end if
The sql-statement is correct - I tried it on SQL Server and got the correct result, so something is wrong with my vb.net code...
Please can anybody help me and tell me how to declare my rsLastIdent or another way to code it in vb.net to get the @@identity?
Thanks a lot!
tim
hi,
I was wondering if someone could help me out with this stored procedure I have. I am trying to execute a transaction in one of my sps and am getting pk violations on 'OrderID'.
This where i encounter this error:
SELECT
@OrderID = @@Identity
/* Copy items from given shopping cart to OrdersDetail table for given OrderID*/
INSERT INTO OrderDetails
(
OrderID,
ProductID,
Quantity,
UnitCost
)
SELECT
@OrderID,
ShoppingCart.ProductID,
ShoppingCart.Quantity,
Prices.UnitCost
FROM
ShoppingCart INNER JOIN
Prices ON ShoppingCart.ProductID = Prices.ProductID
WHERE
CartID = @CartID
is there any way to rewrite this statement so that I can put it in the form insert()values(). ?
HiTrying to get a return value from this code, but only gets a 0. Am using SQLExpress.SqlParameter[] p = new SqlParameter[4];p[0] = new SqlParameter("@a", "aaa");p[1] = new SqlParameter("@b", "bbb");p[2] = new SqlParameter("@c", "ccc");p[3] = new SqlParameter("@d", SqlDbType.Int, 40);p[3].Direction = ParameterDirection.ReturnValue;
string s = @"set nocount on INSERT INTO ABC(A, B, C) VALUES(@a,@b,@c) SELECT scope_identity()";
using(SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(this._connection)){ conn.Open(); SqlHelper.ExecuteNonQuery(conn, CommandType.Text, s, p); int foo = p[3].Value;}
Hi all,
is there a way in SQL Server for me to get the next available Identity value from an Identity column?
(I don't want to perform an insert, and then get the identity through @@IDENTITY!)
Thanks
Tryst
I am trying to follow other examples I have seen on the site, and am still getting the
Must declare the scalar variable "@@INDENTITY".
string sqlAdd = string.Format("INSERT INTO " + siteCode + "_campaign_table (campaign_name, prod_id, type) "
+ "VALUES('{0}', '{1}', '{2}'); SELECT @@INDENTITY", campaignName, prodID, type);
SqlCommand comAdd = new SqlCommand(sqlAdd, con);
comAdd.CommandType = CommandType.Text;
con.Open();
//comAdd.ExecuteNonQuery();
int identity;
identity = Decimal.ToInt32((decimal)comAdd.ExecuteScalar());
lblErrorMessageAdd.Text = identity.ToString();
con.Close();
Is it possible to use the ALTER TABLE statment when modifying an INT field to be an IDENTITY.
thanks in advance.
I would like to know the best way to select/maintain a sequence number in SQL Server. I've seen locking problems with using the @@identity and was wondering if there is a better way.
Several of our applications have the need to generate a sequence number that is inserted into one or several tables. In one application they have done the following ...
- Created a table with a column defined with identity attribute, for example
TableA
ColA defined as Int with Identity checked
ColB define as char(20)
- In the application, code looks like to get the sequence number:
insert into tableA (ColB, 'anything');
select (@@identity) as sequence from TableA
Then the last 5 positions of sequence are used to insert into another table. Problem with this is that several rows are being created in tableA when only a sequence number is needed. Also, we need to make sure no one else does an insert before the select @@identity.
Another approach I'm thinking about would be to create a one row table that contains an integer field initialized with a value of 1. To select/update the sequence number the code would need to:
set transaction serializable
select number
from tableA UPDLOCK
update tableA
set number = number + 1
How are most people generating a sequence number in SQL Server? In Oracle this would be done by selecting sequence.nextval. For example:
Select sequenceA.nextval from dual;
Is there an equivalent way in SQL Server 7.0? Thanks.
Hi,
Is there a way, I can give access(not dbo or sa) to a person so they can bcp into tables that have identity columns? I want to be able to give permissions ahead so I do not have to bother setting the identity insert on every time he wants to bcp.
Thanks a lot for your help
Sasha
I'm successfully inserting into a db using a stored proc, but I need to replicate the ClientID to 10 other tables. For some reason, this one is escaping me.
After a successful insert, I then use:
SELECT @@IDENTITY ClientID
SELECT @ClientID = @@IDENTITY
INSERT INTO table2
(ClientID)
VALUES(@ClientID)
INSERT INTO table3
(ClientID)
VALUES(@ClientID)
INSERT INTO table4
(ClientID)
VALUES(@ClientID)
The insert ClientID into the other tables is being inserted. I added SET @ClientID = @@IDENTITY and it made no difference.
Thanks for the help.
Alan