How the procedure will be called inside the trigger,whether first procedure followed by second or parallel it will execute?
CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[InsertDatFXActualStaging]
ON [dbo].[DatFXActualStaging]--change this table to DatFXActualStaging
for INSERT
AS
BEGIN
SET NOCOUNT ON;
[Code] ....
Hello,
Is there a way to trigger the execution of a procedure when a database is created ? We're using this 3rd party system in which you only specify the database server. Whenever the users create a new "Storage Area", the system actually creates a new database.
I need to handle backups for that system so I want to create a procedure that will generate a backup device and backup jobs automatically whenever a database is created.
I will also need 2 procedures to handle database renaming and deletion. I searched around but can't find a way to trigger the execution of my procedures.
Hello to every body
I need to know about sequence of execution in a select command.
I have a sql command that use a function.some thing like:
select id, function(item)
from tbl
where conditions...
I want to know that if my function on item execute before where section or vise versa.
I try to explain it more. I want to know that sql engine fetch rows accordin to where clause and then execute my function or execute my funtion and then fetch the rows according to where clause.
If you have a document or some thing that explain about sql engine and sequence of execution please let me know.
Your help is really appriciated.
Hello,
I have a sequence problem in a package and I'm unable to figure it out: I have a control flow with some elements in this specified order: a script task -> Execute SQL task -> Data Flow. The script task is responsible for setting a value on a package variable; this same variable will then be used to decide if the Data Flow is disabled or not (there's an expression on the DataFlow). However, it looks like the variable is being tested before the script actually writes it, how can I guarantee that the DataFlow's expression is evaluated only after the script task has ended? Also, I have tried putting each component inside their own sequence container and I get the same result
Thanks in advance
Hi all,
When we use more that one datasets in report, how can we know which dataset will be executed first.
For example if we have added 2 datasets (dataset1 and dataset2) and both of them are using stored procedures.
How can we know whether dataset1 will be executed first or dataset2.
In my case I need to execute one dataset first that loads data to database tables and then want to execute second dataset that calls stored procedure that depends on table data there were filled by first dataset.
Thanks,
.....Hinesh
I have one Data flow, which trasfer data into two table (Parent & Child) .
My question is : Is there a way, i can load data first into parent and then child table. because child table getting load first after that parent table loading. (Execution should be Source Parent --> Destination Parent) First , (Source Child --> Destination Child) Second.
In my case its executing reverse. So i have foreign key constraints at child table , its giving foreign contraints error while running ssis package
Can any one tell me,
How to define my own sequence execution at the Data flow task (Source - Destination) ?
Thanks
I've created an SSIS package that contains a Sequence Container with TransactionOption = Required. Within the container, there are a number of Execute Package Task components running in a serial fashion which are responsible for performing "Upserts" to dimension and fact tables on our production server. The destination db configuration is loaded into each of these packages using an XML configuration file. The structure of these "Upsert" packages are nearly identical, while some execute correctly and others fail. Those that fail all provide the same error messages.
These messages appear during Pre-Execute
[Insert new dimension record [1627]] Error: The AcquireConnection method call to the connection manager "DW" failed with error code 0xC0202009.
[DTS.Pipeline] Error: component "Insert new dimension record" (1627) failed the pre-execute phase and returned error code 0xC020801C.
... which are followed by
[Connection manager "DW"] Error: The SSIS Runtime has failed to enlist the OLE DB connection in a distributed transaction with error 0x8004D00A "Unable to enlist in the transaction.".
[Connection manager "DW"] Error: An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x8004D00A.
While still in debug mode, I can check the properties of the "DW" connection and successfully test the connection within the packages that fail.
The same packages run successfully when tested outside the container (i.e. no transaction) or when the configuration file is modified to point the "DW" connection to a development version of the db which is running on the same server as the source database.
I have successfully used DTCtester to verify that transactions from source to destination server are working correctly. Also tried setting DelayValidation = True with no change. I have opened a case with Microsoft and am awaiting a reply so I thought I'd throw a post out here to see if anyone else has encountered this and might have a resolution. Here's some more on the environment:
Source Server:
Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition SP1
SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition SP0
Destination Server:
Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition SP1
SQL Server 2000 Enterprise Edition SP3 (clustered)
Thank you in advance for any feedback you might be able to provide.
KS
I have some VB.NET code that starts a transaction and after that executes one by one a lot of queries. Somehow, when I take out the transaction part, my queries are getting executed in around 10 min. With the transaction in place it takes me more than 30 min on one query and then I get timeout.
I have checked sp_lock myprocessid and I've noticed there are a lot of exclusive locks on different objects. Using sp_who I could not see any deadlocks.
