I have a project where I need the ability to update data in a SQL table (SQL 2008) from a tool like Access or Excel. My SQL table has 3 records: Employee number, Employee Name, and a yes / no value (1 or 0). I want to be able to display the table data (in Access or Excel), and be able to have the user modify the yes / no value, but not the Employee number or Employee name. How to handle this in SQL. Should I connect Access directly to the SQL table?Â
I'm in the process of converting a rather huge VSAM database into a set of SQL tables. I am using the same data names from the mainframe (like XDB-NAME to RDB-NAME). I load the files using Import Export Data and it makes the tables with such column names as col001, col002, col003, etc... and always sets the data types to varchr(255). And I have to cut and paste the data names from the manframe side to the server side (and the data types to.) So, is there an easier way to do this? Or am I doomed to cut-n-paste my days away... Thanks for any help.
I am trying to modify data in a tble using the Stored Procedure below. It doesnt work properly. I seem to only be getting one character. I think it has something to do with me using "nchar" with the variables. The value I am changing is actually a string.
I am new to sql server 2000, and need a little help.
I have a table called CMRC_Products with various columns, there is one column called Product Images that has the name of every image in my catalog over 4000, I want to add to each row in that particular column .jpg without loosing what is already in there
I have tried:
UPDATE CMRC_Products SET ProductImage = ProductImage&' .jpg'
I have a excel sheet that has data that needs to be UpSert'ed into 2 different tables. In addition, I need to use a value in the spreadsheet to determine the PK from a reference data table, for one of the UpSert oprations.
That is all working now.
The thing I'm struggling with is something I am sure is quite simple - but I'm not seeing a solution from attempts, googling or BOL.
2 of the columns I receive have either nothing, or X in them. The columns they go into are defined as BIT, NOT NULL.
So, in SQL it would be something relatively simple like:
CASE
When IsAvailable = 'X' then 1
When IsAvailable is null then 1
ELSE 0
end
But I don't know how to do this to data that was in a spreadsheet, and now is a resultset being handed from a task to another task.
to outline my current solution:
---- table 1 = this all works -------------
Excel Source --> MultiCast (For Table 1)-->Data conversion for table1-->:Sort for Table1--> Merge Join for table 1 (left Outer join) as 'left' leg
Table1 Source --> Sort Table1 --> Merge Join for table 1 (left Outer join) as 'right' leg
Merge Join for table 1 --> Conditional Lplit for table1
Conditional Split for table1 (table1 source PK is null) -->Insert Into Table1 Destination
Conditional Split for table1 (table1 source PK is not null) -->Update Table1 OLE DB Command
---- table 2 = this needs to be able to convert X/NULL to BIT -------------
MultiCast (For Table 2)-->Copy Column for Table2 -->Data Conversion for Table 2-->table3 lookup to get FK-->Sort for Table2 merge-->Merge Join for table 2 (left outer join) as 'left' leg
Table2 Source --> Sort Table2 --> Merge Join for table 2 (left outer join) as 'right' leg
Merge Join for table 2 --> Conditional split for table 2
Conditional split for table 2(table2 source PK in null) -->insert into table 2
Conditional split for table 2(table2 source PK in not null) -->update table 2 ole db command
-----------------------------------------
Now, if I correct the spreadsheet to have 0's and 1's in the two column, then the process above works. But I cannot (yet) force business to do that.
If tried to use SQL Command for the excel source, but there is limited functionality on the command - I cannot do SQL coalese, isnull or case statements, which would allow me to resolve that data at source.
I've tried to use derived columns to alter the columns. I think that the REPLACE (IsAvailable, VariableContainingX,VariableContaining1) might work to change X's to 1, but that doesn't resolve the NULL issue.
I've tried to use a script component to handle the conversion - which REALLY feels like a bad way to do this - the .Net script is wrote was:
-------------.net script code-------------
Imports System
Imports System.Data
Imports System.Math
Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Pipeline.Wrapper
Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Runtime.Wrapper
Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts
Public Class ScriptMain
Inherits UserComponent
Public Overrides Sub Input0_ProcessInputRow(ByVal Row As Input0Buffer)
If Not (Row.EndOfRowset) Then
If (Row.IsDotComVanEnabled_IsNull) Or (Row.IsDotComVanEnabled.Equals("X")) Then
Row.IsDotComVanEnabled = "1"
End If
If (Row.IsStoreCollectionEnabled_IsNull) Or (Row.IsStoreCollectionEnabled.Contains("X")) Then
We have enabled Change Data Capture for auditing our table changes in SQL Server 2008. There is a request to NULL out a few columns (for all rows) in a couple CDC tables, due to compliance with a certification. Is there a compelling reason not to modify these tables and to leave the audit trail as-is?
