How To Create An Object Without Being The Owner Of The Schema
Apr 6, 2006
Hi
I have a schema called Accounts owned by fred
User bob has create procedure permission as follows:
grant create procedure to bob
bob would like to create a procedure in schema Accounts.
When he issues create proc Accounts.sp_proc.... it fails with:
Msg 2760, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_proc, Line 3
The specified schema name "Accounts" either does not exist or you do not have permission to use it.
What permission do I need to grant bob in order to allow this?
I have the same database(3GB) in 2 physical locations in usa and europe
I need to create a publisher and subscriber between these 2 database without sending any snapshot because i have the same data in the 2 sides, is it possible ?
Hi There,This is related to a ms access database but since I use the SqlDataSource control I thought I should post here.I have a project that I was working on with this ms access db and using sql controls, everything was working just finesince one day I started getting "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" messages when I try to designa query or retrieve a schema, nothing works at design time anymore but at runtime everything is perfect, its a lotof work for me now to create columns,schemas and everything manually, I've tried reinstalling visualstudio, ado componentsbut nothing seems to fix it, did this ever happen to any of you guys?any tip is really appreciated thanks a lot
I have created a sql login account called "webuser" and has given public role in my database. In my asp.net application i build connection string using above account and its password . We give permission on store procedure for for the above account to execute .We dont give table level permission for the above account . When we run the application with the above settings it runs fine on test server . However Now i have transfered the databse object to live server with its permissions . Now while I executing the aspx page , I am getting above error . I have checked that the store procedure has execute permission for webuser account and dbo(i.e SA) has all the permissions for all database objects . Still why i am getting error ? (Please note , the thing is working fine in test server)
I am merging two databases and created two different schemas to contain the objects in the new DB. I would like the objects in both schemas to be visible to one user but I can't figure out how to make this happen. I thought I could just set the Owner of the schemas to the same User but that didn't work. At the moment, the User default schema is set to dbo. I would like the default to be both schemas but this isn't an option.
Is there any way to have multiple schema objects visible to a single user? Thanks!
I have a schema/user called mstp who has tables in another schema/user. How do I prevent the mstp user from seeing those tables/data that do not belong to their schema?
example:
database xxxx has tables som.employees and mstp.employees The mstp user should only allowed access to mstp.employees and nothing else.
I have a database that has been upgraded from SQL 200 to 2005. The database was owned by 'Joe' and all objects were also owned by 'Joe'. In SQL 2000 when Joe logged in he could simply issue 'select * from table' and would get results.
The upgraded db now has a user Joe and a schema Joe. All objects now belong to the schema Joe. Joe the user has his default schema set to Joe and he is the owner of the schema. When Joe logs in and tries to 'select * from table' he gets an invalid object. He can 'select * from joe.table'.
How can I set it up so that the objects are still owned by the schema Joe and a simple 'select * from table' works when user Joe logs in? I was convinced that is he owned the schema and this was his default schema it should work.
Greetings,I read msdn article and has the following:Transferring ownership of a view to the schema owner The following example transfers ownership the view ProductionView06 to the owner of the schema that contains it. The view is located inside schema Production. ALTER AUTHORIZATION ON OBJECT::Production.ProductionView06 TO SCHEMA OWNER;GOso what i understand that i can create an object within a schema that has a different owner from the owner of the schema!!!is this true ? so if if it is true so what the benefits to create an object within a schema that has a different owner from the owner of the schema.?your help is highly appreciatedbest regards
When reverse engineering a SQL Server 2005 database (using VS 2007 Professional), I can't figure out a way to display the schema name in front of the table name in the database diagram. For instance, If I have a table named Person.Type, it just comes over as Type. It knows what the schema is because it's in the properties box for that object. It just doesn't appear in the name on the shape itself. Is there a setting somewhere that I'm missing that will display the schema in the name?
I am currently migrating from Oracle to MS SQL Server 2005 using SSIS. Since the new schema being used on the SQL Server is very different, we have created separate packages for each target table.
We have several different sets of data stored as separate Oracle schemas, and I would now like to change to a different schema for the OLE DB Source objects in my packages to use (Table/column names to remain the same). While I can go through all packages and search through the drop-down list to select the table of the same name from other Schema, doing so is an extremely slow process.
Is it possible to use configuration files to set a schema to be used for a number of OLE DB Sources over a number of packages?
At the moment I am doing a find and replace over the .dtsx files, but can't believe I have to resort to this for something that I imagine many people would want to do with SSIS.
One of our databases has at some point in its dark past had the owner of the guest schema changed to be a named user, rather than the default guest user. Correcting this feels like it would be easy enough by running the following...
