I'm having a problem getting one of my procs (on SQL Server) to talk to an Oracle DB. I've used sp_addlinkedserver and sp_addlinkedsrvlogin,
but I'm getting an error that indicates that I'm not using the right naming convention.
If the NT server is name NTBOX, and the Oracle instance is YLO, with a valid user ME with password ITS, and the database (in SQL terms) is ABC
and the table is MyTable, I would think that
Hi, Can any one change this oracle proc. to SQL Server procedure.
Any help will be appreciated.
PROCEDURE CALC_PERC (DB_ID IN NUMBER, LAT_TYPE IN CHAR) IS Tot_work_all number(12,2); Bid_tot number(12,2); Ewo number(12,2); Overruns number(12,2); Underruns number(12,2); Contr_tot_all number(12,2); sContractType ae_contract.contr_type%type; BEGIN select sum(nvl(tamt_ret_item,0) + nvl(tamt_paid_item,0)) into Tot_work_all from valid_item Where db_contract = db_id; Select sum(Contq * Contr_Price) into Bid_tot From Valid_item Where nvl(New_Item,'N') <> 'Y' and db_contract = db_id; Select sum(Qtd * Contr_price) into Ewo From Valid_item Where nvl(New_item,'N') = 'Y' and db_contract = db_id; Select Sum((Qtd-Nvl(Projq,0))*Contr_Price) into Overruns From Valid_item Where Qtd > Nvl(Projq,0) and db_contract = db_id and nvl(New_Item,'N') = 'N'; IF LAT_type <> 'R' THEN Select Sum((Nvl(Projq,0)-Contq) * Contr_Price) into Underruns From Valid_item Where Nvl(Projq,0) < Contq and db_contract = db_id and nvl(New_Item,'N') = 'N'; ELSE Select Sum((Nvl(Qtd,0)-Contq) * Contr_Price) into Underruns From Valid_item Where Nvl(Qtd,0) < Contq and db_contract = db_id and nvl(New_Item,0) = 'N'; end if; Contr_tot_all:= NVL(Bid_tot,0) +NVL(ewo,0) +NVL(overruns,0) +NVL(underruns,0);
IF Contr_tot_all = 0 THEN
Select Contr_type into sContractType from ae_contract where db_contract = db_id;
IF sContractType = 'A' OR sContractType = 'T' THEN --If the divisor is zero here, it's not an error. update ae_contract set perc_compu = 0 where db_contract = db_id;
ELSE --If the divisor is zero here, it would be an error update ae_contract set perc_compu = 100 * tot_work_all/contr_tot_all where db_contract = db_id; END IF; Else --Here we have a real number to calculate, so go ahead and do your stuff! update ae_contract set perc_compu = 100 * tot_work_all/contr_tot_all where db_contract = db_id; END IF; END;
We have set up Oracle database as a linked server in SQL Server.We are able to access Oracle tables fine.I am trying to call a Oracle stored procedure in SQL Server as follows:declare @p1 varchar(1000)set @p1 = 'HHH'exec GENRET..OPS$GENRET.BOB_TEST_PROC @p1This is the message:Server 'GENRET' is not configured for RPC.Please help.Thanks in advancev
I suspect this is very poor design but I've been asked to research this: can I maintain a persistent communication session inside an sqlclr proc? (tcp/binary packets)
The process has to maintain very high throughput - setting up and tearing down a connection on each transaction is cost prohibitive. For TCO and deployment reasons it is preferable not to have a separate windows service etc that accepts requests from inside the clr proc. Is there the luxury of an alternative integrated into the database?
Hi, we have the senario we want to call oracle table inside the sql stored procedure, it is possible to call oracle table inside the sql stored procedures.
Hello, i need to create temporary table inside SP. i having one string variable @strQuery which contain dynamic query inside SP. i am executing that trhough execute sp_executesql @strQuery once query build.
now instead of select query , i want to creat hash table. so i wrote :
set @strQuery = "Select * into #tmp_tbl from table_name..." when i tried to execute it through
execute sp_executesql @strQuery , its giving error 'Invalid object name '#tmp_tbl' If i removed Hash then it works fine. even for double Hash also its work fine. but i want hash table only as i want that table local to that user.
