Table test2 has multiple amounts for each account, I would like to sum
the amounts for the same account and use the result to update the
variable 'tot_amount' in table test1. But SQL does not allow me to use
sum function in update. Is there any other way to do this? Thanks.
update test1
set tot_amount=sum(b.amount)
from test1 as a
join test2 as b
on a.acc_no=b.acc_no
Here is the example:
I have two tables. One has Projects with the total amt of hours worked on the project itself. The other is an Employee_Projects table with individual rows of hrs per employee worked on the above referenced projects.
I need to SUM all the hrs from the Employee_Projects table and GROUP BY project number, then UPDATE the Projects table with the sum of hours where the Project Number from table A matches the Project Number from table B.
Of course, you cant use an aggregate function in an UPDATE clause, so what would be the easiest way to do this??
Any help would be much appreciated.
-C
Is this possible? What I am looking for is something like:UPDATE T_SitesSET T_Sites.LastDate = T_Inspections.DateFROM T_SitesINNER JOIN T_Assets ON T_Sites.SiteID = T_Assets.AssetIDLEFT OUTER JOIN T_Insecptions ON T_Assets.AssetID = T_Inspections.AssetID-- But I need only the last inspection done on the site (including if it is null)
View 1 Replies View RelatedI'm new to this forum.
This 'problem' has occured many times, but I've always found a way around it.
I have pages with datagrids, in which a user can edit a certain fields and then update the tables with new data. Lets say when a user edit a Name field and a money field. If he/she left those two fields blank, the table is automatically updated with a <null> (for the name field) and a 0 (for the money field.) Both these columns were set up to allow Null values.
Anyone has an idea why they were updated that way? And is there like a standard on how the data types are updated if a field is left blank?
Thank you very much.
Hi all,
I executed the following sql script successfuuly:
shcInLineTableFN.sql:
USE pubs
GO
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.AuthorsForState(@cState char(2))
RETURNS TABLE
AS
RETURN (SELECT * FROM Authors WHERE state = @cState)
GO
And the "dbo.AuthorsForState" is in the Table-valued Functions, Programmabilty, pubs Database.
I tried to get the result out of the "dbo.AuthorsForState" by executing the following sql script:
shcInlineTableFNresult.sql:
USE pubs
GO
SELECT * FROM shcInLineTableFN
GO
I got the following error message:
Msg 208, Level 16, State 1, Line 1
Invalid object name 'shcInLineTableFN'.
Please help and advise me how to fix the syntax
"SELECT * FROM shcInLineTableFN"
and get the right table shown in the output.
Thanks in advance,
Scott Chang
Hi,I have table with three columns as belowtable name:expNo(int) name(char) refno(int)I have data as belowNo name refno1 a2 b3 cI need to update the refno with no values I write a query as belowupdate exp set refno=(select no from exp)when i run the query i got error asSubquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when thesubquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used asan expression.I need to update one colum with other column value.What is the correct query for this ?Thanks,Mani
View 3 Replies View RelatedI have one table1 which contain data like this
ID --- year --- months
1 --- 2015 --- null
table2 like this
ID --- Year --- months
1 --- 2015 --- 6
1 --- 2015 --- 7
I want to update the max value of month for id 1,which is 7 using update function, How can i do this.
Take a table, where not all the columns are populated:CREATE TABLE #T (A int, B int, C int, D int)INSERT #T (A,B) VALUES (1,2)INSERT #T (A,B) VALUES (3,4)INSERT #T (A,B) VALUES (5,6)INSERT #T (A,B) VALUES (7,8)INSERT #T (A,B) VALUES (9,10)The values for C and D can be computed as functions of A and B. For thisexample, let's say they are twice A and three times B, respectively:CREATE FUNCTION dbo.F(@A int,@B int)RETURNS @Tbl TABLE (X int, Y int)AS BEGININSERT @Tbl (X,Y) VALUES (@A*2, @B*3)RETURNENDNow we use the function to compute the other columns:UPDATE #T SET C=X, D=YFROM dbo.F(A,B)Right? Well, no. Instead, I get this message:Server: Msg 155, Level 15, State 1, Line 2'A' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option.Any suggestions? I would like to use this structure, if possible.Jim GeissmanCountrywide Home Loans
View 7 Replies View Related
I have been trying to get a function to UPDATE a row in the database. I know that this is not supported but by using code from a previous post this can be accomplished [See my code below].