I even tried to set the isolation level to Read UNCOMMITED and still have the same problem.
As I said, once I execute my queries without being in a transaction everything works great.
Can you help me to find out the problem?
Thanks,
Laura
Just wonder whether is there any indicator or system parameters that can indicate whether stored procedure A is executed inside query analyzer or executed inside application itself so that if execution is done inside query analyzer then i can block it from being executed/retrieve sensitive data from it?
What i'm want to do is to block someone executing stored procedure using query analyzer and retrieve its sensitive results.
Stored procedure A has been granted execution for public user but inside application, it will prompt access denied message if particular user has no rights to use system although knew public user name and password. Because there is second layer of user validation inside system application.
However inside query analyzer, there is no way control execution of stored procedure A it as user knew the public user name and password.
Looking forward for replies from expert here. Thanks in advance.
Note: Hope my explaination here clearly describe my current problems.
I created the following trigger to ensure that Mastercard or Visa are entered as the credit card type is a credit card table. The trigger works fine when I use one type, but when I add or, it doesn't work. Any advice? Thanks
/* THIS TRIGGERS VERIFIES THAT A VALID CREDIT CARD TYPE IS ENTERED*/
CREATE TRIGGER trg_accepted_credit_card
on credit_card_payments
for insert
as
begin
declare @card_type varchar(50)
select @card_type = (select card_type from inserted)
if exists(select 1 from inserted where @card_type != 'Mastercard' OR @card_type != 'Visa')
begin
print 'Invalid Credit Card Type.'
rollback transaction
end
end
I'm trying to handle some user management inside a trigger. When I call sp_addrolemember I get this error.
sp_addrolemember cannot be used inside a user-defined transaction
Is there any way to get around this error? I need to assign a custom role based on a variable inside this trigger.
Any help is appreciated.
Hello :
How to execute a procedure stored during execution of the report, that is before the poster the data.
Thnak you.
Has anyone ever seen this issue?
If i place a loop container inside a sequence container the connectors within the loop container disappear.... is this a bug - will the loop tasks still run in the correct order?? or will they fire off willy nilly??
I have an insert trigger which has to insert new records into 2 other databases. The first thing it has to do is get a maxid from a table in each of the databases before the insert. i was going to use a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statment before getting the ID and then do my insert. My question is two-fold, first is this the best way to do it. And since I have 2 separate selects to get the 2 maxids in the other 2 databases and tables, do I need 2 of these statements inside the trigger, before each insert, or a separate one for each select?
Thanks
Have the following trigger:
CREATE TRIGGER [UPDATEEGBKMUTREBATERECORDS] ON [dbo].[GBKMUT]
after INSERT
AS
begin
DECLARE@Sum Float
SELECT@Sum = SUM(bdr_hfl)
FROMinserted
WHEREfreefield3 = 'Rebate'
SET@Sum = COALESCE(@Sum, 0)
UPDATEgbkmut
SETbdr_hfl = bdr_hfl - @Sum
WHEREreknr = ' 1040'
end
I need @Sum to reset to zero if the ord_no changes. I'm inserting discount records that need to subtract from another account's amount.
As records are inserted for one ord_no and Inv_no I need to sum bdr_hfl field. When the ord_no and Inv_no change, I need to subtract that from the amount in the bdr_hfl where the account number is 1040 and the inserted records ord_no and Inv_no match the ord_no and Inv_no where the account is 1040. Then I need the @sum to reset to zero and start summing again.
Hi All,
I am using a trigger. I want to get the data of a row before updating inside this trigger and insert it into a backup table. Please anybody help me. Example with code is highly appreciated.
Thanks in advance.
Hi,
I'm experiencing a problem I think I should not in my COM+ application. I will describe the setup first and then will expose the problem.
It's a simple COM+ application (dll). Inside it, there's a method to save an object A. Object A is persisted in a table in SQL Server 2000 that uses an identity field for the primary key. What this method does is the following:
1) Insert the record for Object A via ADO
2) Retrieve the Id for the object using SCOPE_IDENTITY via ADO and set it on the object
3) Execute an UPDATE statement based on a certain condition via ADO (this UPDATE statement will fire a trigger, however the trigger will not do anything since the record does not answer the criteria for the trigger)
4) Insert a record for another Object A via ADO
5) Retrieve the Id for the object using SCOPE_IDENTITY via ADO and set it on the object
When I get to step (5), an error is raised because SCOPE_IDENTITY returns NULL. This is as if it was returning the Identity value for the trigger that did not cause any INSERT on the UPDATE statement in (3). All the steps are performed using a single connection.
The trigger will duplicate the updated record in another table if a certain flag is set, so in my case, it was not set yet.
