I have a huge question, it's for my job im doing now. I have a table with the name TWO.dbo.SVC06105. I want to be able to take the word "TWO" and put that into a variable. I know this doesn't look correct, but I want to be able to do something like this:
DECLARE @GPNAME CHAR(100)
SET @GPNAME = 'TWO'
SELECT * FROM @GPNAME.dbo.SVC06105
I know the SELECT statement isn't correct, but I hope that you guys understand what i'm trying to do through this example. BTW, I am new to this team so nice to meet you all. L8er
I am using a local variable to capture datetime and then select records from another table by making use of the above local variable result. But the query is running too slow when I use the local variable
declare @a smalldatetime select @a=last_run_time from job_status where job_des='sample'
SELECT * FROM History WHERE CHANGE_DATE> @a
Instead of the above select statement if I use the below statement it is returning results quickly. Can someone help me in tuning the above query. SELECT * FROM History WHERE CHANGE_DATE> '5/23/2008 6:22:00.000 AM '
History table has columns ( case number, change_date, change_desc). I have two indexes defined on the above table one is on case_number and the other on change_date.I tried using force index but still the query is running slow.
I know this can be done, because I saw it and tried it once. But did not use it at the time and consequently forgot how.
I am storing an expression to a variable @Var Varchar(50)
@Var = ('aa','bb','cc')
I want to:
Select * from Table WHERE Field IN @Var
Substituting my variable for the " ('aa',bb','cc') which I can build dynamically...thus the use.
Purpose: I have an aggregate query that currently has a CASE statement based on the contents of ('aa',bb','cc'). However, those contents can change. The aggregate will not allow the subquery (SELECT Field FROM Table).
ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_SelectMostRecentArticle]
AS BEGIN
DECLARE @article_id INT SELECT @article_id = ( SELECT TOP 1 article_id FROM article ORDER BY article_id DESC )
DECLARE @comment_count INT SELECT @comment_count = ( SELECT COUNT(comment_id) FROM comment JOIN article ON article_id = comment_article_id GROUP BY article_id HAVING article_id = @article_id )
SELECT TOP 1 article_id, article_author_id, article_title, article_body, article_post_date, article_edit_date, article_status, article_author_id article_author_ip, author_display_name, category_id, category_name--, comment_count AS @comment_count
FROM article
JOIN author ON author_id = article_author_id JOIN category ON category_id = article_category_id
GROUP BY article_id, article_title, article_body, article_post_date, article_edit_date, article_status, article_author_ip,article_author_id, author_display_name, category_id, category_name
HAVING article_id = @article_id
END GO
as you can see, im trying to return a comment_count value, but the only way I can do this is by defining the variable.
I have had to do it this way, because I cannot say COUNT(comment.comment_id) AS comment_count or it returns an error that it cant reference the comment.comment_id.
But when change it to FROM article, comment; I get errors about the article_author_id and article_comment_id.
And i cant add a join, because it would return the amount of rows of the comment...
unless someone could help with what i Just decribed (as i would prefer to do it this way), how would i return the variable value as part of the select statement?
I had problem when combining OpenRowSet and SP_EXECUTESQL, when i tried to run the following query, it complaints that RESID is not declared. any idea how should i put the query so i will pass @RESID as 1 of the parameter? BTW, i know that the SP_EXECUTESQL is able to run query which length up to 8000, but how about the parameter?
hi. i'm trying to make a report in asp that sums up a whole bunch of statistics. the report is quite lengthy and takes about 2 minutes to load. i thought i would solve that problem by making a table to dump the statistics into instead of calculating the statistics every time the report is viewed. this way, the page would just read the table with the statistics already put in it. these statistics would be updated every day or two so i don't need anything up to the minute.however, i have run into a small problem which is actually updating the information in the table. my new table is called OfficeReport and it looks like this:UserID Stat1 Stat2 Stat3 ...... Stat3223 0 0 0 056 0 0 0 072 0 0 0 0this is a query for one of the statistics i am currently using:SELECT DefendantCase.UserID, COUNT(DefendantCase.UserID) AS CountOfUserID FROM DefendantCase LEFT JOIN UserDescription ON DefendantCase.UserID=UserDescription.UserID WHERE UserDescription.Status=1 AND UserDescription.UserType=1GROUP BY DefendantCase.UserIDif i run this query, this is what i get:UserID CountOfUserID54 2160 1052 294 427 22how can i modify this query so its output updates the same UserID column in the OfficeReport table? Thanks!
