Im trying to write a generic data access layer that supports SQL CE and Im wondering if any type of schema qualifier can be placed in front of a table name when executing a sql statement.
I've tried soemthing like this
select * from dbo.Account
I get this error,
The table name is not valid. [ Token line number (if known) = 1,Token line offset (if known) = 19,Table name = account ]
It doesnt make really make sense to include a qualifier for sql ce but I just wanted to make sure that there wasnt some other syntax that I wasnt aware of.
I have a quick question on how to qualify table names as it relates to"dbo" vs. user names. Suppose that I am a user named "dwuser1", andthat I need to create a table named "dw_stage_1". Do I use dbo as in"dbo.dw_stage_1" or do I use "dwuser1.dw_stage_1" for the qualifiedtable name? Are both OK? If so, what would be the implications ofeach?
I have a schema XXX. This schema owns a set of tables say XXX.A, XXX.B and XXX.C.
I have a login XXX mapped to the user XXX.
When I connect to the SQL Server using login XXX and execute the query.
Select * from A, it throws be an error saying that"Invalid Object Name A".
Now when I modify the select statement specifying the schema it works. i.e. Select * from XXX.A
In the former case, is it not that SQL Server tries to search for the table in the current user's account and then if it not available it look's in the dbo's account.
HOw can I make a select without specifying the schema ?
Why am im i getting this error I am trying to join four table from different databases.select INBTable.InBound_Calls, OUTTable.OutBound_Calls, INBTable.Line_Number as INLine_Number, OUTTable.Line_Number as OUTLine_Number, INBTable.Hold_Time as INHold_Time,OUTTable.Hold_Time as OUTHold_Time, INBAbandonInfo.INAbandon_Calls as INBAbandon_Calls, OUTAbandonInfo.OutAbandon_Calls as OUTAbandon_Callsfrom sql2.XMWin_Test.dbo.temp_Report20070807IN as INBTable JOIN sql2.Juniper_I.dbo.temp_Report20070807OUT as OUTTableon INBTable.Line_Number = OUTTable.Line_Number sql2.XMWin_Test.dbo.temp_GraphIN_INAbandon as INBAbandonInfoJOIN sql2.Juniper_I.dbo.temp_GraphIN_OutAbandon.Line_Number as OUTAbandonInfo on INBAbandonInfo.Line_Number = OUTAbandonInfo.Line_Number My Error Message: Msg 170, Level 15, State 1, Line 8 Line 8: Incorrect syntax near 'sql2'.
I have databases a1 , a2 , a3 , a4 ... an. Each has a table t1 .
I am writing a stored proc which compares the t1 table between any given two databases. I want to pass the database name as a variable .. so the SPROC looks like
exec sp_comparetable 'a3' , 'a7'
My question is , inside the SPROC ,how do I refer to the tables in the a3 and a7 databases.
I need to dynamically create a ADO.NET connection manger
so, my question is if it is safe to create it with the string that is generated (ConnectionManagerType) when creating the connection manager manually on my PC.
I understood that this string is the full qualified name of the assembly, so will it be different when I create it on another P.C or it is fixed on all P.Cs ?
I need to create flat file connection managers. The connection Manager editor forces me to use fully qualified file names. Is there a possibility to use unqualified file names, because I need to reference to files in different directories with the identical file strcture.
I am trying to populate a GridView from a stored procedure. The stored procedure's schema name is not the same as the user id logged into the database. In the SqlDataSource wizard, I am able to select the stored procedure name (unqualified), but Test SQL fails: "Could not find stored procedure 'devSelLineOverview'." Running the page also fails with the same error.Well, of course, because the procedure name must be qualified as line16l2.devSelLineOverview. However, the wizard doesn't pick up the schema name and I'm unable to change it there. So I changed it in the page source, but then I get this error: "Invalid object name 'line16l2.devSelLineOverview'." I tried changing the command type to custom SQL statement (not a stored procedure) but that deleted all the select parameters. Here is the data source, with the qualified name. I've also tried [line16l2.devSelLineOverview] (Could not find stored procedure) and [line16l2].[devSelLineOverview] (Invalid object name).<asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:PlantMetricsConnectionString %>"SelectCommand="line16l2.devSelLineOverview" SelectCommandType="StoredProcedure"><SelectParameters><asp:ControlParameter ControlID="date" Name="date" PropertyName="Text" Type="DateTime" /><asp:ControlParameter ControlID="shift" Name="shift" PropertyName="SelectedValue"Type="Byte" /><asp:ControlParameter ControlID="SKU" Name="sku" PropertyName="Text" Type="String" /><asp:ControlParameter ControlID="Lot" Name="lot" PropertyName="Text" Type="String" /></SelectParameters></asp:SqlDataSource>Thanks,Stephanie Giovannini
I have a database that has been upgraded from SQL 200 to 2005. The database was owned by 'Joe' and all objects were also owned by 'Joe'. In SQL 2000 when Joe logged in he could simply issue 'select * from table' and would get results.