ALTER AUTHORIZATION ON SCHEMA::guest TO guest but that results in.. Msg 15150, Level 16, State 2, Line 3 Cannot alter the schema 'guest'.
I realise the guest schema is a special one, and cannot be dropped, but I'm not trying to do that. End goal is to export the database to a SQL Azure DB, and this guest schema assignment is blocking that process from completing.
There is a database with 200 tables for owned by userA and another 200 similar tables owned by another userB. How can I drop all the tables owned by userA in a transaction by querying on system table. I need the syntax giving the name of the system table etc.Any help is highly appreciated. Thanks!
I have a few questions about SQL 7.0 user permission.
(1) Is there any way that a DB user (not sa) can create a table whose owner is dbo? I tried to set the user as a member of db_owner, but the table still had the user's name instead of dbo.
(2) What does it mean to have the sysusers.isaliased column with value 1 for a DB user? Such username always shows up with prefix "". How can I set a DB user this way?
Although I am in the DBO role, whenever I create an object I am put in as the object owner. For the way our database is set up, all of our objects are owned by DBO, and it can be a pain to have to remember to set the owner when creating an object. In 6.5, if you were aliased as dbo, all objects you created were owned by dbo. This is the functionality I'm looking for.
Is there any way to have dbo be the default owner of an object when it is created? Again, I am in the dbo role.
We have SQL2000 and generally each user uses Windows authentication for their Enterprise Manager connections. When developers create tables, I would like them all to show DBO as the owner (DBO.TABLEA), not JOE.TABLEA.
I'm probably forgetting something basic, but right now I'm stumped.We are moving a database to a new server. bcp'd out the loginaccounts and bcp'd them into the new server. Restored the databasebackup and everything was working fine yesterday testing out theapplication -- this is a 3rd party application, not an in-house appand database.Today, the application server can't start. The log file shows that itdoesn't see a table. I recognize the table as one of the tables notowned by dbo (3rd party, not my doing). I double check the value ofsysxlogins.sid and sysusers.sid, and sysusers.uid and sysobjects.uidand everything matches ok.If I log into Query Analyzer as the application user and select fromthe table, I see the same error. If I use ownername.tablename whereownername is the same as the login name I am using, then it worksfine. It's like SQL Server isn't recognizing the account as being thesame as the object owner.I ran sp_changeobjectowner to change ownership to dbo and then ran itagain to change it back to the application account, and it still actslike the object owner is not the object owner.The quick solution was to change all objects to be owned by dbo -- Ichecked with the vendor to make sure they didn't have any objections.But I really would like to figure out why it was happening.Has anyone had this problem? And, if so, did you know what I'mmissing?ThanksTeresa
Using SQL Server 7.0Trying to change an objects ownership to dbo withEXEC sp_changeobjectowner 'AssignInvoiceNumbers', 'dbo'which gives the following error:Server: Msg 15001, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_changeobjectowner,Line 26AssignInvoiceNumbers does not exist.which it does.Any help would be greatly appreciated--Nath(Email mangling obvious)*** Sent via Developersdex http://www.developersdex.com ***Don't just participate in USENET...get rewarded for it!
Hi there,We have a user name convention here that specifies users in thefollowing way:jane.doejohn.smithIn order to change a database object I must specify the owner name alongwith the object name. Does anyone know the proper syntax for doing thiswith a user name that contains a period? When I put the user namefollowed by the object name in quotes such as 'jane.doe.tb_test_table',SQL Server can not find the object.Any help is appreciated.Kelly
I have SQL Server 2005 database, and have linked it with three SQL Server 2000 databases, and using Windows Authentication.
I'm using ASP.NET with my main database (SQL Native Client), which is authenticating to the linked databases with the computer hostname (DOMAINCOMPUTER$) credential, which is all working fine on all databases for doing SELECT queries.
However, now I'm trying to run a stored procedure on the linked databases. Two of the three databases are working flawlessly in this regard, but the third I'm getting the error: EXECUTE permission denied... I've checked the logs, and it's showing the connection as being trusted, and I've already added the execute permission for the stored procedure in question, but I'm not getting anywhere.
