Hi,
can somebody explain me, why the IDENT_CURRENT from an empty table is 1?
After insert of the first record it is still 1 (assuming that start value
is 1) which is okay. But if i check the IDENT_CURRENT from a newly created
table the result should be NULL, or not?
bye,
Helmut
Hi
I am trying to get the last ID value of a table.
The following code worked when a SQLConnection object was used, how do I achieve the same result using an SQLDataSource?
this.sqlSelectCmd2 = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand("SELECT IDENT_CURRENT('Assets')",sqlConnection1);
sqlConnection1.Open();
int nID = Convert.ToInt32( this.sqlSelectCmd2.ExecuteScalar() ) ;
nID++;
dc.FocusedRow["ID"] = nID.ToString();
Cheers
Pen
Hi
I have a SSIS package that imports data into a staging table from an excel sheet (This works fine). From the staging tabler i want it to insert the values into my members table, take that unique indentityID that gets created and insert the other values into other tables for that member that was just created.
In the staging table, i have all the values for a single member. But the structure of the database needs all the values inserted into seperate tables. There is no conditions ID in my members table, so the member first has to be created and from there i need to use the newly created member's MemberID and insert the conditions into a seperate table using the MemberID
I have created some sample data that can be used. I think i have an idea of how to do it, but i'm not totally sure if it will work that way, i have however included it in the sample data.
Code Snippet
DECLARE @ImportedStagingData TABLE
(
ID INT IDENTITY(1,1),
Name VARCHAR(50),
Surname VARCHAR(50),
Email VARCHAR(50),
[Chronic Heart Failure] INT,
[Colon Cancer] INT
)
INSERT INTO @ImportedStagingData VALUES ('Carel', 'Greaves', 'CarelG@Email.com', 1,0)
INSERT INTO @ImportedStagingData VALUES ('Jamie', 'Jameson', 'JamieJ@Email.com', 1,1)
INSERT INTO @ImportedStagingData VALUES ('Sarah', 'Bolls', 'SarahB@Email.com', 0,1)
INSERT INTO @ImportedStagingData VALUES ('Bells', 'Scotch', 'BellsS@Email.com', 1,1)
INSERT INTO @ImportedStagingData VALUES ('Stroh', 'Rum', 'StrohR@Email.com', 0,0)
DECLARE @Conditions TABLE
(
ID INT IDENTITY(1,1),
Condition VARCHAR(50)
)
INSERT INTO @Conditions VALUES ('Chronic Heart Failure')
INSERT INTO @Conditions VALUES ('Colon Cancer')
DECLARE @Members TABLE
(
MemberID INT IDENTITY(1,1),
Name VARCHAR(50),
Surname VARCHAR(50),
Email VARCHAR(50)
)
DECLARE @memConditions TABLE
(
MemberID INT,
ConditionID INT
)
SELECT * FROM @ImportedStagingData
SELECT * FROM @Conditions
SELECT * FROM @Members
SELECT * FROM @memConditions
/* --- This is the part that i am battling with ---
DECLARE @CurrentValue INT
DECLARE @numValues INT
SET @numValues = (SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM @ImportedStagingData)
WHILE @numValues <> 0
BEGIN
INSERT INTO @Members
SELECT Name, surname, email
FROM @ImportedStagingData
GO
SET @CurrentValue = (SELECT IDENT_CURRENT('@ImportedStagingData'))
INSERT INTO @memConditions (MemberID), (ConditionID)
VALUES (@CurrentValue, --ConditionValue from @ImportedStagingData, all the values that have a 1)
@numValues = @numValues - 1
END
END
*/
All help will be greatly appreciated.
Kind Regards
Carel Greaves
Hello,
I have tried developped a stored proc that is using the ident_current('tablename') function to get the last Identity ID.
It was working fine. I drop and recreate the table (which reset the ID) and found that the ident_current said that the last Identity Id used was 1. The problem was that the table was empty. I insert a record and try it again. It said again that the last Identity ID was 1. After the insertion if the first record, everything is fine...
I would like to know if you know a way get 0 when the table is empty and 1 when there is only one identity id that have been used.