In my SSIS package, I have a data flow task I am loading a CSV file into a SQL table (OLE DB destination)
I have a couple of CSV files to be loaded Instead of creating a separate task for each file , can I combine them together into a single task
I was thinking about using a ForEach container
This approach works if the number of columns in all the CSV files is same But in my case it is not
So what I want is a script task that dynamically modifies the mappings
Can I do this?
I was browsing the net and I found certain code which uses IDTSExternalMetadataColumn90, MapOutputColumn etc. But the code was creating a new package for each mapping
I couldn't understand the code
So can you please help me with this?
My script task should modify the mappings in my data flow task For e.g. If I have 3 columns in my CSV and 3 columns in DB, they should be mapped in the same order
Please help figure out what is wrong with my code. The script is supposed to load a package (from file). The loaded package already has everything set up to run a query against a local server and output the results to an Excel file. The reason for the outer script is because I need to change the query based on a global variable. When the query changes, though, I think the existing dataflow Path is no longer valid, so I should remove it and re-create another one with the new input mappings. Here is my code, which runs and throws an exception at the AcquireConnections call.
The error is
Error: 0x2 at Script Task: The script threw an exception: Exception from HRESULT: 0xC020801B
I pieced together this code from the examples in the online books, but I am not sure what to do.
' Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services Script Task
' Write scripts using Microsoft Visual Basic
' The ScriptMain class is the entry point of the Script Task.
Imports System
Imports System.Data
Imports System.Math
Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Runtime
Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Pipeline
Imports Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Pipeline.Wrapper
Public Class ScriptMain
Public Sub Main()
'
Dim app As Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Runtime.Application = New Application()
Dim package As Microsoft.SqlServer.Dts.Runtime.Package = _
Hi all, I have several reports using single shared datasource. I want to change at a runtime database that is used by that datasource. Can this be achieved? If not what are the other solutions €“ I guess that using not shared datasource for each report may be the solution (is it?) but it is not the best solution for me. My goal is to allow users to run the same set of reports, viewed in ReportViewer control, but using different databases (connection string dependant).
Completely new to the world of databases. I'm a designer who works primarily in Flash. In any case, I'm trying to manage an application that uses MS SQL and learn about the wonderful world of databases.
Ok, I modified a table (e.g. I added a column called "Rate") that had associated views (created by another developer). Noticed that my application went a little wonky as some of my variables within my app took on the value of the data in the "Rate" column. I checked one of the views and noticed that a column within the view (e.g. TutorID) was assuming the values in the "Rate" column. Note: The column TutorID had been blank before the change to the table. I'm completely lost as to why this is happening. Do I need to rebuild the view? Can I just reset the original view?
Thanks.
Oh yeah, I'm using SQL4X Manager J from Mac Guru (if that helps).
If data is modified (by an insert, update, or delete) while the backup is running, will the backup contain those changes or will it be added to the database afterwards?
I'm trying to re-write my database to de-couple the interface (MS Access) from the SQL Backend. Â As a result, I'm going to write a number of Stored Procedures to replace the MS Access code. Â My first attempt worked on a small sample, however, trying to move this on to a real table hasn't worked (I've amended the SP and code to try and get it to work on 2 fields, rather than the full 20 plus).It works in SQL Management console (supply a Client ID, it returns all the client details), but does not return anything (recordset closed) when trying to access via VBA code.The Stored procedure is:-
USE [VMSProd] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [Clients].[vms_Get_Specified_Client] Script Date: 22/09/2015 16:29:59 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON
I have a client who has SSMS installed on her laptop. She is able to connect to the SQL server via SSMS in the office and query data on the server.
She needs to be out of site often and doesn't have internet access. She asks if the data tables can be "backed up" or saved on her laptop, so she can look at them without worrying connecting to the server. I am not sure if this can be achieved, as SSMS is built for accessing a server, not a desktop. Myself never have this need. If I really need it, I would go to Microsoft Access and create an ODBC connection to the datatables. But this client thinks that Microsoft Access is beneath her.Â
I have recently upgraded to SQL2014 on Win2012. The Access front end program works fine.