Even direct execution of select statement without @strQuery works fine. but i want to execute @strQuery through execute sp_executesql @strQuery only as query is dynamic .
please guide me how to do this? its very urgent for me. thanks in advance.
For inserting current date and time into the database, is it more efficient and performant and faster to do getDate() inside SQL Server and insert the value OR to do System.DateTime.Now in the application and then insert it in the table? I figure even small differences would be magnified if there is moderate traffic, so every little bit helps. Thanks.
I invoke xp_cmdshell proc from inside a stored procedure on a 2-node active/passive SQL 2005 SP2 Standard cluster. Depending on which server the xp_cmdshell gets executed on I need to pass different arguments in the shell command. I thought I could use host_name() function to get the runtime process server, however, I am finding that it's not behaving correctly. In one example I know my active node is server2, but the host_name() function is returning server1. The only thing that I could possible explain this is that the MSDTC cluster group is not always on the same active node as the SQL server group and in the case I am talking about the cluster groups are in this mode (differnet nodes). Does the xp_cmdshell get executed by the SQL active node or the MDTC active node? And what is the best way to find out which server is going to run my xp_cmdshell?
Thanks.
Edit:
Perhaps another by product of this is that if I run select host_name() from the Studio Management query window i get different results depending on which server I am running the Studio Management on. On server1 I get server1 and on server 2 I get server 2, all the while server2 is the active node. I need a different function that will always let me determine the correct server that'll be running the xp_cmdshell...
Edit 2: I guess I could determine the running host inside the command shell itself, but I am curious to see if i can do it (cleaner) from SQL.
we recently got a scenario that we need to get the data from oracle tables which is installed on third party servers. we have sqlserver installed on ourservers. so they have created a DBLINK in oracle server to our sqlserver and published the DBLINK name.
what are the next steps that i need to follow on my sqlserver in order to access the oracle tables ?
Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio 9.00.2047.00 Microsoft Analysis Services Client Tools 2005.090.2047.00 Microsoft Data Access Components (MDAC) 2000.086.1830.00 (srv03_sp1_rtm.050324-1447) Microsoft MSXML 2.6 3.0 4.0 6.0 Microsoft Internet Explorer 6.0.3790.1830 Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0.50727.42 Operating System 5.2.3790
I have the OraOLEDB.Oracle provider installed to the (C:oraclexe) directory.
I am having problems querying from linked oracle server. When i setup oracle as a linked server and purposely enter an incorrect password the query i run tells me i have an incorrect password. So it at least knows that. when i set the correct password and run a query I get this error:
(i replaced the real server name with "someServer".)
Msg 7399, Level 16, State 1, Line 1
The OLE DB provider "OraOLEDB.Oracle" for linked server "SomeServer" reported an error. The provider did not give any information about the error.
Msg 7303, Level 16, State 1, Line 1
Cannot initialize the data source object of OLE DB provider "OraOLEDB.Oracle" for linked server "SomeServer".
I'm trying to execute a stored procedure within the case clause of select statement. The stored procedure returns a table, and is pretty big and complex, and I don't particularly want to copy the whole thing over to work here. I'm looking for something more elegant.
@val1 and @val2 are passed in
CREATE TABLE #TEMP( tempid INT IDENTITY (1,1) NOT NULL, myint INT NOT NULL, mybool BIT NOT NULL )
INSERT INTO #TEMP (myint, mybool) SELECT my_int_from_tbl, CASE WHEN @val1 IN (SELECT val1 FROM (EXEC dbo.my_stored_procedure my_int_from_tbl, my_param)) THEN 1 ELSE 0 FROM dbo.tbl WHERE tbl.val2 = @val2
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM #TEMP WHERE mybool = 1
If I have to, I can do a while loop and populate another temp table for every "my_int_from_tbl," but I don't really know the syntax for that.
Just wonder whether is there any indicator or system parameters that can indicate whether stored procedure A is executed inside query analyzer or executed inside application itself so that if execution is done inside query analyzer then i can block it from being executed/retrieve sensitive data from it?
What i'm want to do is to block someone executing stored procedure using query analyzer and retrieve its sensitive results. Stored procedure A has been granted execution for public user but inside application, it will prompt access denied message if particular user has no rights to use system although knew public user name and password. Because there is second layer of user validation inside system application.