Thank
Felix Pageau
fpageau@str.ca
You can test the functionnality with the following code:
create table identCurrentBugExeample(IDnumber int IDENTITY(1,1), aChar char(1))
Declare @count as int
set @count = (select count(IDnumber) from identCurrentBugExeample)
--Print the number of record in the table
print @count
--Supposed to print 0 because there isn't any identity values that has been used
print ident_current('identCurrentBugExeample')
insert identCurrentBugExeample(aChar) values('a')
--Print 1 because the last identity used is 1
print ident_current('identCurrentBugExeample')
insert identCurrentBugExeample(aChar) values('a')
--Print 2 because the last identity used is 2
print ident_current('identCurrentBugExeample')
drop table identCurrentBugExeample
All, Using access 2003 frontend and sql server 2008 backend. I have an append query to insert 80000 from one table to an empty table. I get an error:
"Microsoft Office Access set 0 field(s) to Null due to a type conversion failure, and didn't add 36000 record(s) to the table due to key violations, 0 record(s) due to lock violations, and 0 record(s) due to validation rule violations."
I know this error normally comes if there are dups in a field that doesnt allow.
I found a strange problem with IDENT_CURRENT returning NULL value in all my SP's in which it is used.Following are the general reasons why it returns NULL :1. Its executed against the Empty table.2. Table does not Identity column.But i could check that above two point were not a prolblem for me. The problem was the database user has only db_executor permissions. If it is set to db_owner all my insert SP's work's as it should. But it fails otherwise.Can anybody throw some lights here ?
View 1 Replies View RelatedI have Server1(MSSQL7) & Server2(MSSQL 2000) are linked. For trigger purpose I need to access latest identity value from Server2.mydatabase.mytable in Server1 so I have statement as follows
select @id = IDENT_CURRENT(‘server2.mydatabase.mytable’)
I get following error
'IDENT_CURRENT' is not a recognized function name.
Any idea why I am getting this error? Any help is appreciate
Hi thereI have small problem with IDENT_CURRENT...We have a table where PK is generated automatically.What I want is to get that value and insert it to another,corresponding table.So here is what I am doing...BEGIN TRANInsert Into table() --> PK is created.SELECT IDENT_CURRENT('Table_Name') AS lastValueCOMMIT TRanIT works fine, but there is a possibility to insert another record byanother user before I get my IDENT_CURRENT.For instance:BEGIN TRANInsert Into table() --> PK is created.---->somebody else inserts another record into same table.SELECT IDENT_CURRENT('Table_Name') AS lastValue---->this is not the value that I generated....COMMIT TRan
View 6 Replies View RelatedI have a table that uses an identity column. I have a second column that will contain the current identity value or, when the original row is replaced, the identity value of the replacing row.
USE [test]
GO
/****** Object: Table [dbo].[test1] Script Date: 04/10/2008 14:04:22 ******/
SET ANSI_NULLS ON
GO
SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON
GO
SET ANSI_PADDING ON
GO
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[test1](
[col1] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
[col2] [int] NOT NULL,
[col3] [varchar](max) NOT NULL,
[ts] [timestamp] NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT [PK_test1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED
(
[col1] ASC
)WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY]
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO
SET ANSI_PADDING OFF
My question is on the insert is it safe to use the following statement to insert the new identity value to the second column?
INSERT INTO test1
(col2, col3)
VALUES (IDENT_CURRENT('test1'), 'test')
BOL says (or has had added ) on the subject of IDENT_CURRENT
Exceptions
Returns NULL on error or if a caller does not have permission to view the object.
In SQL Server 2005, a user can only view the metadata of securables that the user owns or on which the user has been granted permission. This means that metadata-emitting, built-in functions such as IDENT_CURRENT may return NULL if the user does not have any permission on the object.
However am finding that SCOPE_IDENTITY does continue to function for a user who has not been granted meta data permisisons or directly (select) on the underlying table.
can somebody explain why they are different behaviours. I need to be able to capture the ID of a row just inserted (under the insert rights of my application role) I'm glad SCOPE_IDENTITY works but am nervous am working in an area of undefined behaviour ! after all its also a metadata-emitting, built-in function
My application role is the owner of the schema and the storedprocedure which trys to use IDENT_CURRENT but it consistently returns me a null when logged in as a user without admin priveleges
any info much appreciated
Iain
Hello,
The following statement behave different between SQL2000 and SQL2005.
