Collin writes "i have tried to do a query between 2 different tables that have different columns. within both these tables there is a column that has a column name different from the column name of the other table but the data within both columns is the same. i wanted a query that compares the data between the 2 tables.
Example is:
Table 1
Columns : firstname , age , id , grade.
Table 2
Columns : name, sex , school.
lets say that the data of column "firstname" of table 1 contains the same data as column "name" of table 2 and i would want to do a query that retrieves records for where data in the column "firstname" in table 1 is found in column "name" of table 2.
sql server 2000 with service pack 3 running on windows 2003 server service pack 1
Rgds,
Mr. C. "
I have a table of students, and a table of lecturers, and I wish to use one select statement to return a list of users.
What I really need to do is something like this:
SELECT Students.UserID AS UserID, Lecturers.UserID AS UserID, Students.FullName AS FullName, Lecturers.FullName AS FullName FROM Students, Lecturers
which would (in my dream world!) produce something like:
UserID FullName s0002131 Darren Student s0054242 Richard Student e13412 Michael Lecturer x92342 Linda Lecturer
Does anyone know how I should do this? Should I be doing it in an stored proceedure and returning the record set from that? Currently I'm only using ASP and one line SQL statements, and would like to continue doing so.
i'm not able to generate a sql script with the data in the tables! using sql express. i need this script to ganerate the same database with its datas in a new sql server. thanks in advance
I have this pivot table (I only post the static version as the problem only regards the single quotes)
SELECT * from( select DATEPART(year,DeliverydatePackingSlip) as Year, CASE WHEN DiffPromiseDateFirst < 0 Then '1 - too early' WHEN DiffPromiseDateFirst = 0 Then '2 - on time' ELSE '3 - too late' END as Delivery from iq4bisprocess.FactOTDCustomer WHERE OTD_Exclusion = 0)a PIVOT ( COUNT(Year) For Year
in ([2012],[2013],[2014],[2015])) as pvtNow, packing everything in a string parameter I always stumble over the single quotes. I tried to replace them with CHAR(39), I tried to define a parameter for each occurrence, but always get a syntax error. What am I doing wrong?declare @sql nvarchar(max)
declare @title1 nvarchar(20) declare @title2 nvarchar(20) declare @title3 nvarchar(20) set @title1 = '1 - too early' set @title2 = '2 - on time' set @title3 = '3 - too late'
[Code] .....
exec sp_executesql @sqlThis would throw:Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 3 Incorrect syntax near 'early'.
I have these 3 tables in a database for printed chamber music works:
Table INSTRUMENTS: List of musical instruments   Column ID      -- int, primary key   Column sInstrument -- string
Table PTRS_INSTRUMENTATION:   Column ID      -- int, primary key   Column lInstrument -- int, points to a row in table INSTRUMENTS via ID   Column lMainItem  -- int, points to a row in table MAINITEMS via ID   Column lInstrSeqNum -- int, sequential number of like instruments within one Main Item    Table MAINITEMS: List of chamber music works   Column ID      -- int, primary key   Column sItem    -- string    Each chamber music work (Main Item) requires an ensemble of musicians playing several instruments. Some of them may be the same, such as 2 violins. A classical quartet, for instance, consist of 2 violins, 1 viola and 1 cello. I am concerned here only with one of the instruments (although it may occur several times).
I want to extract a list of Main Items where the instrument is given (e.g., 'violin'),
And the maximum of PTRS_INSTRUMENTATION.lInstrSeqNum is a given number (e.g., 2).
Hi, I am hoping someone may have tried this before.......
Our application takes user details from Active directory, and stores the Guid in the database against an autonumber field for an easy to use userid. Any time the application wants to know anything about the user, it gets the information from Active Directory based upon the stored Guid.
I am writing a query to be used in generating reports, so I don't want to use .NET, Only SQL. I would like to be able to extract the username from Active Directory using SQL, so that the user's name, and not just their ID can be used in the report.
So far I have been able to extract all of my users names and their Guids from Active Directory using SQL, and I can extract the user Guid from our database. The problem I am having is comparing the 2! Visually they look the same, however the datatypes are different. If I convert the ActiveDirectory Guid to varchar I get gobbledegook, and if I convert the stored database Guid to varbinary then it's value is changed.
The query as it stands is below:
SELECT convert(varchar(50), [Name]) as FullName,objectGUID,ADSPath FROM openquery(ADSI, 'SELECT name, objectGuid, ADSPath FROM ''<LDAP Path>'' WHERE objectClass = ''User''') WHERE objectGuid in(Select ADObjectGUID FROM users WHERE UserId='1')
I am working with SQL Server 2000 - as many of our clients are still using this system, so solutions based on SQL Server 2005 would not be practical. (I beleive there are ways of running .NET code from SQL 2005 which would solve this problem)
I'm trying to integrate the security settings for our system into the reports and search and its a nightmare trying to fit in all the rules.
