Increment Number On Fields With Same Value

Dec 2, 2013

I have a Column named 'Series' and a column named 'Linenumber'. They look like this:

Series Linenumber
234 NULL
234 NULL
235 NULL
235 NULL
234 NULL
234 NULL
235 NULL
235 NULL
236 NULL
236 NULL
236 NULL

And I want to run a query and make it look like this:

Series Linenumber
234 1
234 2
235 1
235 2
234 3
234 4
235 3
235 4
236 1
236 2
236 3

So basically I want Linenumber to be an increment column but to increment seperately for each value of Series. RDBMS is Microsoft SQL Server 2008.

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SqlTransaction's And Auto Increment Fields

Mar 13, 2007

Hi,
So I'm having an issue with a SqlTransaction and retrieving the auto-increment ID after an insert.  Presumably this is because I have to commit the transaction before the ID's are generated, but I need the ID's before I commit the transaction (because their is another part of the transaction that requires them).
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 Or is there a better way to do this whole thing? (i don't know really know how to do stored procedures, and presumably this would be the best way, but is there a good way to do it not Stored Procedures)
Thanks!

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Dec 8, 2006

I have a (1) date field and (2) an auto-incrementing ID field that always throw me errors when I'm doing a programmatic insert.
 
(1) After doing many searches on the subject, I don't think I'm using the correct syntax for the date and can't find any suggestion that works. Would appreciate your knowledge on correct SQL syntax for inserting a "today's date" field.
 
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Private objCmd As SqlCommand Private strConn As New SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("conn"))...objCmd = New SqlCommand("select max(ClientID) from tblClients", strConn)Dim intClientID As Int16 = objCmd.ExecuteNonQuery + 1

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Here is a piece of code I found in an application I'm supporting.
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At first glance I did not understand how it worked.
It locks a table <begin tran> , updates a number, reads that number, then commits. This code appears to work - it returns the newly added number.

My Question - How? How can this code return a value that is not "Committed" to the database yet. Please critique..... I have an alternate method, please comment on it as well. Thanks for your input.

--THIS IS WHAT I FOUND....
CREATE PROCEDURE sp_UpdateOrderNumber @customer int AS
DECLARE @NewOrderId int,
BEGIN TRAN
UPDATE CUSTOMERS
SET ORDER_NUMBER=ORDER_NUMBER + 1
WHERE COMPANY_ID=@customer
SELECT
If @@ERROR <> 0 OR @@ROWCOUNT <> 1 /* Check for Errors */
Begin
Rollback Tran
Return -999
End
SELECTORDER_NUMBER
FROMCUSTOMERS
WHERECOMPANY_ID=@customer
SELECT
If @@ERROR <> 0 OR @@ROWCOUNT <> 1 /* Check for Errors */
Begin
Rollback Tran
Return -998
End
COMMIT TRAN


My Newly suggested method. Using Implicit transaction.
I believe this is more "concurrency" friendly. Do you?

Begin loop until success
Read Number
Update to Number+ 1 WHERE number is the one I just read
If row was updated, use this new number and set success flag
Loop

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Hi All,

Is there any option to get the velue of auto increment number before inserting record.

My problem is that I want to get the auto increment number, for this I am using MaxId function, but If i have deleted the some rows from table, I could not get the actual.

For example there are 20record s in the table I have delete the last 3 records now I have the last value of Identity is 17. When I used the Maxid function It gives me the 18 number. But I need 21.

How?
help required.

Thanks


Navi

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HI,

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writing the procedure for incrementing the number based on alphabets from A-Z

for example:

if alphabet is A then increment should be A001,next A002..etc
if alphabet is B then increment should be B001,next B002...etc
.
.
.
.
if alphabet is Z then increment should be Z001,next Z002...etc

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What I need is for row 8 to have UNS and row 9 to have UNS.1. In other words, any time the VISITNUM is UNS several times in a row, I need to add that ".X" suffix, but if a row has something other than UNS, I need to start over again the next time it's UNS again.

CREATE TABLE #testing(
KitID varchar(20),
SubjID varchar(20),
VISIT varchar(60),
VISITNUM varchar(20),

[code]....

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Jun 25, 2014

I need to have a script where it ask the user for a value, the script will search for all records that match the value. Then it will display the numbers of records found and ask the user to enter a different value. The rest of the script will use this new value and increment by 1 n times as the number of records found. I started the script where it will ask for "HANDLE" and display the number of records found with that "HANDLE"

declare @HANDLE as varchar(30)
declare @COUNT as varchar(10)
declare @STARTINV as varchar(20)

set @HANDLE = ?C --This is the parameter to search for records with this value
set @STARTINV = ?C --User will input the starting invoice number
SELECT COUNT as OrderCount FROM SHIPHIST
where HANDLE = @HANDLE

I just can't figure out how to proceed to use the entered invoice # and increment by 1 until it reach the number of records found.

