Replicate Column To Subscriber - Even It If Is Unchanged In UPDATE Statement
Jan 12, 2007
Set publisher database table column to 1.
Replicate table to subscriber (column is also 1 on subscriber once it is replicated).
Set subscriber database column to 2.
Update publisher database column to 1 (even though it is already 1).
Change is NOT replicated to subscriber (it stays at 2).
This means that replication is comparing the insert statement to its current value in the database.
Is there any way to change this behavior? We want the the column to replicate to the subscriber.
I have the same database(3GB) in 2 physical locations in usa and europe
I need to create a publisher and subscriber between these 2 database without sending any snapshot because i have the same data in the 2 sides, is it possible ?
We need to replicate multiple databases (publications) to one central subscriber. The schema of those articles are identical in all publications and also the primary keys in publications do not have any overlap.
Is this possible?If yes is there any specific thing that I should consider for it's implementation? Should each publication has it's own dedicated distributor or all of them can share one distributor?
Is it possible to replicate data from 3 publishers to a single/central subscriber transactionally? In other words I have Server A, Server B, Server C with databases A,B,C respectively. I need to replicate 2 articles from A,2 from B and 2 from C to a central Server D that hosts database D. D will have only 6 articles. The replication is Transactional Replication.
If it is possible what will be the drawbacks of such implementation? (if one server goes down will the whole replication break?) If not possible then what is the best way of implementing this?
We have a "main" SQL 2014 server who imports XML files using SSIS in a datacenter. In remote sites (which are warehouses), there is an instance of SQL 2014 Express. A merge replication is setup, as every operations done on each site must be "forwared" to the main database, as some XML files are generated as output for an ERP system.
Now, the merge replication replicate all the data to the server on each sites. But a specific site don't need the data of every other sites, only the data relevant to itself (which is the warehouse code). Is there a way to replicate only the data relevant to each individual sites to the subscribers? Or is there a better way than replication to accomplish this?
I'm new to SQL Server but not new to SQL because I used it with Oracle. I wonder if it is possible to do this kind of statement on SQL Server:
UPDATE TableX M SET (M.column1, M.column2, M.column3)= (SELECT T.column1, T.column2, G.column3) FROM Table_Y T, Table_Z G WHERE join condition)) WHERE EXISTS (join condition for TableX)
Basically, I'd like to update multiple columns in one statement but for some reason I can not get it to work.
Is there a way to set a field value to the column default in an update statement? Eg. UPDATE Table2 SET field1 = DefaultValue where DefaultValue is the field1 column default in the table definition. The reason I need to do this is when I delete a record from Table1, I need to set the foreign key in Table2 to the default (I don't want to delete the record in Table2, just want to set the key to a default key). I could hard-code the default value in the stored procedure but I think that's just not clean. If I create a new instance of the DB and the default value changes, I'd need to change the stored procedure(s). Just not clean... To avoid a drawn-out discussion, there are reasons why I can't setup a relationship between the two tables and use "ON DELETE SET DEFAULT". Any info greatly appreciated.
and i have also another table which is namelist that is linked to the masterlist table.. after i search for the record andrew in the table namelist..i updated andrew as 25 and sex is female..now i want reset andrew's record, same to the records that andrew has in the table masterlist..
I'm trying to write a script that would only update a column if it exists.
This is what I tried first:
IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'Enrollment' AND COLUMN_NAME = 'nosuchfield') BEGIN UPDATE dbo.Enrollment SET nosuchfield='666' END
And got the following error:
Server: Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Invalid column name 'nosuchfield'.
I'm curious why MS-SQL would do syntax checking in this case. I've used this type of check with ALTER TABLE ADD COLUMN commands before and it worked perfectly fine.
The only way I can think of to get around this is with:
IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'Enrollment' AND COLUMN_NAME = 'nosuchfield') BEGIN declare @sql nvarchar(100) SET @sql = N'UPDATE dbo.Enrollment SET nosuchfield=''666''' execute sp_executesql @sql END
which looks a bit awkward. Is there a better way to accomplish this?