Basically I have a massive custom search query which I now have filter even further. [URL] for previous discussions on this query, which I'm currently happy with).
so we have 6 different types of transactions. each type can have different admins. the search can be done for either 1 type or all types.Transactions by default are available to everyone, But there are a few (probably less than 1% of all) that security is enabled which is simply done by added people to the security table.
each transaction can be see by
* Everyone If no record found in security table for transaction.
* If even just one transaction found, the below have permission to view it.
- Person who raised transaction
- person currently responsible for it.
- person currently working on it.
- everyone in the security table for this transaction.
- Admins for this Transaction Type.
So when someone does a search I need to fit all the above. Because I'm building the search query it does make it a little easier to accommodate the various scenarios.And I think I have them all EXCEPT someone who is trying to search for records under ALL types, but is an admin of just 1 or 2 of the types. Ie they have too be able to see all records for those they are admins for, and then have normal security imposed for the other types of records.
The section near "DECLARE @IsUserAdmin AS BIT" sets admin flags for when they are an admin of a single type if searching for a single type, or sets admin flag if they are an admin for all types.
ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[uspJobSearch] @csType as nvarchar(20) = '-1', @status as nvarchar(20) = '-1', @startID as nvarchar(50) = '', @endID as nvarchar(50) = '', @complaintType as nvarchar(50) ='',
An error is entered into the table, across two tables - tblErrors_ER and tblPolicyNumbers_ER - each error generates a PK (ErrorID) and can have any number of policy numbers which will be referenced by its own PK but linked to each error by its FK (ErrorID).I want to display each error in a Gridview in ASP.Net - columns included will be ErrorID, ErrorType, DateLogged from tblErrors_ER and PolicyNumber from tblPolicyNumbers_ER.If an Error has more than one policy number I only want to show the error once in the GridView with the word MULTIPLE under policy number.
I have changed the Count(*) to Count(tblPolicyNumbers_ER.POlicyNUmber) which gives me the same undesired result as above. I have also left it as Count(*) and the entire CASE expression within the GROUP BY statement as suggest above which generated an error saying I can not use an expression in a group by clause.
If I leave Count(*) = 1 where it is in the original SELECT statement but swap the = for > then something happens, close to what I require but not as intended. It returns:
ErrorID ErrorType DateLogged PolicyNumber --------------------------------------------------------------- 1 Test 08/08/2012 Multiple 2 Test 08/08/2012 Multiple
this would suggest the original syntax is close to being accurate but I can not get it to work.
I have two queries yielding the same result that I wanted to compare for performance. I did enter both queries in one Mangement Studio query window and execute them as one batch with the actual query plan included.Query 1 took 8.2 seconds to complete and the query plan said that the cost was 21% of the batchQuery 2 took 2.3 seconds to complete and the query plan said that the cost was 79% of the batch.The queries were run on my local development machine. I was the only user. No other programs were running at the time of this test. The results are repeatable.I understand that the query with the lowest cost is not necessarily the fastest query. On the other hand, the difference is quite big. The query that has approx. 80% of the cost takes 20% of the time and the other way around. I have two questions:
Is such a discrepancy normal?Can conclusions be drawn from the cost distribution? For instance, does the query that takes 8.2 seconds but only costs 21% scale better?
Hi,I have a sql query like this select avg([mycolumn]) from data where date > '1/5/08' and date < '1/10/08' group by [mycolumn]order by [mycolumn] descIf all values within that average are numbers, I'm fine. If it's a 0 (not a null, a 0) it doesn't get averaged in. For instance, values 0,1,2 should produce an average of 1.(0+1+2)/3 = 1. But sql is returning a value as if my 0's were nulls and not factored in: (1+2)/2 = 1.5Does anyone know why this is happening and how to fix it?
select avg([mycolumn]) from data where date > '1/5/08' and date < '1/10/08' group by [mycolumn] order by [mycolumn] desc
If all values within that average are numbers, I'm fine. If it's a 0 (not a null, a 0) it doesn't get averaged in. For instance, values 0,1,2 should produce an average of 1.
(0+1+2)/3 = 1.
But sql is returning a value as if my 0's were nulls and not factored in:
(1+2)/2 = 1.5
Does anyone know why this is happening and how to fix it?