I have restarted the database server, but that hasn't helped any.
hi,I use DataGrid in name UserTable.I use this code: SqlCon.Open() UserTable.DataSource = SqlCom.ExecuteReader(System.Data.CommandBehavior.CloseConnection) UserTable.DataBind()and i get this error: EXECUTE permission denied on object 'Test', database 'DI', owner 'dbo'I craete stored prcedure in name Test with the simple SQL code:CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[Test] ASselect Users.*from UsersGOIf instead i put the SQL code : select Users.* from Usersin my command as a text i get the error : SELECT permission denied on object 'Users', database 'DI', owner 'dbo'i have already create a local premmision for my DB & tables as MYMACHINE/ASPNETHow i can solve this problem?Thanks, Moshe
Just installed VS 2005 & SQLServer 2005 clients on my workstation. When trying to create a new Integration Services Project and start work in the designer receive the MICROSOFT VISUAL STUDIO 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object.' dialog box with message "Creating project 'Integration Services project1'...project creation failed."
Previously I had SQLServer 2000 client with the little VS tool that came with it installed. Uninstalled these prior to installing the 2005 tools (VS and SQLServer).
I'm not finding any information on corrective action for this error.
Hi!I have a problem. i have created a website with a login page, i have moved all my aspnetdb tables to my remote host. but when iam trying to logon i get this error messages. EXECUTE permission denied on object 'aspnet_CheckSchemaVersion', database 'dbname', owner 'dbo'. Someone? I really need help...
I just installed this application on my new server and I get this error for each object in the database including the tables and the stored procedures. I have been going in for each one and opening the properties and then going to permissions and making the changes for each one. Is there a way to do this for the entire database at once? Thanks
I want to send email using sql stored procedure.my code is work fine in my local sqlserver account. when I use my online sql server it display this error. EXECUTE permission denied on object 'sp_OACreate', database 'master', owner 'dbo'. EXECUTE permission denied on object 'sp_OASetProperty', database 'master', owner 'dbo'. EXECUTE permission denied on object 'sp_OAMethod', database 'master', owner 'dbo'. EXECUTE permission denied on object 'sp_OADestroy', database 'master', owner 'dbo'. How canI solove this problem?
I want to send email using sql stored procedure.my code is work fine in my local sqlserver account. when I use my online sql server it display this error.
EXECUTE permission denied on object 'sp_OACreate', database 'master', owner 'dbo'.
EXECUTE permission denied on object 'sp_OASetProperty', database 'master', owner 'dbo'.
EXECUTE permission denied on object 'sp_OAMethod', database 'master', owner 'dbo'.
EXECUTE permission denied on object 'sp_OADestroy', database 'master', owner 'dbo'.
I am having this issue with my application developed in VB.Net. The thing was working properly for the last couple of years. But suddenly it is giving me this error message when ever I try to execute the following code.
mycommand = New SqlCommand(sqlstr, SqlConnection1)
SqlConnection1.Open()
mycommand.ExecuteReader()
The operation is never related to sending e-mail and even the master Database, it is used just to display records on grid.
Here is the error message comeing out when it reaches the mycommand.ExecuteReader():
EXECUTE permission denied on object 'xp_startmail', database 'master', owner 'dbo'.
When I am trying to drop a user using following statement
--First remove access from all databases Set @SQL = ' USE [?]; if ''' + @login_name + ''' in (Select name from sysusers ) EXEC [?].dbo.sp_revokedbaccess @name_in_db = N''' + @login_name + '''; ' Exec sp_msforeachdb @SQL Print 'Access Removed.'
User has been dropped from current database. User has been dropped from current database. Access Removed. No permission to access database 'model'. Server: Msg 229, Level 14, State 5, Line 1 SELECT permission denied on object 'sysjobs', database 'msdb', owner 'dbo'.
Login dropped.
The SQL Version I am using is ------------------------------------------- Microsoft SQL Server 2000 - 8.00.2039 (Intel X86) May 3 2005 23:18:38 Copyright (c) 1988-2003 Microsoft Corporation Enterprise Edition on Windows NT 5.2 (Build 3790: Service Pack 2)
I am running a C# asp.met application which most of the application is running ok but several of my aspx. pages are giving me this error. I am currentyly running MS-SQL 2005 Dev ed. using VS.net 2005. I have turned on access in role to everything and still am getting this error. can someone help me please?
hay there...i'm developing a website using visual studio 2005, when i run it from VS it works fine and it can access the DB.but when i make an alias and run it directly from localhost ..i keep getting this message when i try to fill a DATASET ..Line 198: cmd.CommandText = "Select Line From Buses";Line 199: da.SelectCommand = cmd; Line 200: da.Fill(ds);can anyone help me ?thanx
I wihsh to discuss whether to use fully qualified names:[database].[schema].objectof objects to operate (create, query..) on is good or not?If someone change order of sql code blocks in my script - this may causelose of it's context (like: use master / use <mydb>..). I wish to have mysript independed on changes like this and always produce correct result.Does using full name make use of 'use <db>' statement unnecessary?