It's just weird that this would happen. If I delete the trigger, everything works fine. @@IDENTITY gives me the same problem. It's really as if the trigger was taking over or something and unless I put something between the two steps I get this error. There's one thing though. In step (3), I was using the adCmdText flag for the ADO statement. If I use adExecuteNoRecords it works fine. However I don't understand why it would be this way, I'm trying to understand why it's not working to begin with, even though the sequence of the steps performed should.
Any idea why this would happen?
Thanks,
Greg
I'm updating one column using trigger but i am getting below error .
UPDATE failed because the following SET options have incorrect settings: 'NUMERIC_ROUNDABORT'. Verify that SET options are correct for use with indexed views and/or indexes on computed columns and/or filtered indexes and/or query notifications and/or XML data type methods and/or spatial index operations.
If I have two triggers on a table, does one need to finish before the next is executed or will they execute at the same time?
View 1 Replies View RelatedIs there any way to suspend a trigger execution after a commit trans?
View 6 Replies View RelatedProbably a simple question.
Do triggers execute using the permissions of the user that caused the trigger to execute?
Thanks!
Hi,
is it possible from SQL to inform notification of trigger execution in VB using DMO ( or some other method ? )
Any help appreciated.
Thanks
View 8 Replies View Related
I have a trigger on a table. I am trying to dynamically log thechanged fields on the table to another table, so I am iteratingthrough the bits in COLUMNS_UPDATED() to find what's changed, andgetting the column name programatically. This is all working fine.If I do a regular insert command in my trigger then everything worksfine. However, since I want to retrieve data from the column namewhich I got programatically from the inserted and deleted tables (toget the old and new values) I wanted to do something like this:insert into auditTransactionLog (TableName,PrimaryKeyId,ColumnName,OldValue, NewValue, ActionType) EXEC( 'SELECT(''cmContactInfo''), I.contactID,'''+ @colname+''', D.'+@colname+',I.'+@colname+', '+@action+' FROM inserted I INNER JOIN Deleted D onI.ContactId = D.ContactId')The presence of this line of code appears to be preventing theupdating of the table with the trigger. Is there some reason why Ican't do the EXEC in the trigger? If I did it without EXEC it worksfine but I have no idea of getting at the D. and I. @colname columnsotherwise.Thanks for any help!Rebecca
View 1 Replies View RelatedI have a logon trigger on a SQL Server 2008 R2 Express Advanced production database to prevent remote logons. The trigger works fine. When I need to connect via my local machine, remotely, I connect via a VPN, can connect with SSMS and do whatever I need. However, if I use a linked server on my local machine (still connected via VPN), I receive the logon error
Msg 17892, Level 14, State 1, Line 1
Logon failed for login 'sa' due to trigger execution.
The trigger is below and it logs any failures, except for the linked server.
If I disable the trigger, the linked server connects ok.
CREATE TRIGGER [tr_MasterLogon]
ON ALL SERVER WITH EXECUTE AS 'sa'
FOR LOGON
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE
@ClientAddress varchar(48) = (SELECT client_net_address
[Code] ....
I have a Column called SaleID in some tables in a Database.The SaleID column has the int datatype. I need a stored procedure that returns the next value in sequence for the SaleID column.
For Example,
If the last value inserted into the SaleID column was 1022 the stored procedure should return 1023
If the last value inserted into the SaleID column was 1023 the stored procedure should return 1024.
If the last value inserted into the SaleID column was 1024 the stored procedure should return 1025.
Also an exclusive lock should be maintained while the the stored procedure is running.
I am using SQL Server 2005.
Hi,
I do not know if this is the right place, but do guide me if possible.
I am using JDBC driver to send data from SAP XI to MS SQL 2000.