Hi,I'm trying to include a button control inside an iff where I am showing the results of a datalist. My aim is for each user listed, to show whether or not he is already a friend of the logged in user. To do this, I want to create an iff where if the user is already a friend, I will show the text "already a friend". If the user is not yet a friend, there will be a button saying "add as friend" which when clicked will execute an insert query to the database to add that user as a friend. I tried the code below, but it doesn't seem to recognize the button inside the iff. I really need a button to work if the result of the iff condition is DBNull.Value... Can anyone please help? <%#IIf(Container.DataItem("userNameIfFriend") Is DBNull.Value, "<asp:LinkButton id='addbuddy' runat='server' > Add as buddy</asp:LinkButton>", "Already buddy")%> I also tried the code below instead, but it doesn't work either, and I do not know what to include instead of true and false, since the button would only be enabled if the case was true. <asp:LinkButton id='addbuddy' runat='server' Enabled="<%#IIf(DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, “userNameIfFriend�) is DBNull.Value, “True�, “False�)%>">Add as friend</asp:LinkButton> Thanks a lot.
I have a three server peer-to-peer replication setup that includes articles for tables and views. As I understand the BOL, scheme changes -- which I take to mean changes, amont other things, changes in the design of a table or view -- should automatically replicate to the other servers in the topology. Here are my quesitons:
When including a view as part of the publication, what is it, exactly, that is getting replicated? If all the tables supporting a given view are being replicated, and the view exists on all three boxes, whatelse, besides the view schema (and changes thereto) is being replicated?
Secondly, if in fact schema changes are replicated, why can't I modify a view that is part of a publication? When I try to make a change to such a view, I get a server timeout message, every single time. When I remove the view from the publication, I can make the modification with no trouble. What does replicating schema changes mean if I can't make changes to the schema?
I am processing multiple flatfiles in the same folder using a "for each loop". Inorder to keep track of the file where the record comes from, I would like to add the full path and filename to the record that gets written to SQL.
I'm using reporting services actions to execute some javascript. My javascript is quite complicated. Thus I don't want to duplicated it on each item. I've created javascript function and wan't to execute it from actions. But I can't find the way how to include my javascript code into my reports. If there's way to include it for all reports generated on reporting services server - it works fine for me.
Hi, I'm trying to write a SQL SELECT statement where the phone numer ("telnr") is divided on three rows. How do I write a newline? I've tried , NEWLINE, and a few others. Thanks in advance! Pettrer, Sweden (VB, Sql Server, VWD Express, Asp.Net 2.0) Code: SelectCommand="SELECT [gID], [enamn], [fnamn], telnr1 + ' ' + telnr2 + ' ' + telnr3 As telnr, [epost] FROM... The corresponding gridview's cell's value is 08-43 244 234 08-432 23 08-424333 and should be 08-43 244 234 08-432 23 08-424333
Here's my situation: I need to move several application db's to a new server. The current server is SQL 7.0 SP2, the new server will be SQL 7.0 SP3.
In order to avoid having the problems of mismatched logins and db user definitions, I'd like to restore the current master over the master that's created at install on the new server.
I was doing some testing of this by trying to restore the 7.0 SP2 master onto a SQL 7.0 DE edition and had some problems. (Obviously, this is not the exact scenario that I need to take place -- I want to restore standard edition to standard edition.)
Is restoring the master db from different service packs under 7.0 going to pose a problem? Is restoring the master db the best way to get around the logins issue when moving db's?
I am trying to write a stored procedure that will automatically link a server and then run a stored proc on the newly linked server. At the end the stored proc will drop the server. I do not want a permanantly linked server due to the fact that this only has to be ran once a month, can you run a remote stored proc any other way then linking the servers?? Cheers to all who reply
Hello, I understand that we should use SSMS -> Server Properties -> Memory to put a cap on the SQL server memory usage, therefore it gives some space memory for OS, this is based on the fact if the max memory is not specified, SQL will use whatever available memory and eventually crash the system.
My question is that when a server has SSIS and SSAS services installed along with the SQL service. Would the max memory setting covers the SSIS and SSAS memory usage, or the SSIS and SSAS has to shared the memory with OS?
Hi,I have 2 tables, Mail_subject and Mail_Usage.Mail_Subject contains the subject, body and some other bits of info.CREATE TABLE [Waterford_MailSubject] ([ID] [int] NOT NULL ,[MailSubject] [nvarchar] (50) COLLATESQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CS_AS NULL ,[MailCategory] [nvarchar] (50) COLLATESQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CS_AS NULL ,[MailBody] [ntext] COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CS_AS NULL ,[MailCreateDate] [smalldatetime] NOT NULL) ON [PRIMARY] TEXTIMAGE_ON [PRIMARY]GOMail_Usage records the amount of times a certain mail was sent.CREATE TABLE [Waterford_MailUsage] ([ID] [int] NOT NULL ,[RepScreenName] [nvarchar] (50) COLLATESQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CS_AS NULL ,[MemberScreenName] [nvarchar] (50) COLLATESQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CS_AS NULL ,[MailSubject] [nvarchar] (50) COLLATESQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CS_AS NULL ,[TimeDate] [smalldatetime] NULL ,) ON [PRIMARY]GOThey are joined by Subject (not my idea, its a DB ive inherited).What i need is to get the Mail Subject and the number of times thatMail was sent. Ive Joined them using an INNER JOIN which gave me acount of the number of times each one occoured except for Mails thathave not been used. I need to get zero as the count of Mails notsent. Ive tried a LEFT OUTER JOIN but it didnt work either.Can someone point out what i need to do ?
