Remote Db Update, How To?
Dec 29, 2007
hi all,
i have a local SQL server running with my Products table, now very soon we want to launch a website (asp.net 2.0 with sql 2k5), hosted on a shared environment, which synchronises with our local SQL. Replication is out of the question.
i tested already with a webservice on our local server, but i can't find the right way how to periodically update our online Db.
since our website has over 200 visits a day, i can't do a check everytime the code is launched.
Our local server has a slow upload speed + is not 99.9% garantueed online... the dataset has a 1Mb file size.
i do have a boolean which indicates if there are new products or not, in this way i don't have to download the full dataset on my local SQL.
(i can provide a list with only the new products and a list of products which have to be deleted, but still, i'm looking for the best way WHEN to do the update)
Forcing an update from my local server to the online server seems a problem since i have restricted rights on the online server.
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Sep 3, 2007
Hi Everyone,
I develop a asp.net 2.0 site with Sql2005 Database, now i want to publish it on a webhosting service.
Once I copy the DB to app_data folder on webhosting, what i can do to update data from my local sql2000 server?
I want update data daily, may I use SQL replication? How? I can access my sql2005 DB by FTP?
Any ideas?
Thanks a lot.
Regards,
Bordonhos
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Dec 10, 2000
Can someone help me, PLEASE:
How to update a remote sql server 7 database!
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Jan 22, 2008
i have a local SQL Server Express 2005 on my local machine and i want my software to update from the SQL Expres to the SQL Server when the user click the save button to keep an image of the local database on the remote server without having to backup a file and restore it?
*** I am using C# and SQl Server 2005
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May 12, 2007
Hi,
I'm using "Microsoft SQL Server Database Publishing Wizard" to import and create database on a remote server.
Is there a convenient tool to update SQL database on a remote server to match with database that I have on my computer?
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Jun 12, 2008
I have a database on my web hosting site. It is a sql server 2005 database that was created in sql server management studio express.
I can access this database in code using a connection string and do things like show results on my page.
However I now want to do things like delete certain records, or update stored procedure criteria, usually I would do this by running sql in management studio but as my database is now online with the hosting company how would I do this?
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Dec 19, 2001
Hiya!
I'm developing an app. using SQL Server 7 (as the back end) for a company supporting approx. 200 unrelated clients, all in different locations. There is no LAN or WAN connection between them, so we'd probably need to use TCP/IP. The problem is as follows: We have dynamic reports in our app. which are run based on data in two tables. Whenever we add a new report we'd like to send it to all of our clients i.e. update their tables to reflect the additional rows of new report info. How would this best be handled, by DTS or Replication or BCP? And how could it be done with either?
Thanks,
Sarah
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Apr 16, 2008
Hello,
I have an application that uses a MS SQL 2005 database. When data is changed in certain tables, that data needs to be pushed to a MySQL box. I've added the MySQL server as a linked server in SQL 2k5 and I can delete and insert data with no problem, however when I try to update I get the following error (query included):
Code Snippet
with RemoteTable(r_AccountID, r_Name)
as (select AccountID, Name from openquery(RACS_TEST, 'select AccountID, Name from accounts'))
update RemoteTable
set r_Name = ex_Name
from Export_RACS_Accounts join remotetable
on r_AccountID = ex_AccountID
OLE DB provider "MSDASQL" for linked server "RACS_TEST" returned message "Row cannot be located for updating. Some values may have been changed since it was last read.".
Msg 7343, Level 16, State 4, Line 33
The OLE DB provider "MSDASQL" for linked server "RACS_TEST" could not UPDATE table "[MSDASQL]". The rowset was using optimistic concurrency and the value of a column has been changed after the containing row was last fetched or resynchronized.
What am I doing wrong ?
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Sep 20, 2007
Problem:
Two tables t1 and t2 have the same schema but exist on two different servers. Which is the better technique for updating t2 and why?