http://forums.microsoft.com/MSDN/ShowPost.aspx?PostID=1863258&SiteID=1
Code Snippet
[SqlFunction(DataAccess = DataAccessKind.Read)]
public static int GetNextValue(string dbName)
{
int rows = 0;
lock (obj)
{
SqlPipe sp = SqlContext.Pipe;
using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection("context connection=true"))
{
SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT id FROM Items", conn);
conn.Open();
rows = int.Parse(cmd.ExecuteScalar().ToString()) + 1;
using (SqlConnection updateCon = new SqlConnection("Data Source=" + Environment.MachineName + ";Initial Catalog=" + dbName + ";Integrated Security=True;Pooling=False"))
{
SqlCommand updateCmd = new SqlCommand("UPDATE Items SET id=" + rows,updateCon);
updateCon.Open();
updateCmd.ExecuteScalar();
updateCmd.Dispose();
}
return rows;
}
}
I hope this is helpful.
Regards
tribal
Can someone please tell me why in the bloody hell this isnt working? It ignores the WHERE VENDORID match portion and marks all instances of USERID match to TRUE. I've been banging my head for an hour... have I really forgotten basic sql???!!!!public static void UpdateVendor(VendorEvaluationEntity VEE)
{int vendorid = Convert.ToInt32(VEE.VendorevalVendor);
int userid = Convert.ToInt32(VEE.VendorevalUser);SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["VendorEvaluationConnectionString"].ConnectionString);
SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("Update tblVendorUser set vendoruser_vendor_evaluated = 'true' where (vendoruser_vendor_id = @vendorid) and (vendoruser_user_id=@userid)", conn);SqlParameter pmvendorid = new SqlParameter();
SqlParameter pmuserid = new SqlParameter();pmvendorid.ParameterName = "@vendorid";pmvendorid.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Int;
pmvendorid.Value = vendorid;
pmuserid.ParameterName = "@userid";pmuserid.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Int;
pmuserid.Value = userid;
cmd.Parameters.Add(pmvendorid);
cmd.Parameters.Add(pmuserid);
conn.Open();
cmd.ExecuteNonQuery();
conn.Close();
}
In the SQL 7.0 Documentation is indicated that the UPDATE(<fieldname>), if
used in a isert/update trigger, it return TRUE or FALSE based on presence of <field> in the SET List, if the trigger was fired by an UPDATE operation, or in the list of field to fill, if the trigger was fired by an INSERT operation.
Below there is a piece of code that demostrate the false documentation
assertion in the case of a trigger fired by an INSERT operation, infact even
if i have specified only the FIELD1 in INSERT Statement the trigger Print in the screen that i have touched FIELD2 too.
Now the SP1 don't solve this BUG, even if i had read some month ago (before
that SP1 was out) that in SP1 this will be fixed!
Anyone Can Help me to solve this problem, indicating me where i can post the
problem to sensitize the Microsoft's Service Pack Factory ?
Thank in Advance
PS:Sorry for my Bad English .... correct me please if some part are not
readable!