The upgraded db now has a user Joe and a schema Joe. All objects now belong to the schema Joe. Joe the user has his default schema set to Joe and he is the owner of the schema. When Joe logs in and tries to 'select * from table' he gets an invalid object. He can 'select * from joe.table'.
How can I set it up so that the objects are still owned by the schema Joe and a simple 'select * from table' works when user Joe logs in? I was convinced that is he owned the schema and this was his default schema it should work.
Are there any perfmonace or query optimization limitations or issues that arise when issueing a fully qualified query across multiple databases on the same Instance of SQL Server. In other words are all features of query optimization fully supported in queries that span databases on the same Instance.
I wihsh to discuss whether to use fully qualified names:[database].[schema].objectof objects to operate (create, query..) on is good or not?If someone change order of sql code blocks in my script - this may causelose of it's context (like: use master / use <mydb>..). I wish to have mysript independed on changes like this and always produce correct result.Does using full name make use of 'use <db>' statement unnecessary?
Our team has a DBA governing body that refuses to accept any T-SQL script that our dev group writes where fully qualified names of the objects aren't used. These non fully named objects in scripts just aren't accepted in their world.
So, all the scripts the developers now have to write must have fully qualified names in them. Of course, the Query analyser in Managment Studio could care less about object names as long as ambiguity is not found. So, I need some sort of Static Code analysis of these scripts that my team creates in order to hand them over to our DBA's to run.
The DBA's intend to make this inspection a manual process (they have time to kill I guess)... but my team doesn't have that luxury. It is not easy to ensure all scripts have this qualification in them with some many of them being written.
Does anyone know of any algorithim, tool, or options that could help me detect the presence of non-fully qualified names in T-SQL scripts?
SQL BPA says the following:"One or more objects are referencing tables/views withoutspecifying a schema! Performance and predictability of theapplication may be improved by specifying schema names.""When SQL Server looks up a table/view without a schemaqualification, it first searches the default schema and then the'dbo' schema. The default schema corresponds to the currentuser for ad-hoc batches, and corresponds to the schema of astored procedure when inside one. In either case, SQL Serverincurs an additional runtime cost to verify schema binding ofunqualified objects. Applications are more maintainable andmay observe a slight performance improvement if objectreferences are schema qualified."How important is to specify the schame (dbo. in my case) instored procedures? Will it really improve performance if I goand fix each object that is missing "dbo."?The problem is I have thousands and thousands of themwith no schemas. Before I invest a lot of time fixing themI am trying to determine if it's really worth it or not?Thank you
The command sqlcmd seems to fail when using trusted connection and an IP address or a fully qualified hostname. For example:
sqlcmd -E -S nnn.nnn.nnn.nnn
where nnn.nnn.nnn.nnn is the real IP address of the machine, or
sqlcmd -E -S hostname.domain.com
where hostname.domain.com is the fully qualified hostname of the machine, gives the error:
Msg 18452, Level 14, State 1, Server 380GX280B05, Line 1 Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server c onnection.
On the other hand, sqlcmd -E -S 127.0.0.1 works, and so does sqlcmd -E -S hostname, or sqlcmd -E -S tcp:hostname,1433.
This is on a clean machine, with SQL Server 2005 freshly installed as Administrator with mixed authentication, and the test runned also by Administrator.
The command sqlcmd seems to fail when using trusted connection and an IP address or a fully qualified hostname. For example:
sqlcmd -E -S nnn.nnn.nnn.nnn
where nnn.nnn.nnn.nnn is the real IP address of the machine, or
sqlcmd -E -S hostname.domain.com
where hostname.domain.com is the fully qualified hostname of the machine, gives the error:
Msg 18452, Level 14, State 1, Server 380GX280B05, Line 1 Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server c onnection.