But, previously created Excel reports with built in MS Queries now fail with the above error for users with MS 2013. The queries still work for users still using MS 2007.Â
I also cannot create any new queries and get the same error message. If I log on as myself on the domain to another PC with 2007 installed it works fine, so I don't think it is anything to do with AD groups or permissions.
We need to insert data/rows from a SQL Server 2014 database into MS Access database. The problem is, there are so many columns (100+) in the table and there are so many insert transactions of this kind (from different tables) that it is not very easy to write the code in VB.NET that lists all column names.
Both the Access and SQL Server tables have the same number of columns and the equivalent data types, so inserting is not really the problem. It's just that is there a way to do an insert statement in T-SQL that does not name all the columns?
I've been developing desktop client-server and web apps and have used Access and SQL Server Standard most of the time. I'm looking into using SQL CE, and had a few questions that I can't seem to get a clear picture on:
- The documentation for CE says that it supports 256 simultaneous connections and offers the Isolation levels, Transactions, Locking, etc with a 4GB DB. But most people say that CE is strictly a single-user DB and should not be used as a DB Server. Could CE be extended for use as a multi-user DB Server by creating a custom server such as a .NET Remoting Server hosted through a Windows Service (or any other custom host) on a machine whereby the CE DB would run in-process with this server on the machine which would then be accessed by multiple users from multiple machines?? Clients PCs -> Server PC hosting Remoting Service -> ADO.NET -> SQL CE
- and further more can we use Enterprise Services (Serviced Components) to connect to SQL CE and further extend this model to offer a pure high-quality DB Server? Clients PCs -> Server PC hosting Remoting Service -> Enterprise Services -> ADO.NET -> SQL CE
Seems quite doable to me, but I may be wrong..please let me know either ways
When i am trying to start our hospital software based on SQL server 2000, it shows Following Error.Search Condition is not valid, (DBNETLIB) Connection Open (connect()).  SQL server does not exist or excess denied. Due to Fetch data.I run our software in Windows 8.1, while it smothly runs in previous version of Windows XP and 7.
I have an existing table called OrderHeader with a column called ID. The ID column is currently set as an INT. I want to run a script to modify that column to be an IDENTIY. I've tried the following:
ALTER TABLE OrderHeader ALTER COLUMN [ID] INT IDENTITY
I have a DTS package package1 which imports an excel sheet into my DataBase.ANd its saved and scheduled and running fine.Actually the excel sheet will be located daily @ c:ruceexceldata.But now we wanted to change the location of the file to c:ruce1ewexceldata
I have a scheduled DTS package which gets the data from a text file and imports into a sql table.The table will be droped and created whenever the DTS package runs.previusly the table has 6 rows and now i wanted to add a column row_id which is having an idenity seed.So how can I modify my package so that I can get done with my requirements.
I have a query that I am working on that involves 2 tables. The query below is working correctly and bringing back the desired results, except I want to add 1 more column of data, and I'm not exactly sure how to write it.
What I want to add is the following data.
For each row that is brought back we want to have the COUNT(*) of users who joined the website (tbluserdetails) where their tbluserdteails.date is > the tblreferemails.referDate
Effectively we are attempting to track how well the "tell a friend" via email feature works, and converts to other joined members.
Any assistance is much appreciated!!
