Hi all,
I need to update my SQL Server 2000 tables with rows from an Oracle table. Using a DTS package, how can I get only rows from the Oracle table that have a date value greater than the maximum date from the SQL Server table?
Thanks
Henok
I imported a SQL Table into SQL DataBase, But I can not update this table even with SQL Server management Studio
When I change any data on mentioned table above, Red exclamation sign appears left of the record .
How can I correct this problem?
Thanks.
I am trying to use a stored procedure to update a column in a sql table using the value from a variable table I getting errors because my syntax is not correct. I think table aliases are not allowed in UPDATE statements.
This is my statement:
UPDATE [dbo].[sessions_teams] stc
SET stc.[Talks] = fmt.found_talks_type
FROM @Find_Missing_Talks fmt
WHERE stc.sessionid IN (SELECT sessionid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks)
AND stc.coupleid IN (SELECT coupleid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks)
Here is the sample data for table.
create table #sample (emp varchar(max),data1 varchar(max),data2 varchar(max), Rdate date)
insert into #sample (emp,data1,data2,rdate)
values('john','','',getdate())
insert into #sample (emp,data1,data2,rdate)
values('tony','','',getdate())
[Code] ...
I need to update the data1, data2 from yesterday or before but they should be non blank and non null and update to todays data.
It means, I can't update to 2015-03-12 values to 2015-03-13, as they are blanks or nulls.
So I need to go 2015-03-11 and check the values, if they are not blank , i need to update with todays values.
Before the update :
empdata1data2Rdate
john3/13/2015
tony3/13/2015
john3/12/2015
tony3/12/2015
johncd3/11/2015
tonyab3/11/2015
After the update:
empdata1data2Rdate
johncd3/13/2015
tonyab3/13/2015
john3/12/2015
tony3/12/2015
johncd3/11/2015
tonyab3/11/2015
I have a scenario where I have to Update a table with date when there are new records in another table
For example:
I load ODS table with the data from a file in SSIS. the file has CustomerID and other columns.
Now, when there is new record for any customerID in Ods, then Update the dbo table with the most recent record for every CustomerID(i.e. update the date column in dbo for that customerID). Also Include an Identifier that relates back to the ODS table. How do I do this?
To avoid locking/blocking, or in transaction scope, we are trying make a common practice of writing coide for update commands in our all SPs based on primary key columns in where clause. I have a following scenario...
UPDATE [dbo].[TL_CST_Locker_Issuance] SET
[isActive] = 0
WHERE
LockerIssuanceId IN (SELECT LockerIssuanceId
[Code] ...
What is the better approach and should be followed to avoid locks and gain performance or best approach.
I need to update the AcquiredFrom table from source_office table. both the tables are from different database and server. we can match them on Code and source code. Initially if we can find out the discrepancies and then how can we fix them. Also there might be some dealerships that would have to be added to acquiredfrom table from the source_office table if they are not there already.
Table 1 (AcquiredFrom) database (Service) Server(FS3)
Select Code, Name, ContactName, AddLine1, AddLine2, city, state, zip, PhoneNumber
FROM [dbo].[AcquiredFrom]
Order by Code
Table 2 (source_office) database (DCP_PROD) Server (DPROSQL)
Select source_code, name, addr1, addr2, city, state_id, zip, phone FROM [dbo].[source_office]
order by source_code
Hi,I have table with three columns as belowtable name:expNo(int) name(char) refno(int)I have data as belowNo name refno1 a2 b3 cI need to update the refno with no values I write a query as belowupdate exp set refno=(select no from exp)when i run the query i got error asSubquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when thesubquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used asan expression.I need to update one colum with other column value.What is the correct query for this ?Thanks,Mani
View 3 Replies View RelatedWe have a database on a 2005 box, which we need to keep in sync with one on a 2014 box (until we can turn off the one on 2005). The 2005 database is still being updated with changes that must be applied to the 2014 database, given the nature of the data (medical documents) we need to ensure updates are applied to the 2014 database in very near real time (these changes are - for example - statuses, not the documents themselves).
Cunning plan #1, ulgy - not at all a fan of triggers - but use an after update trigger to run a sp on the remote box via a linked server in this format, with a SQL Server login for the linked server with permissions to EXEC the remote proc.
CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[SourceUpdate] ON [dbo].[SourceTable]
AFTER UPDATE
AS
SET XACT_ABORT ON;
SET NOCOUNT ON;
IF UPDATE(ColumnName)
[Code] ....