On the other hand, sqlcmd -E -S 127.0.0.1 works, and so does sqlcmd -E -S hostname, or sqlcmd -E -S tcp:hostname,1433.
This is on a clean machine, with SQL Server 2005 freshly installed as Administrator with mixed authentication, and the test runned also by Administrator.
Basically I'm trying to produce a report that shows qualified employees for each program. Each employee can possess many qualifications. There will be no programID parameter submitted by the user. I just want to produce the report which shows the programs and the qualified employees for each. I thought I had a query that was working but once I added a different ProgramID into the ProgramModules table things went south.
Here are my tables:
tblEmployees (table of employees) - EmployeeID - EmployeeName
tblQualifications (table of qualifications) - Qualification_ID - QualificationTitle
tblEmployeeQualification (table of all employees qualifications) -EmpQualificationID -EmployeeID (fk for tblEmployees) -QualificationID (fk for tblQualifications)
tblPrograms (table of programs) -ProgramID -ProgramTitle
tblProgramModules (table of qualifications required by each program) -ProgramModuleID -ProgramID (fk for tblPrograms) -QualificationID (fk for tblQualifications)
Here is the query I was working with that works when there are only records in the ProgramModules table that use the same ProgramID
I had been trying to solve this error with no success :
One or more of the server network addresses lacks a fully qualified domain name (FQDN). Specify the FQDN for each server, and click Start Mirroring again.
The syntax for a fully-qualified TCP address is: TCP://<computer_name>.<domain_segment>[.<domain_segment>]:<port>
I had installed three instances on my local machine to test Data base mirroring :
Principal : running SQL Developer Instance
Mirror : running SQL Developer Instance .
Witness : Running SQL Express.
Database mirroring already enabled using startup flag : -T1400
i even tried to configure it with out a witness but still have the same error .
I used the follwoing server name in the mirroring wizard(not localhost) :
We have a flat file import proces which imports data from a series of unicode flat files.
The files have text qualifiers and are being imported to a table with the following format: CREATE TABLE [dsa].[OBS]( [Kundenummer] [nvarchar](10) NULL, [Navn] [nvarchar](60) NULL, [Adresse] [nvarchar](50) NULL, [PostnrBynavn] [nvarchar](50) NULL, [Kursusdato] [datetime] NULL, [Varighed] [decimal](18, 2) NULL, [Kursustype] [nvarchar](100) NULL, [Risikokoder] [nvarchar](50) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY]
In one of our files we have two rows that looks like this: "19298529";"THIS IS ROW 1";"ADDRESS 9 -13";"4200 SLAGELSE";"02-05-2006";8.00;"Kombikursus Førstehjælp - Brand 8 lek.";"37" "19448242";"THIS IS ROW 2";"ADDRESS 50";"4140 BORUP";"04-05-2006";4.00;""Fra vil selv - til kan selv". Om børn 1½ - 3 Ã¥r";"22"
Both rows are OK according to the format, but the second row actually contains the text qualifier in one of the qualified fields (""Fra vil selv - til kan selv". Om børn 1½ - 3 Ã¥r"). It's the title of a course with a comment. The proces fails on this file, and wont even redirect the row, as it does on other erroneous rows in other files we import.
We believe this is a valid text, but apparently SSIS doesn't Is this a bug or is this record not allowed? Is there a work around, and why wont SSIS redirect the row?
We believe the reason is that the field before is not text quaified (which is of course specified in the connection manager).
Ok I am new to Sql and am wonder How I can (when createing a table ) have a field that is auto incremented.
Here is what I have so far
Code:
CREATE TABLE test (`id` INTEGER NOT NULL, `test` VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`)
I want the primary key id to be an incremented number.
I am used to mysql and I would just have the field created as an AUTO_INCREMENT.
Do I use the INCREMENT function within the first query or do I have to have another query that will alter the table and make the field an auto incremented number.
Is there a way to join 2 tables from different databases on the same instance? If so, what is the syntax? For example I have an instance called TEST with 2 databases (DB1 and DB2). Each database have a table (DB1.TABLE & DB2.TABLE). Both tables have a common column called ID. Can both tables be joined in a query?
hi.. i want to know how to create table while specifying the database name.. the syntax given in the help is this
CREATE TABLE [ database_name.[ owner ] . | owner. ] table_name but i cant seem to do it.. it always generates an error whenever i give my database name..