thanks once again mike123
SELECT CONVERT(varchar(10),referDate,112) AS referDate,
SUM ( CASE WHEN emailSendCount = 0 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as '0', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailSendCount = 1 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as '1', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailSendCount = 2 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as '2', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailSendCount = 3 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as '3', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailSendCount > 3 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as '> 3', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailSendCount > 0 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as 'totalSent',
count(*) as totalRefers, count(distinct(referUserID)) as totalUsers,
SUM ( CASE WHEN emailAddress like '%hotmail%' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as 'hotmail', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailAddress like '%hotmail.co.uk%' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as 'hotmail.co.uk', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailAddress like '%yahoo.ca%' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as 'yahoo.ca', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailAddress like '%yahoo.co.uk%' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as 'yahoo.co.uk', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailAddress like '%gmail%' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as 'gmail', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailAddress like '%aol%' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as 'aol', SUM ( CASE WHEN emailAddress like '%yahoo%' THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as 'yahoo',
SUM ( CASE WHEN referalTypeID = 1 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as 'manual', SUM ( CASE WHEN referalTypeID = 2 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END ) as 'auto'
INSERT @Request SELECT '324234', 'Jack', 'SA023', 12, 111, Null UNION ALL SELECT '223452', 'Tom', 'SA023', 12, 112, Null UNION ALL SELECT '456456', 'Bobby', 'SA024', 12, 114, Null UNION ALL SELECT '22322362', 'Guck', 'SA024', 44, 123, Null UNION ALL SELECT '22654392', 'Luck', 'SA023', 12, 134, Null UNION ALL SELECT '225652', 'Jim', 'SA055', 67, 143, Null UNION ALL SELECT '126756', 'Jasm', 'SA055', 67, 145, Null UNION ALL SELECT '786234', 'Chuck', 'SA055', 67, 154, Null UNION ALL SELECT '66234', 'Mutuk', 'SA059', 72, 185, Null UNION ALL SELECT '2232362', 'Buck', 'SA055', 67, 195, Null
INSERT @Call SELECT 111, 1, 12123 UNION ALL SELECT 112, 1, 12123 UNION ALL SELECT 114, 2, 12123 UNION ALL SELECT 123, 2, 12123 UNION ALL SELECT 134, 3, 12123 UNION ALL SELECT 143, 1, 6532 UNION ALL SELECT 145, 1, 6532 UNION ALL SELECT 154, 2, 6532 UNION ALL SELECT 185, 2, 6532 UNION ALL SELECT 195, 3, 6532
INSERT @CallDetail SELECT 12123, 1, '11/5/2007 10:41:34 AM' UNION ALL SELECT 6532, 1, '11/5/2007 12:12:34 PM' -- --select * from @Request Query written to achieve the requirement UPDATE r SET r.UniqueNo = p.RecID FROM @Request AS r INNER JOIN ( SELECT r.RequestID, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY cd.EmpID, r.StateNo, r.CityNo, c.CallDetailID, c.CallType ORDER BY cd.EntryDt) AS RecID FROM @Request AS r INNER JOIN @Call AS c ON c.CallID = r.CallID INNER JOIN @CallDetail AS cd ON cd.CallDetailID = c.CallDetailID ) AS p ON p.RequestID = r.RequestID WHERE r.UniqueNo IS NULL
I need help with modifying this procedure to join JobTypeGallery, Remodel on JobTypeGallery.TypeID and Remodel.TypeID. I would like for it the procedure to not allow deleting a record from JobTypeGallery if there are any records in Remodel Table that is associated with JobTypeGallery. Can someone please help me modify this stored procedure? Create PROCEDURE [dbo].[spDeleteJobTypeGallery] @typeid int AS delete from jobTypeGallery where typeID = @typeid GO
I probably know that I don't want to do this, but I have an odd case.
I have a database with a bunch of stored procedures and functions. 128 of them reference a different database than the one they're in. For testing puposes, I need to temporarily re-point these functions and procedures to a different database.
I suspect the answer will be a resounding 'No', but I was wondering if it was possible to somehow run a query against syscomments where I could update all of those objects with the temporary database name rather than edit each and every one of them. Conceptually, it would just be an UPDATE using REPLACE. Pretty comfortable with that, but I'm always very reluctant to mess with stuff like that.
I'll probably still just do it through QA, but I was wondering if it's possible to do something like that and thought it might be an interesting topic for discussion.
I want to drop a table from a publication , so that i can copy some data from another server . After the copy , i want to add the article or the table back again to the publication without making any changes to the subscribers configuration .
Is it really possible on SQL 7.0 ? Right now it does not allow me to copy the data to the published table or even drop the article (table) and it says that the article is published for replication and cannot be dropped or modified . The table is configured for transactional replication .
I will have to drop the entire publication and create all the subcribers again .
I've learned to create DTS packages, saving them in a SQL database. But how can one modify a saved DTS package? And how does one delete a saved DTS package?
I have a trigger that emails me each time an order is modified by a manager. I can't recall how to find out which user is performing the modification. Is there a global variable such as @@username?