I need to make a backup of a table so that if I mess it up I can put the data back to where I started...
I am going to insert some new rows and update values in some existing rows. So before I do this and find out I messed it up...how do I make a copy of Table A as Table B?
I would actually like to make a copy to table B, then run my changes into B, make sure all is correct, and then transfer the revised data from B over to table A replacing its data. What approach would be best here to accomplish this?
Requirement: I wanted to create another table based on the column values. For eg: I have to take the employee id and check for what value he has under owns column in the table. I take only 3 values and then these values should go to the newly created columns (owns1, owns2,owns3). if there is no value for any of these columns it should have null values loaded in them. The result of the modification should look like this:->
Note: eventhough employeeid 3 owns more than 3 things we only take 3 of what he owns and populate to above coloumns. In addition to it, the column OWNS will have more than 500 different values in them.
Its kind of urgent and if anyone knows how to , Can you please help me on this. Thanks a lot. -- Ragulan ;)
Hello, Im a very new to SQL server etc, so please bear with me.
I am currently trying to find a quick way of making a large number of database entries within a particular table all have the same value in one particular column.
I have created a query in MS SQL Server Management Studio, which outputs all the entries in a particular table that I want to change. Currently they all have different values in a certain column in this table, and I want them all to have the same value in that column.
I've seem some good posts similair to this, but I haven't been able to find my exact issue.
I have the following table:
ID Name Location Start End
1 Joe NY 2000 2001
1 Joe CA 2002 2004
1 Joe MA 2005 2008
2 Sue NJ 2003 2004
2 Sue FL 2004 2008
3 Bob CA 1999 2000
3 Bob WA 2001 2004
3 Bob OR 2005 2006
3 Bob MI 2007 2008
As you can see, the Location, Start and End dates can vary for each person and I don't know how many rows a single person might have.
The result I want, is a "pivot like" table.
ID Name Location1 Start1 End1 Location2 Start2 End2 Location3 Start3 End3 Location4 Start4 End4
1 Joe NY 2000 2001 CA 2002 2004 MA 2005 2008
2 Sue NJ 2003 2004 FL 2004 2008
3 Bob CA 1999 2000 WA 2001 2004 OR 2005 2006 MI 2007 2008
I assume I can first do a count of the maximum rows for an individual and that is greatest number of columns I would need. But doing that and trying to figure out the rest has really stumped me.
Any thoughts, ideas and suggestions would be greatly appreciated.
I have a table that is fairly large, and I need to make a change to one of the columns in the table. Namely I need to change the datatype and rename that column. When I try to save the updated table, I keep getting a timeout error that says.
'eligibility (dbo)' table - Unable to create index 'PK_eligibility'. Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding.
Any ideas on how to make the table change more efficient or change the timeout period. I need to keep the existing data in the table. I am using sql server managment studio(2005) connected to a sql server 2000 database.
I have a pivot table query I am running and wanted to find out if there was a way to pull in the dates like getdate() - 12 months, getdate() - 11 months, etc. instead of hard coding the dates.