/****** Object: Table [dbo].[t1] Script Date: 9/6/2007 9:55:21 AM ******/
if exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[t1]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1)
drop table [dbo].[t1]
GO
if not exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[t1]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1)
BEGIN
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[t1] (
k [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL ,
a [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
b [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
c [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
x [int] NULL ,
y [int] NULL ,
amt [money] NULL
) ON [PRIMARY]
END
GO
/****** Object: Table [dbo].[t2] Script Date: 9/6/2007 9:55:44 AM ******/
if exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[t2]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1)
drop table [dbo].[t2]
GO
if not exists (select * from dbo.sysobjects where id = object_id(N'[dbo].[t2]') and OBJECTPROPERTY(id, N'IsUserTable') = 1)
BEGIN
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[t2] (
k [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL ,
a [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
b [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
c [char] (10) COLLATE SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS NULL ,
x [int] NULL ,
y [int] NULL ,
amt [money] NULL
) ON [PRIMARY]
END
GO
-- Technique 1:
set identity_insert t2 on
insert into t2 (k,a,b,c,x,y,amt)
select k,a,b,c,x,y,amt from t1
where not exists (select k from t2 where t1.k = t2.k)
set identity_insert t2 off
update t2
set a = t1.a,
b = t1.b,
c = t1.c,
x = t1.x,
y = t1.y,
amt = t1.amt
from t1
where t1.k = t2.k
-- Technique 2:
set identity_insert t2 on
declare t1_cur cursor for
select k,a,b,c,x,y,amt from t1
for read only
open t1_cur
declare @k int
declare @a char(10)
declare @b char(10)
declare @c char(10)
declare @x int
declare @y int
declare @amt money
fetch next from t1_cur into @k,@a,@b,@c,@x,@y,@amt
while(@@FETCH_STATUS = 0)
begin
if exists(select k from t2 where k = @k)
begin
update t2
set a = @a, b = @b, c = @c, x = @x, y = @y, amt = @amt
where (k = @k)
end
else
begin
insert into t2 (k,a,b,c,x,y,amt) values(@k,@a,@b,@c,@x,@y,@amt)
end
fetch next from t1_cur into @k,@a,@b,@c,@x,@y,@amt
end
close t1_cur
deallocate t1_cur
set identity_insert t2 off
Thanks,
Joel K
Database Adminstration/Application Development
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Sep 2, 2004
I have been looking for a solution for this for some time and have came up empty handed.
I have 2 servers development box and a live box. Time has passed and my live box has a lot of new data in the database and now I need to update the dev box so I can properly test with real data. Problem here is I want to keep the records that are in the dev box, update them if they exsist on the live box, because live server may or may not contain that record and isert all records that are not on the dev box database.
I hope I am making some sense here, I think I am just making it more difficult then it has to be.
Any suggestions?
Lito
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Sep 23, 2007
Hi All
Can any one solve my problem?
Requirements:
We have Our Local DataBase(SQL Server) Guess eg. DBLocal
We have a requirements to update this DBLocal Table Data with Other Database DBRemote(SQL Server) table data.
This Task is Schedule in a Week. Means We needs to update this DBLocal Table Every Week from DBRemote Data.
Both Side we have only one table. Means Source is One Table and Destination is Table One.
Right Now I have a connection string for DBRemote(SQL Server) and SQL Statement for getting Data from DBRemote(SQL Server).
can any one tell me what I need to do for achive this requirement?
please provide me link also; from there i can get enough information for my requirements.