------[Cut Here]-------------------
CREATE TABLE TEST (FIELD1 INTEGER , FIELD2 INTEGER )
GO
CREATE TRIGGER TriggerIU_Test
ON TEST
FOR INSERT, UPDATE
AS
IF UPDATE(FIELD1) PRINT 'Field 1 Touched'
IF UPDATE(FIELD2) PRINT 'Field 2 Touched'
GO
print 'InsertIng '
INSERT INTO TEST (FIELD1) VALUES (2)
print 'Updating '
UPDATE TEST set FIELD1 = 1
GO
DROP TABLE TEST
------[Cut Here]-------------------
IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.TestTrigger') IS NOT NULL
BEGIN
DROP TABLE dbo.TestTrigger
IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.TestTrigger') IS NOT NULL
PRINT '<<< FAILED DROPPING TABLE dbo.TestTrigger >>>'
ELSE
PRINT '<<< DROPPED TABLE dbo.TestTrigger >>>'
END
go
CREATE TABLE dbo.TestTrigger
(
colA int NULL,
colB int NULL
)
go
IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.TestTrigger') IS NOT NULL
PRINT '<<< CREATED TABLE dbo.TestTrigger >>>'
ELSE
PRINT '<<< FAILED CREATING TABLE dbo.TestTrigger >>>'
go
IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.TestTrigger_i') IS NOT NULL
BEGIN
DROP TRIGGER dbo.TestTrigger_i
IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.TestTrigger_i') IS NOT NULL
PRINT '<<< FAILED DROPPING TRIGGER dbo.TestTrigger_i >>>'
ELSE
PRINT '<<< DROPPED TRIGGER dbo.TestTrigger_i >>>'
END
go
CREATE TRIGGER dbo.TestTrigger_i
ON dbo.TestTrigger
FOR INSERT AS
IF UPDATE(colA)
select "updating col A"
IF UPDATE(colB)
select "updating col B"
go
go
IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.TestTrigger_i') IS NOT NULL
PRINT '<<< CREATED TRIGGER dbo.TestTrigger_i >>>'
ELSE
PRINT '<<< FAILED CREATING TRIGGER dbo.TestTrigger_i >>>'
go
insert into TestTrigger
(colA)
values
(1)
go
insert into TestTrigger
(colA, colB)
values
(2,3)
go
I have an application which uses DTS to import data. After the data is imported the transaction logs are no good since the import wasn't logging.
Is there a way to turn logging on?
Thanks
I am trying to write an update statement based on an aggregate and it will not let me. Please find below the SQL.
update abtimesummary
set hours = sum(a.hours)
from abtimestore a
join abtimesummary b
on (cast(a.weekno as varchar(10)))+'-'+(cast(a.empno as varchar(10))) = b.summaryid
and this is the error message:
Server: Msg 157, Level 15, State 1, Line 2
An aggregate may not appear in the set list of an UPDATE statement.
Can someone tell me how to get round this please?
Many thanks
I'm trying to update a varchar field using SUM. I keep getting the error that the sub query returns more than one value.
UPDATE CIRSUB_M
SET TRM_DMO = SUBSTRING(TRM_DMO,1,11) +
(SELECT CAST(SUM(COPIES) AS VARCHAR(5)) FROM CIRSUB_M
WHERE BIL_ORG = '02' AND CRC_STS IN ('R','P','Q','T')
GROUP BY PUB_CDE, DNR_NBR)
WHERE BIL_ORG = '02' AND CRC_STS IN ('R','P','Q','T')
Example
PUB_CDE DNR_NBR COPIES TRM_DMO
THN 000000092637 100 A
THN 000000092637 200 B
THN 000000082455 100 A
THN 000000082455 200 B
THN 000000051779 100 A
Updated
THN 000000092637 100 A300
THN 000000092637 200 B300
THN 000000082455 100 A300
THN 000000082455 200 B300
THN 000000051779 100 A100
Folks
Here is a query which updates certain values. GetAddress is another
sproc which returns addrId. I have to pass certain values ie
strAddress1 strCity .....intZip4 values in the sproc GetAddress and execute the update query. In doing so it says GetAddress in
not a recognized function name. Is the syntax correct to exec sproc
GetAddress.
update Persons
set
Persons.strLastName=H.strLastName,
Persons.strNameSuffix=H.strNameSuffix,
Persons.lngHomeID= GetAddress (H.strAddress1,strAddress2,H.strCity,H.strState,H. strZip,H.intZip4),
Persons.lngMailID= GetAddress(H.strAddress1,strAddress2,H.strCity,H.s trState,H.strZip,H.intZip4)
from ALSHeadr H
where Persons.lngSSN=H.lngFedTaxID
FYI I can post GetAddress sproc but it is working properl.
I just want to know how to pass the values in ALSHeadr table into
the sproc.