Here is my query
SELECT Client, [4/1/2007 12:00:00 AM] AS Month1, [5/1/2007 12:00:00 AM] AS Month2, [6/1/2007 12:00:00 AM] AS Month3, [7/1/2007 12:00:00 AM] AS Month4, [8/1/2007 12:00:00 AM] AS Month5, [9/1/2007 12:00:00 AM] AS Month6, [10/1/2007 12:00:00 AM] AS Month7, [11/1/2007 12:00:00 AM] AS Month8, [12/1/2007 12:00:00 AM] AS Month9, [1/1/2008 12:00:00 AM] AS Month10, [2/1/2008 12:00:00 AM] AS Month11, [3/1/2008 12:00:00 AM] AS Month12, [4/1/2008 12:00:00 AM] AS Month13, Engineer FROM (SELECT Client, DollarsBilled, SlipDates, Engineer FROM dbo.MonthlyClientBillables) p PIVOT (SUM(DollarsBilled) FOR SlipDates IN ([4/1/2007 12:00:00 AM], [5/1/2007 12:00:00 AM], [6/1/2007 12:00:00 AM], [7/1/2007 12:00:00 AM], [8/1/2007 12:00:00 AM], [9/1/2007 12:00:00 AM], [10/1/2007 12:00:00 AM], [11/1/2007 12:00:00 AM], [12/1/2007 12:00:00 AM], [1/1/2008 12:00:00 AM], [2/1/2008 12:00:00 AM], [3/1/2008 12:00:00 AM], [4/1/2008 12:00:00 AM])) AS pvt
I have SSRS 2005 SP2 configured to work in Sharepoint integration. Everything works fine except that I am not able to programmatically change any property of report viewer web part (instance) that I have added on on home page of my sharepoint site. I can do same thing via sharepoint UI but not through program. When my programs runs it fetches all web parts been added on home page, then I need to iterate through each one and find report viewer web part. While iterating, as soon as I arrive to report viewer web part it is named as "Error web part" with error message as "Windows SharePoint Services cannot deserialize the Web Part. Check the format of the properties and try again"
If someone has a solution, please respond at your earlist.
I have a table with a column named measurement decimal(18,1). If the value is 2.0, I want the stored proc to return 2 but if the value is 2.5 I want the stored proc to return 2.5. So if the value after the decimal point is 0, I only want the stored proc to return the integer portion. Is there a sql function that I can use to determine what the fraction part of the decimal value is? In c#, I can use dr["measurement "].ToString().Split(".".ToCharArray())[1] to see what the value after the decimal is.
insert into #t(branchnumber) values (005) insert into #t(branchnumber) values (090) insert into #t(branchnumber) values (115) insert into #t(branchnumber) values (210) insert into #t(branchnumber) values (216)
[code]....
I have a parameter which should take multiple values into it and pass that to the code that i use. For, this i created a parameter and temporarily for testing i am passing some values into it.Using a dynamic SQL i am converting multiple values into multiple records as rows into another variable (called @QUERY). My question is, how to insert the values from variable into a table (table variable or temp table or CTE).OR Is there any way to parse the multiple values into a table. like if we pass multiple values into a parameter. those should go into a table as rows.
I have used the Microsoft code below to create a link to SQL server from access. I am using DAO not ADODB. Someone said that I should use dblib instead of ODBC in the connection string below in order to get the connection to work.
Does anyone know the correct syntax for OLE DB connection string and can it be used with DAO? I am getting an error "ISAM path not found"?? Seems I have wrong connection string syntax?? Please advise.
Thanks again for your help.
------------------------------------------------------------------------- Sub ClientServerX3() Dim dbsCurrent as Database Dim tdRoy as TableDef Set dbsCurrent = CurrentDb Set tdfRoy = dbsCurrent.CreateTableDef("Roy")
Tell me please how can I make a foreing key constraint for a table using from another not all primary key or not all data. For example, I need to link a table "subject" with primary key "dscp_num, depart" using depart as a foreing key. But there is no table with such primary key, there is only table "codif_values" where selecting records by condition "codif_num = 1" gives the relation with necesary primary key to link. Also I need to link "subject" table as a primary key table with the table "ses_curr". But this table doesn't include "depart" field. It includes field "reg_num" that is a primary key in table "students". This table include field "stgroup" as a foreing key for table "groups". The last table includes "speciality" field that is a foreing key for table "specialities". And only this table includes "depart" field. Tell me please how I can make a foreing key constraint for table "ses_curr" by table "subject".
I want to add a new column in a table. In this column I want to include a Total Value. This Total Value exists already for dates after Sept 23, 2013. For dates before Sept 23, 2013 the total can be calculated using the following math:
Total = Total(t-1) - (Resource_Name1-Resource_Name1).