I have a flatfile contain several SQL syntax calling a stored procedure (execute usp_table 'param1', 'param2' out) and have been imported into a temporer table. Inside this table I have a few column (identity column, syntax column and status column). Status column used for identify whether the execution succes. My plan is to read this table and execute the syntax row by row, the stored procedure will return a success or failure status from param2. And I have to read this return to update the Status column inside the table. I tried Execute SQL Task and throw the return value of stored procedure to a result set. But I didn't know how to treat the result set to update the table. So what task should I use ? Thanks in advance.
Hello I am trying to join 2 tables listing product names but I can’t get the syntax quite right.
I have managed to get the 2 tables to display separately.
Table #1: Select ProductName as [Product Name] From Product_CatA Where Auto = 'yes' Order By ProductName ASC
Table #2
SELECT ProductName, Price, '<a href="' + url + '">' + Title + '</a>' as Link FROM ProductNames WHERE Extn = '0151' And url like 'http:%' ORDER BY ProductName ASC
I want to display all the data values taken from Table #1 as above.
I need to pass some SQL to someone else who will run it on their database. I have got the SQL for SQL Server 2000 but they are running SQL Server 7. Apparently the below MSSQL 2000 script doesn't work;
SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[tableName]( [id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [ArticleID] [int] NULL, [Heading] [text] COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL, [BodyContent] [text] COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL, [WrittenDate] [datetime] NULL, CONSTRAINT [tableName] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [id] ASC ) )
What is the equivalent of the above in for SQL Server 7? I don't have access to it via SQL Server Manager so have to run the script.
Hi, I wish to export a MS SQL table into a text file. I know that I can do this under the DTS wizard but I need the syntax so as to run in on my script. Can anyone help? Thanks!
I finally found a way to "deploy" my local SqlServerExpress (SSE) database to the remote Sql2K server... In VisualWebDeveloper (VWD) I can create the table definition and then save the creation sql script and use that in SSE Express Manager while connected to my remote DB. I am describing this because I'm so surprised no one has had problems with this as thousands of developers, some very unexperienced (as me maybe!), are trying the same situation now that some are offering 2.0 hosting... Well I thought this was a great idea until the Sql2K server is returning error messages on the script VWD created. So please could you help since I'm not that good at complex sql scripting. It seems the error comes from the ALTER TABLE syntax:BEGIN TRANSACTIONSET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ONSET ARITHABORT ONSET NUMERIC_ROUNDABORT OFFSET CONCAT_NULL_YIELDS_NULL ONSET ANSI_NULLS ONSET ANSI_PADDING ONSET ANSI_WARNINGS ONCOMMITBEGIN TRANSACTIONCREATE TABLE dbo.Table2 ( prID int NOT NULL IDENTITY (1, 1), DateInserted datetime NOT NULL, Title nvarchar(100) NOT NULL, Description nvarchar(MAX) NULL, CategoryID smallint NOT NULL, DateLastUpdated datetime NULL, Price int NOT NULL, SpecialPrice int NULL, ImgSuffix nvarchar(5) NULL, ImgCustomWidth smallint NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] TEXTIMAGE_ON [PRIMARY]GOALTER TABLE dbo.Table2 ADD CONSTRAINT PK_Table2 PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( prID ) WITH( STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] GOCOMMIT
I want to script the whole database - is this possible? I'd like to see the same scripts that I get when in management studio I right click on a table and do script table as - create to
is there anyway to get in one click all the tables or do I need to do one by one?
What would be the correct syntax, if any, that allows updating a tablevariable in a statement that uses the same table variable in a correlatedsubquery? Here's an example:DECLARE @t table (N1 int NOT NULL, N2 int NOT NULL)UPDATE @t SETN1 = (SELECT COUNT(1)FROM @t AS tWHERE t.N2 < @t.N2)This doesn't compile, complaining about "variable @t" in the WHERE clause.I'm not so interested in a way to rewrite this particular statement to makeit work, but rather in a general way to refer to table variables in thecontexts where correlation names cannot be used.Thank you.--remove a 9 to reply by email
Hi,I have a user-defined function which returns a table (call it '@a'),and has another table defined as a variable (call it '@b'). When I tryto do the following query, I get "Must declare the variable '@b'" and"Must declare the variable '@a'." How do I remedy this?The query:UPDATE @aSETstuff =(SELECT otherStuff From @bWHERE @b.someID = @a.someID)