However, while the sp can be run against the linked server as a standalone query OK, when running it in a trigger it's throwing
OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "WIBBLE" returned message "The transaction manager has disabled its support for remote/network transactions.".
Msg 7391, Level 16, State 2, Procedure TheAfterUpdateTrigger, Line 19
The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "WIBBLE" was unable to begin a distributed transaction.
Whether it actually possible to call a proc on a remote box via a trigger and if so what additional hoops need to be jumped through (like I said, it'll run OK called via SSMS)?
I wrote query to update id int(1,1) to some value but its not giving me the result. Is it not possible to update id on the table.
View 7 Replies View Related
Hi
I have a scheduled job trying to update a whole SQL table daily .
The way i can think of is drop the table everyday and create it again
I cant figure out how to use the update statement
Can some one help me with the update statement
hi all,
i want to update two tables using join . i'm also using stored procedure . also i'm using sql server 2005. i 've written a stored procedure but i'm getting errors.
here is my code and error:
create proc bannersupdate(@bannerid int,@bannername varchar(100),@entereddate varchar(10),@validfromdate datetime,@validtodate datetime,@imagesize varchar(20),@imageweight smallint,@imageurl varchar(200))
as
begin
update Banner.BannerName,Banner.EnteredDate,Banner.ValidFromDate,Banner.ValidToDate,BannerImage.ImageSize,BannerImage.ImageWeight,BannerImage.ImageURL
set Banner.BannerName=@bannername,Banner.EnteredDate=@entereddate,Banner.ValidFromDate=@validfromdate,Banner.ValidToDate=@validtodate,BannerImage.ImageSize=@imagesize,BannerImage.ImageWeight=@imageweight,BannerImage.ImageURL=@imageurl
from Banner join BannerImage on Banner.BannerID=BannerImage.BannerID where Banner.BannerID=@bannerid
end
Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Procedure bannersupdate, Line 4
Incorrect syntax near ','.
any one who knows how to solve this plese send me the correct code..
thanks
swapna
my table payment_details structure is
payment_id payment_code
1 null
2 null
3 null
4 null
here payment_id is a primary key and i need to update the whole payment_id column to payment_code column.so i just tried the below query
update payment_details
set payment_code = payment_no
where payment_code is null
but it shows subquery error?
To see where is the problem I am trying to count rows in the database.First I create a table A with 2 columns namely tablename, rowbefore and rowafter and I insert records in it as below.
INSERT INTO A
SELECT TableName = o.name, '', Rows = max(i.rows) FROM sysobjects o
INNER JOIN sysindexes i ON o.id = i.id
WHERE xtype = 'u' AND OBJECTPROPERTY(o.id,N'IsUserTable') = 1
GROUP BY o.name
ORDER BY o.name
Then I update rowbefore with rowafter as below.
UPDATE A SET rowbefore = rowafter
Now I launch my application with update records in the database.Then I am trying to update rowafter with new records as below.
UPDATE A
SET rowafter = (SELECT max(sysindexes.rows) FROM sysobjects
INNER JOIN sysindexes ON sysobjects.id = sysindexes.id
WHERE xtype = 'u' AND OBJECTPROPERTY(sysobjects.id,N'IsUserTable') = 1 AND A.tablename = sysobjects.name)
Does this update really update my column rowafter or not?
I have run into a perplexing issue with how to UPDATE some rows in my table correctly.I have a Appointment table which has Appointment Times and a Appointment Names. However the Name is only showing on the Appt start Time line. I need it to show for its duration. So for example in my DDL Morning Appt only shows on at 8:00 I need it to show one each line until the next Appt Starts and so on. In this case Morning Appt should show at 8:00,8:15, 8:30.
CREATE TABLE #TEST ( ApptTime TIME, ApptName VARCHAR (20), DURATION TINYINT)
INSERT INTO #TEST VALUES ('8:00', 'Morning Appt', 45), ('8:15', NULL, NULL),('8:30', NULL,NULL),('8:45', 'Brunch Appt', 45),('9:00', NULL,NULL),('9:15', NULL,NULL),
('9:30', 'Afternoon Appt', 30),('9:45', NULL,NULL),('10:00', NULL,NULL).
I need to update the Denominator column in one row with the value from the Numerator column in a different row. For example the last row in the table is
c010A92NULL
I need to update the Denominator, which is currently NULL, with the value from the Numerator where the MeasureID=c001 and GroupID=A.