However inside query analyzer, there is no way control execution of stored procedure A it as user knew the public user name and password.
Looking forward for replies from expert here. Thanks in advance.
Note: Hope my explaination here clearly describe my current problems.
Inside my sp on the Primary server are 3 commands:
exec msdb..sp_start_job @job_name = N'JobA' -- Running on Primary ServerEXEC Server2.msdb.dbo.sp_start_job @job_name = N'JobB';Running on Secondary ServerSelect * from Server2.Table -- Running on Secondary Server
So far the commands are working just fine when I kick them off one at a time. But when I kick off the sp as a whole I notice that the timing just isn't keeping up. For instance, Step 3 is running before Step 2 is finished. It appears that as the Primary Server kicks off Step 2, it doesn't seem to care about the outcome and moves right to Step 3 which in turn provides me erroneous data.How can I get Step 3 to wait until Step 2 is actually finished keeping in mind the Secondary server is part of this equation?
Hi All,Quick question, I have always heard it best practice to check for exist, ifso, drop, then create the proc. I just wanted to know why that's a bestpractice. I am trying to put that theory in place at my work, but they areasking for a good reason to do this before actually implementing. All Icould think of was that so when you're creating a proc you won't get anerror if the procedure already exists, but doesn't it also have to do withCompilation and perhaps Execution. Does anyone have a good argument fordoing stored procs this way? All feedback is appreciated.TIA,~CK
I have an ASP that has been working fine for several months, but itsuddenly broke. I wonder if windows update has installed some securitypatch that is causing it.The problem is that I am calling a stored procedure via an ASP(classic, not .NET) , but nothing happens. The procedure doesn't work,and I don't get any error messages.I've tried dropping and re-creating the user and permissions, to noavail. If it was a permissions problem, there would be an errormessage. I trace the calls in Profiler, and it has no complaints. Thedatabase is getting the stored proc call.I finally got it to work again, but this is not a viable solution forour production environment:1. response.write the SQL call to the stored procedure from the ASPand copy the text to the clipboard.2. log in to QueryAnalyzer using the same user as used by the ASP.3. paste and run the SQL call to the stored proc in query analyzer.After I have done this, it not only works in Query Analyzer, but thenthe ASP works too. It continues to work, even after I reboot themachine. This is truly bizzare and has us stumped. My hunch is thatwindows update installed something that has created this issue, but Ihave not been able to track it down.
Hi guys, I got some problem now with my last e-commerce ASP.net project because there's to many records in my database. right now the website run slower and sometimes very slow esp when doing some search products or members query. Do I need to change server hosting with Itanium processor or not? just for note right now I still using Xeon 1 Ghz. or maybe are there some software tricks to optimize the records for faster access?
I'm trying to find out how to determine the Server name of the server that a stored proc is running on. Something that is similar to DB_NAME() i.e. SERVER_NAME()
Okay, so I have a problem and I would be REALLY grateful for anyassistance anyone can offer because I have found little or no help onthe web anywhere.I want to access and do joins between tables in two different SQL db'son the same server. Heres what Im dealing with.In one database resides all of my security features for our clients,where it decides who can login, etc etc....In another database, I need to cross reference with a few fields in mysecurity db.See the issue Im running into here is that because the way the peoplehave their databases set up for different products, I would normallyhave to put these tables with security features in every database...which is horrible, because every time I do an update I would have todo it in 12 different places. Thats not efficient at all.So I thought if I had one central DB, where all security features arecontrolled from, that would be perfect... now the issue is crossreferencing and doing joins with other tables that ARENT in the samedb....have I lost you yet?I appreciate all of your help!THANKS!!
You have a store procedure and inside you make Updates or Inserts against another Server. But that name can change and I dont want to change it manually in everyplace.
Per example:
SELECT * FROM Himalaya.DBName.dbo.tblUserGroup WHERE fldUserID = 7300
I have several Selects, Updates and Inserts pointing to that server.
What I can do if I want to change from Himalaya server to another server?
Just started looking into Assemblies within SQL Server in the hope of creating a multi-threaded application and when writing a basic test assembly I came across the following problem...
When I create a worker thread within my assembly I am unable to do the following in my newly created thread:
Stop on a breakpoint in VS2005 Use Debug.Writeline to output to the output window
I know the thread is running as I am able to write to the EventLog, but VS2005 seems to be unaware of any thread other than the main SQL server thread.