The data is passed as an XML file, as below
<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?>
- <ns0:MT_UPDATEPERSONACUSTOMERS xmlns:ns0="urndalesapcustomersupdatetopersona">
- <CallProc>
- <UPDATE_EndCustomerFromSAP action="EXECUTE">
<table>mk_INSERT_ConsultantFromSAP_proc</table>
<SAPID type="CHAR">0000206320</SAPID>
<DateCreated hasQuot="No" type="DATE">2007-04-24</DateCreated>
<FirstName type="CHAR">CAROL J</FirstName>
<LastName type="CHAR">VERITY</LastName>
<AccountGroup type="CHAR">Z001</AccountGroup>
<CustomerStatus type="INTEGER">1</CustomerStatus>
<Active type="INTEGER">1</Active>
<Blocked type="INTEGER">1</Blocked>
<AssocConsultant type="CHAR">NULL</AssocConsultant>
<Street1 type="CHAR">112 EVERGREEN SQUARE SW</Street1>
<Street2 type="CHAR">CHANGED ADDRESS LINE 1</Street2>
<City type="CHAR">Saint John</City>
<District type="CHAR">NULL</District>
<Region type="CHAR">NB</Region>
<PostalCode type="CHAR">E2L 4L1</PostalCode>
<DayPhone type="CHAR">306-781-4923</DayPhone>
<EveningPhone type="CHAR">306-761-2121</EveningPhone>
<Email type="CHAR">test@lllll.com</Email>
<CommunicationMethod type="CHAR">Day Phone</CommunicationMethod>
</UPDATE_EndCustomerFromSAP>
</CallProc>
</ns0:MT_UPDATEPERSONACUSTOMERS>
I know there is a way to pass paramters by name and hence sequence of parameters should not matter. So I was shocked and I still do not believe that when you call a stored procedure through JDBC adapter, the SEQUENCE of parameters have to be the same as defined in the stored procedure. I do not know if this is true for Oracle as well as MS SQL Server 2000, but I faced this problem on MS SQL 2k.
example - if stored proc 1 has params a, b, c and stored proc 2 has param d, c, a . My destination data type looks like a, b, c, d. Now if i decide to call proc 2, the JDBC adapter in SAP generates XML like a,c,d. I did a trace on SQL server and found that the JDBC driver uses sp_execute command, which my DBA told uses positional mapping and not named mapping.
I believe that SAP or the MS JDBC driver should support this.
So does anyone know, if there is an additional parameter which will make the JDBC driver to work with name and not position of paramters.
issues with triggers in Sql Server 2014.
A few weeks ago I've done a SQL Server migration from SQL Server 2000 to SQL Server 2014.It was a bit tricky but anything worked fine.
I have some legacy VB6 (Visual Basic 6) applications written in house which worked with Databases on the old SQL server 2000.Surprisingly, these applications worked well after the upgrade to SQL Server 2014 without having to change a piece of code.
Now, some users tell me that they receive some unusual message when saving data from these legacy applications.After investing for a few hours, I discovered that triggers are not executed when those users try to save data from grids or forms in their applications.Trying to reproduce the INSERT statement in SQL Server Management Studio, the triggers run well.From the application, they don't.
These applications connect to Database Server thru OLEDB connection with the following ADO connection string :
Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Password={password};User ID={user};Initial Catalog={db};Data Source={datasource}.the {user} is a true SQL account who have read/write/delete access in the databases.
On the web there is a lot of questions involving the same issue, but only from SSIS.I found some articles about an OLEDB connection parameter named FastLoadOptions with a value of FIRE_TRIGGERS, but nowhere how to put it in the ADO OLEDB connection string.
how to reactivate the "normal" use of triggers from an ADO OLEDB connection ?Either with some obscur parameter in the connection string or options somewhere in the SQL Server 2014.
i have created the table empid,empname,dob,salary for the insert i need to create procedure of insert empid,empname,dob,salary i got the function for autogenerated number for empid
mmy question how to put function inside the procedure?
my function below,pls guide me its very urgent.
create function NextCustomerNumber()
returns char(5)
as
begin
declare @lastval char(5)
set @lastval = (select max(customerNumber) from Customers)
if @lastval is null set @lastval = 'C0001'
declare @i int
set @i = right(@lastval,4) + 1
return 'C' + right('000' + convert(varchar(10),@i),4)
end
Desikankannan
Can i get a login name of the user that execute the store procedure that have open the connection to the DB?
thanks, Paolo giusti
hi all,
i'm wondering if i can use one stored procedure in too cases, this is the senario:
i have stored procedure for admin and another one for user, they have the same select everything is the same except that in admin SP i have where @admin = admin and for user i have where @user = user
if there a way to use if and else to make this happen
this is what i did so far:
CREATE PROCEDURE [test] @admin INT, @user INT, @indexType INT as
if @indexType = 1
begin
SELECT * FROM table WHERE something IN (SELECT * FROM anothertable where admin = @admin)
end
else
begin
SELECT * FROM table WHERE user = @user
end
GO
any suggestion will be very helpful
thanks
Hi,
I'm creating a generic procedure in the master db and I'm getting the database name as a input parameter.
How do I set the database inside the procedure , according to this parameter?
T-Sql does not accept "USE" inside procedures .
I tried "sp_defaultdb" but when I select from a specific table in the procedure it still does not identify the table as belonging to that database, it still looks for the table in the master db.
Hi,
we have the senario we want to call oracle table inside the sql stored procedure, it is possible to call oracle table inside the sql stored procedures.
Regards
Kannan.D
Desikankannan