This value is 668 so, the row should look like
c010A92668
create table dbo.TEST
(
MeasureID varchar(10),
GroupID char(1),
Numerator float,
Denominator float
)
[Code] .....
I have some stored procedures that do updates using table aliases, like this:
UPDATE TableAlias
SET ColVal = 1
FROM RealTable AS TableAlias
WHERE TableAlias.ColVal <> 1
This allows me to include joins and stuff in the update (not shown) and make it all more readable for me.
It all works fine, and the SSMS parser says it's fine. But I also have another script which looks at sys.sql_expression_dependencies and sys.objects to find stored procedures with invalid object references (see below), and it's understandably saying that all of the above type stored procedures have invalid references.
SELECT
OBJECT_NAME(DEP.referencing_id) AS referencing_name,
DEP.referenced_entity_name
FROM sys.sql_expression_dependencies AS DEP
WHERE
-- Only validate local references:
(
DEP.referenced_database_name = DB_NAME()
[Code] ....
So I have a couple questions.
1. Is the UPDATE syntax I'm using kosher?
2. Can you recommend any updates to my stored procedure validation script that will better accommodate table aliases like mine?
I posted this question a little while ago but was not able to implement it. Now I am back to the same issue. Basically I want to get a recordcount from a table in Oracle and update an existing record in sql server with the value.
I am trying to accomplish this using a Execute SQL Task. In this task I am pointing to a Oracle DB that I am able to query from SSIS so connectivity is not an issue.
I have defined a variable EmpRC of type int32.
I have a following the the SQL Task:
query: select count(*) from emp;
result set=single row.
and on result set tab ResultName =0 and variable name is same defined above : User::EmpRC
I get an error when I run this:
[Execute SQL Task] Error: An error occurred while assigning a value to variable "EmpCompRC": "Unsupported data type on result set binding 0.".
I have tried using different data types for EmpRC but having no luck. any ideas?
We have 2 instances. One is sqlgpscluster and another is [sqlcdsclustersqlcds]. We have created linked server between sqlgpscluster and [sqlcdsclustersqlcds]. We run the below query on sqlgpscluster instance
UPDATE [sqlcdsclustersqlcds].CDSBusiness.dbo.tblInsertNowAppMonitoring
SET NoCabsDateTime = GETDATE(),City=@City
,Area = dbo.fn_FindAreaSubAreaBasedOnLatLong(@PickUpLat,@PickUpLng)
WHERE CustomerMobileNo=@CustomerMobileNo
We are seeing the below error:
The OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "sqlcdsclustersqlcds" could not UPDATE table "[sqlcdsclustersqlcds].[CDSBusiness].[dbo][tblInsertNow AppMonitoring]". The rowset was using optimistic concurrency and the value of a column has been changed after the containing row was last fetched or resynchronized.
Problem:
Two tables t1 and t2 have the same schema but exist on two different servers. Which is the better technique for updating t2 and why?
/****** Object: Table [dbo].[t1] Script Date: 9/6/2007 9:55:21 AM ******/
if exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[t1]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1)
drop table [dbo].[t1]
GO
if not exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[t1]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1)
BEGIN
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[t1] (
k [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL ,
a [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
b [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
c [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
x [int] NULL ,
y [int] NULL ,
amt [money] NULL
) ON [PRIMARY]
END
GO
/****** Object: Table [dbo].[t2] Script Date: 9/6/2007 9:55:44 AM ******/
if exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[t2]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1)
drop table [dbo].[t2]
GO
if not exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[t2]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1)
BEGIN
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[t2] (
k [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL ,
a [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
b [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
c [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
x [int] NULL ,
y [int] NULL ,
amt [money] NULL
) ON [PRIMARY]
END
GO
-- Technique 1:
set identity_insert t2 on
insert into t2 (k,a,b,c,x,y,amt)
select k,a,b,c,x,y,amt from t1
where not exists (select k from t2 where t1.k = t2.k)
set identity_insert t2 off
update t2
set a = t1.a,
b = t1.b,
c = t1.c,
x = t1.x,
y = t1.y,
amt = t1.amt
from t1
where t1.k = t2.k
-- Technique 2:
set identity_insert t2 on
declare t1_cur cursor for
select k,a,b,c,x,y,amt from t1
for read only
open t1_cur
declare @k int
declare @a char(10)
declare @b char(10)
declare @c char(10)
declare @x int
declare @y int
declare @amt money
fetch next from t1_cur into @k,@a,@b,@c,@x,@y,@amt
while(@@FETCH_STATUS = 0)
begin
if exists(select k from t2 where k = @k)
begin
update t2
set a = @a, b = @b, c = @c, x = @x, y = @y, amt = @amt
where (k = @k)
end
else
begin
insert into t2 (k,a,b,c,x,y,amt) values(@k,@a,@b,@c,@x,@y,@amt)
end
fetch next from t1_cur into @k,@a,@b,@c,@x,@y,@amt
end
close t1_cur
deallocate t1_cur
set identity_insert t2 off
Thanks,
Joel K
Database Adminstration/Application Development
I am trying to get a SQL statement to work with both Access 2000 and SQL Server 2000.