If anyone could tell me whether there it is possible to debug non-SQL server threads, whether I am doing something wrong, or whether I should be doing things differently that would be great!
Thanks in advance for any help!!
The code is as follows (apologies as its not very well written!):
using System;
using System.Data;
using System.Data.SqlClient;
using System.Data.SqlTypes;
using Microsoft.SqlServer.Server;
using System.Threading;
using System.Diagnostics;
public partial class StoredProcedures
{
/// <summary>
/// This stored procedure starts the comms
/// </summary>
[Microsoft.SqlServer.Server.SqlProcedure]
public static void StartComms()
{
try
{
// Output some debug output to show the thread is running
Debug.WriteLine("Comms is starting");
// Create the thread to run in the main thread class
Thread zThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadFunction));
// Start the thread running
zThread.Start();
// Sleep to let the other one run
Thread.Sleep(2000);
// Output some debug output to show the thread is running
Debug.WriteLine("Comms is about to wait for thread to finish");
// Wait for the thread to complete
zThread.Join();
// Output some debug output to show the thread is running
Debug.WriteLine("Comms is ending");
}
catch
{
throw;
}
}
/// <summary>
/// The main thread function
/// </summary>
public static void ThreadFunction()
{
try
{
// Flag to keep thread running
bool bRunning = true;
// While the thread is running
while (bRunning == true)
{
// Output some debug output to show the thread is running
I want to use a stored procedure inside Sql Server from my aspx page so that the data entered in the form goes to the database after submit.
My stored procedure (inside the SQL Server) inserts several fields in a table and it returns two variables. What code I need to write in order to pass the data from the form to the stored procedure inside the Sql Server? And to store the two returned values?
BEGIN TRAN INSERT Z_Test SELECT STATE_CODE FROM View_STATE_CODE COMMIT
View_STATE_CODE points to remote SQL server named PROD. There is error when I run this query:
Server: Msg 8501, Level 16, State 1, Line 12 MSDTC on server 'PROD' is unavailable. Server: Msg 7391, Level 16, State 1, Line 12 The operation could not be performed because the OLE DB provider 'SQLOLEDB' was unable to begin a distributed transaction. OLE DB error trace [OLE/DB Provider 'SQLOLEDB' ITransactionJoin::JoinTransaction returned 0x8004d01c].
It looks like remote server is not available inside the local transaction. How to handle that?
help with solution for use order BY inside function and VIEW on the sql server i explain the problem i am a web developer in asp page i BUY an DATA grid object for my web site the problem in this object i can use only ONE field to use ORDER BY can i store in the sql server function and VIEW that change the ORDER of the result inside the sql server ? so whan i do SELECT * FROM dbo.tb_pivot_big
the sql server ORDER for ME the result and run this (inside the sql server )
Code Snippet SELECT * FROM dbo.tb_pivot_big ORDER BY new_unit, Fname ASC, val_orginal desc
For some reason whenever I look at the SQL statement of a particular table, the table name displays twice.For example,SELECT * FROM State StateEven when I execute this statement, it still returns the correct results. It does this for all tables in this particular database. I also check another database and thoses display the table names in the SQL statements correctly. Does anyone know why the table name would display twice in a table inside of a particular database?
In C# .NET I have the possible to create some validations of my data, with regulary expressions. Do SQL have the same feature? I will like to do an data validation of all my insert statement inside the sql-server. Is that possible?
Hi, Please help me in this problem... i am new to sql server.. i am using sql server version 8...(doesnot support function with retun values..) so i have created a procedure... -----------procedure------------------(to find next monday after 6 months)------------------- [code] create proc next_Monday ( @myDate DATETIME ) as BEGIN set @myDate = dateadd(mm, 6, @myDate) while datepart(dw,@myDate) <> 2 begin set @myDate = dateadd(dd, 1, @myDate) end select @myDate end go [/code] -------------------------------------------------------- i can able to execute this procedure separately.... working well... but don't know how to call it inside another query.... the following throws error.... select smaster.sname, smaster.Datex, 'xxx'=(execute next_monday smaster.Datex) from smaster please help me... how to fix this problem...