Thanx
I have a question, what kind of Query or function do I have to use to UPDATE multiple record that I just want to add a letter at the end of the existing OrderNum.
Before
ID NAME OrderNum
1 Pete WEB123
2 Paul WEB124
3 Sam WEB125
4 Tim WEB126
After
ID NAME OrderNum
1 Pete WEB123A
2 Paul WEB124A
3 Sam WEB125A
4 Tim WEB126A
Problem is very simple
I want to update sum of a field from another table to first table
TABLE ONE:
==========
ItemID
QtyInStock
Table TWO:
==========
BatchID
ItemID
Qty
I want to Update the QtyInStock of First Table with Sum(Batch.Qty)
here is the query i am writing but giving error
UPDATE ITEMS
SET
INSTOCKQTY=CASE WHEN QtyInBatch>1 THEN QTYINBATCH ELSE 0 END
FROM ITEMS, (
SELECT ITEMS.ITEMID, SUM(Batch.Qty) AS QtyInBatch FROM Batch INNER JOIN Items ON Batch.ItemID = Items.ItemID GROUP BY ITEMS.ITEMID
)
appericiating anyones help in advance
FAZEEL AMJAD
Systems Engineer
Crystal Technologies
In recent testing, I have found that the trigger function UPDATE under SQL Server 6.5 SP5 behaves differently then SP4. For insert, the update function returns true on items that have not been explicitly inserted.
Is this a bug? Is this a new feature change? Where can I get more information on a bug list for SP5?
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
View 8 Replies View RelatedUPDATE Report
SET MSYear= casewhen MSDate > '2011/06/30' and MSDate < '2012/07/01' THEN '2012'
when MSDate > '2012/06/30' and MSDate < '2013/07/01' THEN '2013'
when MSDate > '2013/06/30' and MSDate < '2014/07/01' THEN '2014'
when MSDate > '2014/06/30' and MSDate < '2015/07/01' THEN '2015'
when MSDate > '2015/06/30' and MSDate < '2016/07/01' THEN '2016'
when MSDate > '2016/06/30' and MSDate < '2017/07/01' THEN '2017'
End
Actually our business year starts from 1st july and for this code I need function which is dynamically updates the every year for example 2014-07-01 to 2015-06-30 this is called as a 2015 year like this I need function which will dynamically update a year.
hi,friends
we show record from multiple table using single 'selectcommand'.
like....
---------
select *
from cust_detail,vend_detail
---------
i want to insert value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'insert command'.
is it possible?
give any idea or solution.
i want to update value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'update command'
i want to delete value in multiple database table(more than one) using singl 'delete command'
it is possible?
give any idea or solution.
it's urgent.
thanks in advance.
I have a table where table row gets updated multiple times(each column will be filled) based on telephone call in data.
Initially, I have implemented after insert trigger on ROW level thinking that the whole row is inserted into table will all column values at a time. But the issue is all columns are values are not filled at once, but observed that while telephone call in data, there are multiple updates to the row (i.e multiple updates in the sense - column data in row is updated step by step),
I thought to implement after update trigger , but when it comes to the performance will be decreased for each and every hit while row update.
I need to implement after update trigger that should be fired on column level instead of Row level to improve the performance?
I'm using SS 2012.
I started with an inline table returning function with a hard coded input table name. This works fine, but my boss wants me to generalize the function, to give it in input table parameter. That's where I'm running into problems.
In one forum, someone suggested that an input parameter for a table is possible in 2012, and the example I saw used "sysname" as the parameter type. It didn't like that. I tried "table" for the parameter type. It didn't like that.
The other suggestion was to use dynamic sql, which I assume means I can no longer use an inline function.
This means switching to the multi-line function, which I will if I have to, but those are more tedious.
Any syntax for using the inline function to accomplish this, or am I stuck with multi-line?
A simple example of what I'm trying to do is below:
Create FUNCTION [CSH388102].[fnTest]
(
-- Add the parameters for the function here
@Source_Tbl sysname
)
RETURNS TABLE
AS
RETURN
(
select @Source_Tbl.yr from @Source_Tbl
)
Error I get is:
Msg 1087, Level 16, State 1, Procedure fnTest, Line 12
Must declare the table variable "@Source_Tbl".