Thanks in Advance
Regards
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Oct 17, 2006
UPDATE CD SET col1=SR.col1,col2=SR.col2,col3=SR.col3,col4=SR.col4,col5=SR.col5,col6=SR.col6,col7=SR.col7,
col8=SR.col8,col9=SR.col9,col10=SR.col10
FROM LNKSQL1.db1.DBO.Table1 CD
join Table2 USRI on USRI.col00 = CD.col00
join table3 SR on USRI.col00 = SR.col00
Here, I'm trying to tun this from an instance and do a remote update. col00 is a primary key and there is a clustered index that exists on this column. When I run this query, it does a 'select * from tabl1' on the remote server and that table has about 60 million rows. I don't understand why it would do a select *... Also, we migrated to SQL 2005 a week or so back but before that everything was running smooth. I dont have the execution plan from before but this statement was fast. Right now, I can't run this statement at all. It takes about 37 secs to do one update. But if I did the update on a local server doing remote joins here, it would work fine. When I tried to show the execution plan, it took about 10 mins to show up an estimated plan and 99% of the time was spent on Remote scan. Please let me know what I can do to improve my situation. Thank you
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Aug 14, 2001
In an ASP, I have a dynamically created SQL statement that amounts to "SELECT * FROM Server1.myDB.dbo.myTable WHERE Col1 = 1" (Col1 is the table's primary key). It returns the data immediately when executed.
However, when the same record is updated with "UPDATE Server1.myDB.dbo.myTable SET Comments = 'blah blah blah' WHERE Col1 = 1", the page times out before the query can complete.
I watched the program in Profiler, and I saw on the update that sp_cursorfetch was being executed as an RPC once per each row in the table. In a table of 78000 records, the timeout occurs well before the last record is fetched, and the update bombs.
I can run the same statements in Query Analyzer from a linked server and have the same results. The execution plan shows that a Remote Query is occurring on the select that returns 1 row, and a Remote Scan is taking place on the update scanning 78000 rows (I guess this is where all the sp_cursorfetch calls are happening...?).
How can I prevent the Remote Scan? How can I prevent the execution of the RPC sp_cursorfetch for each row in the remote table?
Thank you!
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Jul 21, 2015
We have a database on a 2005 box, which we need to keep in sync with one on a 2014 box (until we can turn off the one on 2005). The 2005 database is still being updated with changes that must be applied to the 2014 database, given the nature of the data (medical documents) we need to ensure updates are applied to the 2014 database in very near real time (these changes are - for example - statuses, not the documents themselves).
Cunning plan #1, ulgy - not at all a fan of triggers - but use an after update trigger to run a sp on the remote box via a linked server in this format, with a SQL Server login for the linked server with permissions to EXEC the remote proc.
CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[SourceUpdate] ON [dbo].[SourceTable]
AFTER UPDATE
AS
SET XACT_ABORT ON;
SET NOCOUNT ON;
IF UPDATE(ColumnName)
[Code] ....
However, while the sp can be run against the linked server as a standalone query OK, when running it in a trigger it's throwing
OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "WIBBLE" returned message "The transaction manager has disabled its support for remote/network transactions.".
Msg 7391, Level 16, State 2, Procedure TheAfterUpdateTrigger, Line 19
The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "WIBBLE" was unable to begin a distributed transaction.
Whether it actually possible to call a proc on a remote box via a trigger and if so what additional hoops need to be jumped through (like I said, it'll run OK called via SSMS)?
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Jul 23, 2005
Greetings -I'm using an Access front end to a SQL Server (2000) databas*e. Viaseveral steps, I create a temp table and manipulate the data* in it.Iwant to update the backend with this new data but my UPDATE *queryfailsas my temp table is local and the SQL database doesn't know *about it.There are no linked tables in the FE database.I have the following (DAO):Set Db = CurrentDbSet Qdf = Db.CreateQueryDef(TMP_QUERY_NAME)Qdf.connect = ConnectString()sqlString = "UPDATE tblRemote " & _"SET " & _"tblRemote.Some_Foo = tblLocal.Foo, " & _"FROM tblRemote INNER JOIN tblLocal " & _"ON tblRemote.Some_ID = tblLocal.Some_ID;"Qdf.sql = sqlStringQdf.ReturnsRecords = FalseQdf.Execute dbFailOnErrorIs there any way of doing this without adding a linked table*?Thanks, chris
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Jun 2, 2015
- When I disable "allow remote connections to this server" from server properties>connection page, I can still remotely connect to the server from SSMS...so what is the impact of enable/disabling it?