This will be the end results:

Count=5 --results from query
STARTINV=00010 --Value entered by user

Handle,Inv_Num
AAABBB,00010
AAABBB,00011
AAABBB,00012
AAABBB,00013
AAABBB,00014

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At first I thought of the built in Max function until I realized that is for within a column only.

Any help would be appreciated, thank you.

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Is it best to split the table up for performance reasons or will it make little difference?

Thanks,
JB

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hi,

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any suggestions or recommendations are welcome. thanks in advance.

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Any help is appreciated.

Thanks

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Oct 14, 2004

What I need to do is re-populate a unique number into multiple fields,

Let me explain, An employee can appear in the first table only once but can be in the second table multiple times with multiple employee numbers .There is a field called TFN that is unique and we are using it to create a unique id called KRid so what I have done is created 2 tables namely TEST_TBL and TEST2_TBL . In TEST_TBL I am populating a KRid with a unique no being produced by the TFN field only once i.e 12345 being the resulting unique id number. If an employee has 2 employee numbers i.e empno 1 and empno 1000,only employee no 1 will have the unique KRid created but nothing for 1000 because the record already exists , so what has me stumped is that the TFN for employee empno 1 and the TFN for empno 1000 are the same. How do I get the KRid (12345 from empno 1) to populate empno 1000 in TEST2_TBL , The second table has all records in so I can group the second table by TFN id but how do I populate employee 1000 in the second table with the KRid 12345.


Please help!!!!! Below are how the tables are set up and an example of the result.

TABLE 1

if exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[TEST_TBL]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1)
drop table [dbo].[TEST_TBL]
GO

CREATE TABLE [dbo].[TEST_TBL] (
[Empl_Num] [char] (32) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
[Surname] [char] (32) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
[First_Name] [char] (32) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
[Mid_Name] [char] (32) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
[Hours_Day] [numeric](18, 2) NULL ,
[Hours_Wk] [numeric](18, 2) NULL ,
[KR_ID] [bigint] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL ,
[TFN] [char] (32) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS NULL ,
[Date_Term] [datetime] NULL ,
[Empl_Type] [int] NULL ,
[Cost_Centre] [char] (32) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
[Empl_Status] [int] NULL
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO

TABLE 2

if exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[TEST2_TBL]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1)
drop table [dbo].[TEST2_TBL]
GO

CREATE TABLE [dbo].[TEST2_TBL] (
[EmpNumber] [char] (32) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS NULL ,
[TFN] [char] (32) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS NULL ,
[KR_ID] [char] (10) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS NULL ,
[EmpStatus] [int] NULL ,
[EmpType] [int] NULL ,
[CommonName] [char] (32) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS NULL
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO

Query goes as follows for table 1:

SELECT NPE000.EmpNumber, NPET00.RecordStatus, NPE000.KR_ID, NPE000.Surname, NPE000.FirstName, NPE000.SecondName, NPE000.Class, NPE000.DateEmployed, NPE000.DateOfBirth, NPE000.HoursPerDay, NPE000.HoursPerWeek, NPE000.PassportNo, NPE000.AwardCode, NPE000.EmailPayslipTo, NPE000.Location, NPE000.Grade, NPE000.DateTerminated, NPE000.EmploymentType, NPE000.DistCode, NPE000.EmpStatus, NPET00.TaxRefNo FROM NPE000 NPE000, NPET00 NPET00 WHERE NPET00.RecordStatus = 0 and NPET00.TaxRefNo <> ' 111111111' and NPET00.TaxRefNo <> ' 000000000' AND LENGTH(NPET00.TaxRefNo) >= 9 AND LENGTH(NPE000.KR_ID) >= 0 AND NPE000.EmpNumber = NPET00.EmpNumber


Query goes as follows for table 2:

SELECT NPE000.EmpNumber, NPE000.FirstName, NPE000.Surname, NPE000.Class, NPE000.Location, NPE000.EmploymentType, NPE000.EmpStatus, NPET00.TaxRefNo, NPE000.Paypoint, NPE000.KR_ID, FROM NPE000, NPET00 WHERE Recordstatus = 0 and (EmploymentType = 1 AND EmpStatus = 1 AND NPE000.EmpNumber = NPET00.EmpNumber


From this you can see that in table 1 it will only create 1 KR_ID for only one employee number but in table 2 I am bringing through all employee records. In table 2 I can group by NPET00.TaxRefNo which will bring all NPET00.TaxRefNo's togeather. From that I would like to populate the other employee numbers with the unique KR_ID.

Example:Table 1

000001,Jackson,James,Sam,7.6,38,12345,475431212


Example:Table 2

000001,Jackson,James,Sam,7.6,38,12345,475431212
001000,Jackson,James,Sam,7.6,38,,475431212

I hope this helps

Thanks in advance

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Dec 11, 2007

Hello,

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sir

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