The statement that works in SQL Server is:
---
UPDATE [myTable2]
SET
[myTable2].[FieldA] = 'Hello',
[myTable2].[FieldB] = 2,
[myTable2].[FieldC] = 'xxx',
[myTable2].[FieldD] = 0
FROM [myTable1] INNER JOIN
(myTable2 INNER JOIN [myTable3]
ON [myTable2].[FieldX]=[myTable2].[FieldY])
ON [myTable1].[FieldZ]=[myTable2].[FieldY]
WHERE ([myTable2].[FieldY]=1)
And ([myTable3].[FieldZ]='xxx');
---
(names have been changed to protect the innocent)
The statement that works in Access is:
---
UPDATE [myTable1] INNER JOIN
(myTable2 INNER JOIN [myTable3]
ON [myTable2].[FieldX]=[myTable2].[FieldY])
ON [myTable1].[FieldZ]=[myTable2].[FieldY]
SET
[myTable2].[FieldA] = 'Hello',
[myTable2].[FieldB] = 2,
[myTable2].[FieldC] = 'xxx',
[myTable2].[FieldD] = 0
WHERE ([myTable2].[FieldY]=1)
And ([myTable3].[FieldZ]='xxx');
---
It seems that neither will accept the other format. Can anyone suggest how I can rearrange the statement so that it works in both?
I want to update one table with the value from variable using a set based approach.
so the line
>> select @List = coalesce(@list + ',','') + cast(id as varchar(10)) + cast(feetype as varchar(25))
works fine but I want to take @list and use it to update my customers table. here is the full code.
create table customers
(custid int, fee_history varchar(max))
insert into customers
(custid
, fee_history
[code]....
I am writing a query to update table variable. It is throwing me some error.
I have a table variable declared and inserted the data with three columns. I want to update col1 of that table variable when the second column of that table variable= one column from a physical table
update @MYtabvar set @Mytabvar.LatestDate=B.LatestDate from TableB B where @Mytabvar.id=B.ID
I have a table with 8 columns, I need to update data in multiple columns on this table, this table contains 1 million records, having single update was taking time so I broke the single update into multiple update statements and running multiple update statements in parallel, Each update statement updates different column.
This approach is working fine but I am getting the deadlock error.
Transaction (Process ID 65) was deadlocked on lock | communication buffer resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim. Rerun the transaction.
I tried with various lock hints but no success.
I have a new production server with about 100 jobs on it. These are ETL jobs about half of which are in SSIS packages and half call stored procedures directly. For those calling stored procedures directly, might there be a way to use the system catalog to link the schedule of the job to the table being updated by the procedure? The result is a list of tables (those updated by jobs) and the schedule of when they are updated.
SQL 2012 Standard VPS Windows 2012 Server Standard
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
View 8 Replies View Related Hi all,
i m using VS 2005 and I have to display records with feature of INSERT / DELETE ITEMS But when i connect to Sql Server Database and select * from columns but here when clicking the "Advance" button , i do not get "Advance Sql generation Option " highlighted. Instead , it is turned off. i.e
The Following options are not highlighting
------ Generate Insert, Update, Delete statements
------ use optimistic concurrency
Plz guide me anyone..... is anything wrong with our VS 2005 software installed?
Bilal
I am experimenting with using CDC to track user changes in our application database. So far I've done the following:
-- ENABLE CDC ON DV_WRP_TEST
USE dv_wrp_test
GO
EXEC sys.sp_cdc_enable_db
GO
-- ENABLE CDC TRACKING ON THE AVA TABLE IN DV_WRP_TEST
USE dv_wrp_test
[Code] ....