On our database we have some insert statements like that, and as we test our DB for SQL2005, we have found this difference. Can anyone tell me why?
create table #tmp (a int identity(1,1), b int)
insert into #tmp
values(ident_current('#tmp'))
select * from #tmp
insert into #tmp
values(ident_current('#tmp'))
select * from #tmp
drop table #tmp
SQL2000
a b
----------- -----------
1 1
a b
----------- -----------
1 1
2 1
SQL2005
a b
----------- -----------
1 1
a b
----------- -----------
1 1
2 2
I'm using visual basic and SQL
Here's my string:
SELECT intD1 = IDENT_CURRENT(ServerLogID)FROM ServerLog
I'm trying to select the primary key of the last record from a table and place it in the variable 'intD1'
I think I'm missing something, but I'm not quite sure what!
hi to all
who is the best use among IDENT_CURRENT and @@IDENTITY and SCOPE_IDENTITY when i wnat to get last inserted id from a table.
and also give the reason why because i am little bit confuse for useing these..
thanks in advance.
arvind
hi everyone,
i was just wondering, is there anyway to empty a table...like, in mysql u can go EMPTY TABLE
and it resets the identity stuff, so your id's start at zero again...?
Thanks, Justin
I am creating three tables in a DataSet using three stored procedures and I need a way to know that either the tables have at least one row or preferably which if any has no rows. How can I do that?
using three SP's, one for each table:SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("CompanyCheck", con);SqlCommand cmd2 = new SqlCommand("ContractorVerify", con);SqlCommand cmd3 = new SqlCommand("StoreLocation", con);
cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd2.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd3.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CompanyID", CompanyID); cmd2.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CompanyID", CompanyID); cmd3.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CompanyID", CompanyID); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter();
da.SelectCommand = cmd; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); try { da.Fill(ds, "CompanyInfo"); da.SelectCommand = cmd2; da.Fill(ds, "ContractorInfo"); da.SelectCommand = cmd3; da.Fill(ds, "StoreInfo"); } catch { throw new ApplicationException("Data error"); } finally { con.Close(); }
Thank you
I have a particular production database that on a few recent occasions has suddenly had one of it's tables empty of content. Now there are no jobs or triggers in place neither is any stored procedures that could perform a delete or alter table operation in place. The permissions have been set not to allow this either. The datatype is text only. What is intriguing is the QA server has an exact mirror and this dosen't happen. Has anyone come across this sort of phenomenon?
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I can't even use Design Table to create a new table in these databases. I get the Design form up and it allows me to add columns, but when I try to save the changes I get the following error message:
ODBC error: [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Line 1: Incorrect syntax near 'full'.
[Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Line 1: Incorrect syntax near 'full'.
One thing I have noticed is under Users for the database, all my users come up as 'via group membership' for the Database Access column for the database I am having problems with. All other databases the users come up as 'Permit' for the Database Access column. I assume this has to do with security. But I have tried everything to change this. I can not get a user to come up as 'Permit' under these two converted databases.
Does anyone have any ideas?
I'm running SQL 2000 (SP3) on top of Windows NT 4.0 (SP6).
I have a couple of processes that look at the sysperfinfo table every day to collect some performance/metric type information. It works for all my other servers (mostly SQL 2K/Win2K) except for this one.
Why is the table on this one server empty?
I do have one other SQL 2K/Win NT server. The sysperfinfo table on that one is fine.
the only other clue/difference is that the server which has the empty table is a named instance install of SQL 2K.
Any hints?
Regards,
hmscott
Hi,
i wanna know how can i check a table has datas inside, because i wanna use delete from table and if table is empty i dont wanna run this statement.
thanks in advance
I have a query
select salesId,count(*) from salesline group by salesid
Result will be
salesid Nos
----- ---
SO001 2
SO002 4
I want to display single record like below if there is no record available in the table
salesid Nos
So00? 0
Hi,
I want to use something like select count(*) from table name = 0; to check whether a table is empty,
is this possible?
Thanks for any info.
Al.
Hey
Is it possible to search for a column without a value?
$query="select id from table1 where col2=''"; (this didnt work, but how do I do it??)
I need the id for the row that has the col2 empty.
:)
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Hi,
I'm using the Business Intelligence Studio for designing reports in VS2005 with SQL-Server 2005 Standard used on a TFS server.
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Thanks in advance,
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create table #dummytable
(
name varchar(35),
country varchar(35),
idnumber (int)
)
GO
insert into #dummytable (name),values('0');
select name, country, idnumber
from originaltable
where name in (@name)
union
select name = 0, country = 0, idnumber = 0
from #dummytable
drop #dummytable
How do I go about iterating through every table in my database and empty each table so they contain no data?
I don't want to drop the tables and re-create them either.
Thanks.
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