If I use "table" as the parameter type, it gives me:
Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Procedure fnTest, Line 4
Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'table'.
Msg 137, Level 15, State 2, Procedure fnTest, Line 12
Must declare the scalar variable "@Source_Tbl".
The input table can have several thousand rows.
I would like to create a table valued function that fetch through the table below using a cursor and return the records that are unique
EmpidChDateSiteuseridinitsal finsalNote
-------------------------------------------- ----------
236102015-4-21 22:02:10.8072570 0.696176161 change inisal value
236112015-4-21 22:02:11.0502570 0.696176161change inisal value
236122015-4-21 22:02:11.1202570 0.696176161 change inisal value
236132015-4-21 22:02:11.2452570 0.696176161change inisal value
Does anyone know where to find or how to write a quick user defined fucntionthat will return a table object when passed the string name of the tableobject. The reason why I want dynamicallly set the table name in a storedprocudue WITHOUT using concatination and exec a SQL String.HenceIf @small_int_parameter_previous = 1 then@vchar_tablename = "sales_previous"else@vchar_tablename = "sales"Endselect * from udf_TableLookup(@vchar_tablename )So if I pass 1, that means I want all records from "sales_previous"otherwise give me all records from "sales" (Sales_Previous would last yearssales data for example).udf_TableLookup would I guess lookup in sysobjects for the table name andreturn the table object? I don't know how to do this.I want to do this to avoid having 2 stored procedures..one for current andone for previous year.Please respond to group so others may benfiit from you knowledge.ThanksErik
View 2 Replies View RelatedHere is the scenario,
I have 2 stored procedures, SP1 and SP2
SP1 has the following code:
declare @tmp as varchar(300)
set @tmp = 'SELECT * FROM
OPENROWSET ( ''SQLOLEDB'', ''SERVER=.;Trusted_Connection=yes'',
''SET FMTONLY OFF EXEC ' + db_name() + '..StoredProcedure'' )'
EXEC (@tmp)
SP2 has the following code:
SELECT *
FROM SP1 (which won't work because SP1 is a stored procedure. A view, a table valued function, or a temporary table must be used for this)
Views - can't use a view because they don't allow dynamic sql and the db_name() in the OPENROWSET function must be used.
Temp Tables - can't use these because it would cause a large hit on system performance due to the frequency SP2 and others like it will be used.
Functions - My last resort is to use a table valued function as shown:
FUNCTION MyFunction
( )
RETURNS @retTable
(
@Field1 int,
@Field2 varchar(50)
)
AS
BEGIN
-- the problem here is that I need to call SP1 and assign it's resulting data into the
-- @retTable variable
-- this statement is incorrect, but it's meaning is my goal
INSERT @retTableSELECT *FROM SP1
RETURN
END
Ok, I'm pretty knowledgable about T-SQL, but I've hit something that seems should work, but just doesn't...
I'm writing a stored procedure that needs to use the primary key fields of a table that is being passed to me so that I can generate what will most likely be a dynamically generated SQL statement and then execute it.
So the first thing I do, is I need to grab the primary key fields of the table. I'd rather not go down to the base system tables since we may (hopefully) upgrade this one SQL 2000 machine to 2005 fairly soon, so I poke around, and find sp_pkeys in the master table. Great. I pass in the table name, and sure enough, it comes back with a record set, 1 row per column. That's exactly what I need.
Umm... This is the part where I'm at a loss. The stored procedure outputs the resultset as a resultset (Not as an output param). Now I want to use that list in my stored procedure, thinking that if the base tables change, Microsoft will change the stored procedure accordingly, so even after a version upgrade my stuff SHOULD still work. But... How do I use the resultset from the stored procedure? You can't reference it like a table-valued function, nor can you 'capture' the resultset for use using the syntax like:
DECLARE @table table@table=EXEC sp_pkeys MyTable
That of course just returns you the RETURN_VALUE instead of the resultset it output. Ugh. Ok, so I finally decide to just bite the bullet, and I grab the code from sp_pkeys and make my own little function called fn_pkeys. Since I might also want to be able to 'force' the primary keys (Maybe the table doesn't really have one, but logically it does), I decide it'll pass back a comma-delimited varchar of columns that make up the primary key. Ok, I test it and it works great.