The results shown above are what I expect to see. My problem occurs when I use our application to update the same column in the same table. The vb.net application passes a Table Valued Parameter to a stored procedure which updates the table. Below is the creation script for the stored proc:
SET ANSI_NULLS ON
GO
SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON
GO
if exists (select * from sysobjects where id = object_id('dbo.spdv_AVAUpdate') and sysstat & 0xf = 4)
drop procedure dbo.spdv_AVAUpdate
[Code] ....
When I look at the results of CDC, instead of operations 3 and 4, I see 1 (DELETE) and 2 (INSERT) for the change that was initiated from the stored procedure:
-- GET CDC RESULTS FOR CHANGES TO AVA TABLE
USE dv_wrp_test
GO
SELECT *
FROM cdc.dbo_AVA_CT
GO
--RESULTS SHOW OPERATION 1 (DELETE) AND 2 (INSERT) INSTEAD OF 3 AND 4
--__$start_lsn__$end_lsn__$seqval__$operation__$update_maskAvaKeyAvaDescAvaArrKeyAvaSAPAppellationID
--0x0031E84F000000740008NULL0x0031E84F00000074000230x02119Test26NULL
--0x0031E84F000000740008NULL0x0031E84F00000074000240x02119Test36NULL
--0x0031E84F00000098000ANULL0x0031E84F00000098000310x0F119Test36NULL
--0x0031E84F00000098000ANULL0x0031E84F00000098000420x0F119Test46NULL
Why this might be happening, and if so, what can be done to correct it? Also, is there any way to get the user id associated with the CDC?
I have a table dbo.Sales that contains all sales records. There is a column in that table called ItemNumber that I'd like to match with ItemNumber in a flat file and update the ItemCost based on the ItemCost column in the flat file.
So while there will be many sales records for each ItemNumber, I need to loop through and update the ItemCost in that sales record based on the corresponding ItemCost in the flat file. Does this make sense? I really need this for court and I can't figure out how to do it. I took a SQL course about 7 years ago but have forgotten everything.
Database Name: BTData
Database Table: dbo.Sales
Database Columns: ItemNumber (match on this), ItemCost (update this)
FlatFile Name: InventoryCosts.txt
FlatFile Columns: ItemNumber, ItemCost
There will be many sales records for each ItemNumber in the database table. I need to update each one with correct cost based on the item number and cost mapping from flat file.
hi,friends
we show record from multiple table using single 'selectcommand'.
like....
---------
select *
from cust_detail,vend_detail
---------
i want to insert value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'insert command'.
is it possible?
give any idea or solution.
i want to update value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'update command'
i want to delete value in multiple database table(more than one) using singl 'delete command'
it is possible?
give any idea or solution.
it's urgent.
thanks in advance.
I have a table where table row gets updated multiple times(each column will be filled) based on telephone call in data.
Initially, I have implemented after insert trigger on ROW level thinking that the whole row is inserted into table will all column values at a time. But the issue is all columns are values are not filled at once, but observed that while telephone call in data, there are multiple updates to the row (i.e multiple updates in the sense - column data in row is updated step by step),
I thought to implement after update trigger , but when it comes to the performance will be decreased for each and every hit while row update.
I need to implement after update trigger that should be fired on column level instead of Row level to improve the performance?
In a stored procedure I dynamically create a temp table by selecting the name of Applications from a regular table. Then I add a date column and add the last 12 months. See attachment.
So far so good. Now I want to update the data in columns by querying another regular table. Normally it would be something like:
UPDATE ##TempTable
SET [columName] = (SELECT SUM(columName)
FROM RegularTable
WHERE FORMAT(RegularTable.Date,'MM/yyyy') = FORMAT(##TempMonths.x,'MM/yyyy'))
However, since I don't know what the name of the columns are at any given time, I need to do this dynamically.
how can I get the column names of a Temp table dynamically while doing an Update?
Our system runs a SQL Server 2012 DB, it has a table (table_a) which has over 10M records. Our system have to receive data file from previous system daily which contains approximate 3M updated or new records for table_a. My job is to update table_a with the new data.
The initial solution is:
1 Create a table (table_b) which structur is as the same as table_a
2 Use BCP to import updated records into table_b
3 Remove outdated data in table_a:
delete from table_a inner join table_b on table_a.key_fileds = table_b.key_fields
4 Append updated or new data into table_a:
insert into table_a select * from table_b
As the test result, this solution is very inefficient. Step 3 costs several hours, e.g. How can I improve it?