The Resource_Name column contains the Total field (after Sept 23) as well as the Resource_Name1 field. There is a third column called Direction which contains the values injection or withdrawal. The Resource_Name1 differes in value depending on whether it is injection or withdrawal. How do I create a new column with Totals for the full data set?
reg.no |Â Â description |Â start_date |Â end_date |Â Â load_date
I want to join this table with itself on reg. no. But not all the rows in table must be joined.
But for example, rows with load_date 01-07-2015 to be joined with rows with load_date 02-07-2015. And the rest of the rows should not used in join (for example, rows having other load_dates)
In MS SQL Server, I have the following tables with some data in it.create table table1 (column1 varchar(32),column2 int not null,column10 varchar(255),.....primary key (column1, column2),);create table table2 (column1 varchar(32),column2 int not null,column20 varchar(255) not null,....foreign key (column1, column2) references table1(column1, column2));Now, I need to change the all column types from varchar to nvarchar tosupport internationalized character set.I am able to do so, for columns column10 in table1 and column20 oftable2 without any problems by using command:"alter table table1 alter column column10 nvarchar(255);"But, when I try the similar thing for column1 of table1/table2, amgetting one error message saying like: "ALTER TABLE ALTER COLUMN failedbecause one or more objects access this column". I guess, this iscoming because of foreign key relationship between the tables.NOTE: While defining the table2, for foreign key I have not specifiedanything like "on update cascase" ...etc.How can I resolve this issue? Any suggestions/solutions are reallyhelpful to me. Thanks in advance.
I want to join a temporary table with a table in my stored procedure :
CREATE PROCEDURE sp_DeltaabgleichDarlehen AS BEGIN
SELECT Grundeinstellungen.Dat_Initialisierung, Grundeinstellungen.Dat_Jahresbeginn INTO #temp_IniDatum FROM Grundeinstellungen
INSERT INTO DeltaDarlStammdaten (Datum, Vertragsnummer) SELECT ImpDarlStammdaten.Datum, ImpDarlStammdaten.Vertragsnummer FROM ImpDarlStammdaten WHERE ImpDarlStammdaten.Datum=#temp_IniDatum.Dat_Jahresbeginn
END
i get the error :
The multi-part identifier "#temp_IniDatum.Dat_Jahresbeginn" could not be boundfor example
I have 2 tables (table1KKK, table2KKK), and want to run the same query on them by using parameter with the value "1" or "2". Is it possible to use that parameter as a part of the queried table name? Something like (only for demonstration €“ doesn€™t work): Select * From table +myParameter + kkk Thanks in advance!
In my database I want to archive some rows based on the time stamp. I read that horizontal partitioning will do that. This partitioning will insert the rows from the table into some other Database - Tablename. In retrivng those rows back I need to issue separate queries and UNION the result set. Is this way is correct or there any better ways to do this? If it is I have another question. If I add a new column to the table I partitioned, what will happen to the table that I stored in other Database. Is that going to add this new column too?
If possible please give me a sample code or queries to partition the database.
I'm trying to replace a particular part of a row in a table with a new value.
The row is called "DataPath" and it has a lot of values like so:
mashOperationsComponent Data FilesSantec
I want to run a query to replace the mash with our DFS namespace share name companysharesDepartments but keep everything else past the mash part of the original row.
I'm currently running this query, it says it is altering 30,000 rows, but it doesn't look like it's doing anything at all..
UPDATE dbo.Part SET DataPath = REPLACE(DataPath,'company.localsharesDepartments','mash') WHERE DataPath like 'mash\%'
So for example, it would change the mash above to
company.localsharesDepartmentsOperationsComponent Data FilesSantec
We're going to use replication on our database. There are tables without any primary key.
Is a primary key necessary for replication?
I have also antoher question: We want to replicate the whole OLTP database (size 30 GB).
Is snapshot replication a suitable mechanisme for this? I thougt snapshot replication overwrites all of the data, not only changed data. Or should we use another replication method?