- what is the impact of changing the remote query timeout (on the same page) from default value?
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Aug 23, 2006
Fellow Devs,
I have an instance of SQL Server Express 2005 running on another box and I have Remote Connections enabled over both TCP/IP and Named Pipes, but on my other box I keep getting the error that the server does not accept Remote Connections.
Any ideas why this might be happening? Is there some other configuration?
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Oct 11, 2007
HiI'm going insane.I have a club starter kit on my local server which is working fine.I have migrated the database to my remote host and seems to have transfered ok.For a brief period I was able to connect to the database remotely, but now I cannot I get the following, even though SQL Server Surface Area Config is set to accept remote connections.An error has occurred while establishing a connection to the server. When connecting to SQL Server 2005, this failure may be caused by the fact that under the default settings SQL Server does not allow remote connections. (provider: TCP Provider, error: 0 - A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond.)This is my connection string;<add name="ClubSiteDB" connectionString="Data Source=xx.xxx.xx.xx,xxxx; Network Library=DBMSSOCN; Initial Catalog=tets; User ID=sqladminbob;Password=sqlbob4398;" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient="/>I hav also tried to use aspnet_regsql.exe to add the remote provider but I get the same message. Thanks
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Nov 10, 2006
I am trying to add a linked server from a AMD x64 server (Windows 2003) with SQL Server 2005 64 bit to a Server running SQL 2000. These are not in the same domain.
I can create a linked server using the option "Be made using the login's current security context" but can not when trying to specify the security context, i.e. sa and the sa password. When I try I get the following message:
Msg 15185, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_addlinkedsrvlogin, Line 98
There is no remote user 'sa' mapped to local user '(null)' from the remote server 'DTS_FSERVER'.
I have several other x64 server that I have no problem creating a linked server and specifying sa and the sa password.
The problem with using "the login's current security context" option is that I get an error when trying to run any Jobs against the linked server. The job fails withe the following error:
Executed as user: NT AUTHORITYSYSTEM. Access to the remote server is denied because no login-mapping exists. [SQLSTATE 42000] (Error 7416). The step failed.
I'm sure the two errors are related. Any ideas what is going on?
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Mar 28, 2008
I just want to find out what the difference between a remote login and a remote query is. I'd have thought that a remote query inherently requires a remote login.
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May 16, 2008
Has anyone seen this error? It comes up when my app executes a select statement via linked server (from MSSQL 2000 to 2005) the second time it runs. It's basically a timed poll of tables in the remote database. It works once but the second time it executes I get the error from the remote db, it's just a select but I guess the cursor is still open so it can't run again. After the exception the select will run again, once and it just repeats. I have researched it a little and it looks like it mostly has to do with the isolation level of the transaction. Unfortunately based on the componet being used to access the database I don't beleive I have the ability to use transact SQL to call the isolation level (s) listed.
Here's the weird part though, at another site the same scenario is running fine. Same primary and remote db versions of MSSQL as well as the application and it runs fine. I guess my question is what type of setup parameters that may be defined in MSSQL 2005 for the remote database might make it behave in this manner in one instance and not the other? TIA in advance for any thoughts/assistance.
DT
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Jan 2, 2008
What's up with this?
This takes like 0 secs to complete:
update xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:
update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?
Edit:
Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.
2nd Edit:
Could it be to do with this linked server setting?
Collation Compatible
right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.
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Nov 11, 2007
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine.
However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane...
(0 row(s) affected)
(1 row(s) affected)
How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect)
(1 row(s) affected)
If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it.
Thanks
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Feb 16, 2006
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
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Oct 20, 2006
The Folowing code is not working anymore. (500 error)
Set objRS = strSQL1.Execute
strSQL1 = "SELECT * FROM BannerRotor where BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID)
objRS.Open strSQL1, objConn , 2 , 3 , adCmdText
If not (objRS.BOF and objRS.EOF) Then
objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value =objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value + 1
objRS.update
End If
objRS.Close
The .execute Method works fine
strSQL1 = "UPDATE BannerRotor SET Exposures=Exposures+1 WHERE BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID)
objConn.Execute strSQL1
W2003 + IIS6.0
Pls advice?