Now, I'm happily going along and building my routine, and realize, hey, I don't really want that in a comma-delimited varchar, I want to use it in one of my queries, and I have this nice little table-valued function I call split, that takes a comma-delimited varchar, and returns a table... So I preceed to try it out...
SELECT *FROM Split(fn_pkeys('MyTable'),DEFAULT)
Syntax Error. Ugh. Eventually, I even try:
SELECT *FROM Split(substring('abc,def',2,6),DEFAULT)
Syntax Error.
Hmm...What am I doing wrong here, or can't you use a scalar-valued function as a parameter into a table-valued function?
SELECT *FROM Split('bc,def',DEFAULT) works just fine.
So my questions are:
Is there any way to programmatically capture a resultset that is being output from a stored procedure for use in the stored procedure that called it?
Is there any way to pass a scalar-valued function as a parameter into a table-valued function?
Oh, this works as well as a work around, but I'm more interested in if there is a way without having to workaround:
DECLARE @tmp varchar(8000)
SET @tmp=(SELECT dbo.fn_pkeys('MyTable'))
SELECT *
FROM Split(@tmp,DEFAULT)
Hello
I've to write an trigger for the following action
When a entry is done in the table Adoscat79 having in the index field Statut_tiers the valeur 1 and a date in data_cloture for a customer xyz
all the entries in the same table where the no_tiers is the same as the one entered (many entriers) should have those both field updated
statut_tiers to 1
and date_cloture to the same date as entered
the same action has to be done when an update is done and the valeur is set to 1 for the statut_tiers and a date entered in the field date_clture
thank you for your help
I've never done a trigger before
Hi there,
Can someone tell me if it is possible to add an index to a Table variable that is declare as part of a table valued function ? I've tried the following but I can't get it to work.
ALTER FUNCTION dbo.fnSearch_GetJobsByOccurrence
(
@param1 int,
@param2 int
)
RETURNS @Result TABLE (resultcol1 int, resultcol2 int)
AS
BEGIN
CREATE INDEX resultcol2_ind ON @Result
-- do some other stuff
RETURN
END
I need to return a table of values calculated from other tables. I have about 10 reports which will use approx. 6 different table structures.
Would it be better performance wise to create a physical table in the database to update while calculating using an identity field to id the stored procedure call, return the data and delete the records. For Example:
DataUserID, StrVal1,Strval2,StrVal4,IntVal1,IntVal2,FloatVal1...
Or using a table-valued function to return a temp table as the result.
I just dont know which overhead is worst, creating a table per function call, or using a defined table then deleting the result set per sp call.
I need to return a table of values calculated from other tables. I have about 10 reports which will use approx. 6 different table structures.
Would it be better performance wise to create a physical table in the database to update while calculating using an identity field to id the stored procedure call, return the data and delete the records. For Example:
StrVal1,Strval2,StrVal4,IntVal1,IntVal2,FloatVal1...
Or using a table-valued function to return a temp table as the result.
I just dont know which overhead is worst, creating a table per function call, or using a defined table then deleting the result set per sp call.
I have a stored produre. Inside this stored procedure I have table variable with one column. Once the table variable is populated with rows, I would like to pass each value in the table, into a table-valued function. The table-valued function may return any number of rows. I would like all the rows the TVF returns to be returned from the stored procedure as a single result set. I would also like to do this without defining a table variable to hold the results of the table-value function.
Code Snippet
declare @IdTable table
(
EmployeeId nvarchar( 16 ) not null
)
insert into @IdTable
select EmployeeNumber from Employees
/*
I need to run this query for every EmployeeId value in @IdTable and return the results from the stored proc as a single result set.
*/
select * from fn_GetEmployeeById( EmployeeId )
Any help is very much appreciated.
Andrew