I have a single update statement that updates the same column multipletimes in the same update statement. Basically i have a column thatlooks like .1.2.3.4. which are id references that need to be updatedwhen a group of items is copied. I can successfully do this withcursors, but am experimenting with a way to do it with a single updatestatement.I have verified that each row being returned to the Update statement(in an Update..From) is correct, but that after the first update to acolumn, the next row that does an update to that same row/column combois not using the updated data from the first update to that column.Does anybody know of a switch or setting that can make this work, or doI need to stick with the cursors?Schema detail:if exists( select * from sysobjects where id = object_id('dbo.ScheduleTask') and type = 'U')drop table dbo.ScheduleTaskgocreate table dbo.ScheduleTask (Id int not null identity(1,1),IdHierarchy varchar(200) not null,CopyTaskId int null,constraint PK_ScheduleTask primary key nonclustered (Id))goUpdate query:Update ScheduleTask SetScheduleTask.IdHierarchy = Replace(ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy, '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.', '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.Id as varchar) + '.')FromScheduleTaskINNER JOIN ScheduleTask as TaskCopyData ONScheduleTask.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDTaskCopyData.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDcharindex('.' + CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.',ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy) > 0Query used to verify that data going into update is correct:selectScheduleTask.Id, TaskCopyData.Id, ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy, '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.', '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.Id as varchar) + '.'FromScheduleTaskINNER JOIN ScheduleTask as TaskCopyData ONScheduleTask.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDTaskCopyData.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDcharindex('.' + CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.',ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy) > 0
My current proc updates(updates using joins of two or three tables) millions of records as per the condition provided for each department.
However, when the proc fails it writes to a ErrorTable, ERROR_MESSAGE(), ERROR_SEVERITY() and which department has failed.
Since the records are updated keeping the selected departments in loop, I get the department in a temp variable.Now, I was asked to log the specific record where the failure was occured.Something like log the identity column value or primary key value which record has failed.
I am testing SQL Server 2005. I need a replication where "DELETE delivery format" field in Table Articles Properties is set to "Do not replicate DELETE statement". Unfortunately nothing I set in this dialog is saved and used. Doesn matter what I change the replication behaves the same and the next time I open "Table Articles Properties", every value is still default.
Am I doing something wrong or is it an issue (bug) in 2005 replication?
I googled about the issue and also searched in the SQL Server Replication threads on this site, both with no success. The thread named "Selective replication of DELETE transactions" doesn't provide enough information about SWL Server 2005 replication configuration.
Use Case: I have a small "operational" database with live data. I need to keep a complete history for all records that ever appeared within the "operational" DB. It came to my mind that I can "easily" achieve this if I set up a replication that does not replicate a delete statement ever. I strongly prefer not to mess with the subscription stored procedures but to configer my publication properly instead.
Hi,I have table with three columns as belowtable name:expNo(int) name(char) refno(int)I have data as belowNo name refno1 a2 b3 cI need to update the refno with no values I write a query as belowupdate exp set refno=(select no from exp)when i run the query i got error asSubquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when thesubquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used asan expression.I need to update one colum with other column value.What is the correct query for this ?Thanks,Mani
I have a four tables called plandescription, plandetail and analysisdetail. The table plandescription has the columns DetailQuestionID which is the primary and identity column and a QuestionDescription column.
The table plandetail consists of the column PlanDetailID which the primary and identity column, DetailQuestionID which is the foreign key attribute of plandescription table and a planID column.
The third table analysisdetail consists of a analysisID which the primary and identity column, PlanDetailID which is the foreign key attribute of plandetail table and a scenario.
Below is the schema of the three tables
I have a two web form that will insert, update and delete data into these three tables in a two transaction. One web form will perform CRUD operations in plandescription and plandetail table. When the user inserts QuestionDescription and planid in this web form, I will insert the QuestionDescription Value in the plandescription table and will generate a DetailQuestionID value and this value is fed to the plandetail table with the planid. Here I will generate a PlanDetailID.