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Apr 16, 2015
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE(
ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName)
VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL
FROM MYOTHERTABLE
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May 27, 2008
hi need help how to send an email from database mail on row update
from stored PROCEDURE multi update
but i need to send a personal email evry employee get an email on row update
like send one after one email
i use FUNCTION i get on this forum to use split from multi update
how to loop for evry update send an single eamil to evry employee ID send one email
i update like this
Code Snippet
:
DECLARE @id nvarchar(1000)
set @id= '16703, 16704, 16757, 16924, 17041, 17077, 17084, 17103, 17129, 17134, 17186, 17190, 17203, 17205, 17289, 17294, 17295, 17296, 17309, 17316, 17317, 17322, 17325, 17337, 17338, 17339, 17348, 17349, 17350, 17357, 17360, 17361, 17362, 17366, 17367, 17370, 17372, 17373, 17374, 17377, 17380, 17382, 17383, 17385, 17386, 17391, 17392, 17393, 17394, 17395, 17396, 17397, 17398, 17400, 17401, 17402, 17407, 17408, 17409, 17410, 17411, 17412, 17413, 17414, 17415, 17417, 17418, 17419, 17420, 17422, 17423, 17424, 17425, 17426, 17427, 17428, 17430, 17431, 17432, 17442, 17443, 17444, 17447, 17448, 17449, 17450, 17451'
UPDATE s SET fld5 = 2
FROM Snha s
JOIN dbo.udf_SplitList(@id, ',') split
ON split.value = s.na
WHERE fld5 = 3
now
how to send an EMAIL for evry ROW update but "personal email" to the employee
Code Snippet
DECLARE @xml NVARCHAR(MAX)DECLARE @body NVARCHAR(MAX)
SET @xml =CAST(( SELECT
FirstName AS 'td','',
LastName AS 'td','' ,
SET @body = @body + @xml +'</table></body></html>'
EXEC msdb.dbo.sp_send_dbmail
@recipients =''
@copy_recipients='www@iec.com',
@body = @body,
@body_format ='HTML',
@subject ='test',
@profile_name ='bob'
END
ELSE
print 'no email today'
TNX
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Jul 23, 2005
Hello,I am trying to update records in my database from excel data using vbaeditor within excel.In order to launch a query, I use SQL langage in ADO as follwing:------------------------------------------------------------Dim adoConn As ADODB.ConnectionDim adoRs As ADODB.RecordsetDim sConn As StringDim sSql As StringDim sOutput As StringsConn = "DSN=MS Access Database;" & _"DBQ=MyDatabasePath;" & _"DefaultDir=MyPathDirectory;" & _"DriverId=25;FIL=MS Access;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;" &_"PWD=xxxxxx;UID=admin;"ID, A, B C.. are my table fieldssSql = "SELECT ID, `A`, B, `C being a date`, D, E, `F`, `H`, I, J,`K`, L" & _" FROM MyTblName" & _" WHERE (`A`='MyA')" & _" AND (`C`>{ts '" & Format(Date, "yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss") & "'})"& _" ORDER BY `C` DESC"Set adoConn = New ADODB.ConnectionadoConn.Open sConnSet adoRs = New ADODB.RecordsetadoRs.Open Source:=sSql, _ActiveConnection:=adoConnadoRs.MoveFirstSheets("Sheet1").Range("a2").CopyFromRecordset adoRsSet adoRs = NothingSet adoConn = Nothing---------------------------------------------------------------Does Anyone know How I can use the UPDATE, DELETE INSERT SQL statementsin this environement? Copying SQL statements from access does not workas I would have to reference Access Object in my project which I do notwant if I can avoid. Ideally I would like to use only ADO system andSQL approach.Thank you very muchNono
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Nov 9, 2007
It appears to update only the first qualifying row. The trace shows a row count of one when there are multiple qualifying rows in the table. This problem does not exist in JDBC 2000.