I've seen plenty of posts regarding the estimation of table size,usually in the processing of planning for server storage needs.Well, I've got a different problem. I need to know how much data eachof our Customers are using in a Database. (1 SQL DB stores multiplecustomers).Basically, I want to be able to say: Customer A: 45.5 MB, Customer B:655 MB.So, how can I ask SQL Server how much data each Row in each table istaking up? I want to be able to calculate nightly the total size, so Iwould take each row in each table that belong to the customer, and addall the sizes together. I want to take into account blobs that arestoring images and PDF files also.Thanks in advance,Jesse Wolgamott
Im try to use SQL server 2000 and use Enterprise to cript a table But my result is only table structure in the script (myfile.sql) (something like "create table Tb1, column..") and not have any data in my table included. how good it is if it can write some insert statement (depend on number of records existed). Could I have any way to do it with MS SQLServer 2000? Thank you much. DongMT
I am trying to add an Imports statement to the beggining of the custome code section of my report but I recieve this error. There is an error on line 0 of custom code: [BC30465] 'Imports' statements must precede any declarations.
We are thinking of using a Sql Server Express database (.mdb.mdf) as a data resource in a Windows Forms application that we will be distributing to clients. When the application is built, the mdb file is copied to the bin directory.
In order for clients to access this database, will they need to have an instance of the SQLEXPRESS server installed on their computer? Or since the .mdb.mdf file is being accessed from a .Net 2.0 application, there is no need to install a separate db component?
If I do have to separately install the db component on the client end, is this the way to go about it? This? Or is there a different/better way?
Why is it that when I include a column from my SQL Server database table, which has it's Allow Nulls checked, in the data source of a control that the record becomes not update-able? How do I get around this?
I have a report that is built using the report builder and the report model that was created. With the fields that are displayed in the report, it could be possible for the database to have multiple rows with the same values for all the fields (that are displayed in the report). The PK will be different, but this is not displayed in the report as the PK won't make sense in the report. So what happens is that the report displays just 1 record even though the database has multiple records because all the fields (that are displayed in the report) are identical. Is there a way to make the report display all the rows irrespective of duplicates?
I'm working on an MSI-based install that installs a suite of applications. One of the applications requires SQL Server 2005 Express to be installed or already on the machine, but if the user doesn't want that app installed, I don't want to have to bother with the SQL Server issue; however, if that app is to be installed and SQL Server is not already installed, I want to be able to have it installed automatically during our install in order to make it easier for our end users. The obvious answer to this is to launch the SQL Server Express install as a nested MSI install at the appropriate point in our install. Since the SQL Server install is so complex, I was wondering if this would work if I were to launch the SQL Server install's setup.exe; or do I have to launch one of its dozen MSI files? If it's the latter, which one should my install launch? (Or is the SQL Server Express install simply too complex to be included in my install in this way? My plan is to have the SQL Server install sitting somewhere on our install CD - we've already obtained a redistribution licence - and have our install access it from there.) And will SQL Server Express appear as a separate entry in the Add/Remove Programs applet if it's installed this way? (I'd like to be able to leave SQL Server in place when uninstalling our application suite - or even just the one app that needs it - and allow SQL Server to be uninstalled separately if the user wishes.)
I am new to sql server and i would like to set up a multimedia database (includes photos) using sql server (regardless of the version). How can i achieve that?
I'm trying to distribute an application but I face a little problem. I want to install the .net framework and SQL Server Express while my app installs itself in the host PC. Also I would like to let SQL server express prepared for remote conections, all of this in a single install project and totally transparent for the user.
I don't if it can be acomplished using scripts or some other thing, please help...
I am transfering data from a DB2 table to a SQL 2005 table using the OLE DB Source, Data Converstion then the OLE DB Destionation.
So, I have a numeric (Precision 3, Scale 2) field with NULL value in the DB2 table.
I'm trying to transfer these data to a SQL2005 table and I am receiving this error message below:
"[Destination Table TFACIL [18]] Error: There was an error with input column "COMB_OPPT_PRCT" (2865) on input "OLE DB Destination Input" (31). The column status returned was: "The value violated the integrity constraints for the column.". "
The field must accept null because of the APPLICATION ( i can't change it, im not the owner ).