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Jul 23, 2006
I'm having a strange problem that I can't figure out. I have an SQL stored procedure that updates a small database table. When testing the Stored Procedure from the Server Explorer, it works fine. However, when I run the C# code that's supposed to use it, the data doesn't get saved. The C# code seems to run correctly and the parameters that are passed to the SP seem to be okay. No exceptions are thrown.
The C# code:
SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["touristsConnectionString"].ConnectionString);
SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("fort_SaveRedirectURL", conn);
cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure;
Label accomIdLabel = (Label)DetailsView1.FindControl("lblID");
int accomId = Convert.ToInt32(accomIdLabel.Text);
cmd.Parameters.Add("@accomId", SqlDbType.Int).Value = accomId;
cmd.Parameters.Add("@path", SqlDbType.VarChar, 250).Value = GeneratePath();
try
{
conn.Open();
cmd.ExecuteNonQuery();
}
catch(Exception ex)
{
throw ex;
}
finally
{
conn.Close();
}
The Stored Procedure:
ALTER PROCEDURE developers.fort_SaveRedirectURL
(
@accomId int,
@path varchar(250)
)
AS
DECLARE
@enabled bit,
@oldpath varchar(250)
/* Ensure that the accommodation has been enabled */
SELECT @enabled = enabled FROM Experimental_Accommodation
WHERE Experimental_Accommodation.id = @accomId
IF (@enabled = 1)
BEGIN
/* Now check if a path already exists */
SELECT @oldpath = oldpath FROM Experimental_Adpages_Redirect
WHERE Experimental_Adpages_Redirect.accom_id = @accomId
IF @oldpath IS NULL
BEGIN
/* If Path already exists then we should keep the existing URL */
/* Otherwise, we need to insert a new one */
INSERT INTO Experimental_Adpages_Redirect
(oldpath, accom_id)
VALUES (@path,@accomId)
END
END
RETURN
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May 13, 2008
I'm new to this forum.
This 'problem' has occured many times, but I've always found a way around it.
I have pages with datagrids, in which a user can edit a certain fields and then update the tables with new data. Lets say when a user edit a Name field and a money field. If he/she left those two fields blank, the table is automatically updated with a <null> (for the name field) and a 0 (for the money field.) Both these columns were set up to allow Null values.
Anyone has an idea why they were updated that way? And is there like a standard on how the data types are updated if a field is left blank?
Thank you very much.
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Mar 18, 2005
hi,friends
we show record from multiple table using single 'selectcommand'.
like....
---------
select *
from cust_detail,vend_detail
---------
i want to insert value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'insert command'.
is it possible?
give any idea or solution.
i want to update value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'update command'
i want to delete value in multiple database table(more than one) using singl 'delete command'
it is possible?
give any idea or solution.
it's urgent.
thanks in advance.
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Feb 18, 2006
I do realize that his could be posted in a few spots but I think the answer is in the SQL.
I have a ASP.NET page, with a SqlDataSource, Text Box and Calendar Controls. I have the textbox and calendar controls eval'ed to the same sql data source DateTime Field. The text box is formatted eval to small time and the calendars eval has no formatting.
ex:
<asp:TextBox ID="START_TIME" Text='<%# Eval("EVENT_START","{0:t}") %>' runat=server Width=200></asp:TextBox>
I want to merge the two controls; one has the date the other has the time when I update the pages data to the SqlDataSource field EVENT_START. I've tried a couple of methods, but I would like some other opinions. As Sql server only supports date and time together I am storing the two together.
I could merge the two together in the code behind on the update button's event handler or merge the two during the update query using parameters.
Not that I could get an illegal date for the calendar control, but I could get garbage from the textfield time. So I still would have to do validation on the text field before the SQL server could do the update.
There's a few ways to go about this, so I was wondering if anyone else has figured out an elegant way to handle it.
wbochar
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