Once this transaction is done, I will show the second web form in which the user enters the scenario and this will be mapped with the plandescription using the PlanDetailID.
This schema cannot be changes as this is the client requirement. When I insert values I don’t have any problem. However when I update existing data, I need to delete existing PlanDetailID in the plandetail table and recreate PlanDetailID data for that DetailQuestionID and planID. This is because, the user will be adding or deleting a planID associated with the QuestionDescription.
Once I recreate PlanDetailID for that DetailQuestionID and planID, I need to update the old PlanDetailID with the new PlanDetailID in the third table analysisdetail for the associated analysisID.
I created a #Temp table called #DetailTable to insert the values analysisID, planid and old PlanDetailID and new PlanDetailID so that I can have them in update statement once I delete the data from plandetail table for that PlanDetailID.
Then I deleted the plandetailid from the plandetail table and recreate PlanDetailID for that DetailQuestionID. During my recreation I fetched the new PlanDetailID’s created into another temp table called #InsertedRows
After this I am running a while loop to update the temp table #DetailTable with the newly created PlanDetailID for the appropriate planID’s. The problem is here. When I have the same number of planID’s for example 2 planID’s 1,2 I will have only two old PlanDetailID and new PlanDetailID for that planID and analysisID.But When I add a new PlanID or remove a existing planID I am getting null value for that newly added or deleted planID. This is affecting my update statement of analysisdetail table as PlanDetailID cannot be null.
I tried to remove the Null value from the #DetailTable by running the update statement of analysis detail in a while loop however its not working.
DECLARE @categoryid INT = 8 DECLARE @DetailQuestionID INT = 1380 /*------- I need the query to run for the below three data. Here i'm updating my planids that already exists in my database*/ DECLARE @planids VARCHAR(MAX) = '2,4,5'
I'm trying to replicate client data from multiple databases into a single table. So database A, B and C replicate client data to a table in database Z. There is a settings table on A, B and C that holds the businessID and I use a function in a computed column to add this to the client table. At the moment I have just database A and Z as a test and what happens is the computed column gets replicated as a computed column with the formula.
Can I change this so that I can replicate the computed value (at db A,B,C) of this column?
I don't really want to add a businessID to the table if possible as I'm going to need to add a number of other tables to this replication which will each need to have the businessID, a computed column would be much easier and save updating a load of scripts.
If the above is not possible is there some other solution available so I can identify which database the records came from in the table on database Z?
My dimension table has a column called AccountNumber varchar(20), which is the business key.
I use SCD task to manage TYPE 2 changes on a particular column.
However, the SCD component doesn;t seem to recognize the change on the column. The datatype of the column in the dimension table and the datatype of the input column is same.
The datatype for the business key , which is varchar(20) is also same as the input column business key.
However, when I ran SQL profiler to see what is going on, I found that the SELECT statement
that was issued with the business key in the WHERE clause has char(20) instead of varchar(20)
for the business key. So, for example if the account number in the dimension table is '1234',
the SELECT statement is checking for '1234 '.
I trimmed the incoming string but I still get the problem. Any help would be appreciated.
Dear All, i dont know the exact reson why, but i'm guessing the reason for each table had a new guid column is because of transactional replication with update subscribers. actually i dont need this. can i change this to transactional replication? or i need to drop the column in each table? please guide me
Arnav Even you learn 1%, Learn it with 100% confidence.
I would like to add a column to a published table but not have that column replicated to subscribers. I can accomplish this via the UI by adding the column and then unchecking it. This adds the column to the publisher table but does not replicate it to the subscriber.
I am looking for a programmatic method to add a column to the base table and unmark it for replication.
I created a package that seems to work fine with a small amount of data. When I run the package however with more data (as in production) the merge join output is limites to 9963 rows, no matter if I change the number of input rows.
Situation as follows.
The package has 2 OLE DB Sources, in which SQL-statements have been defined in order to retrieve the data.
The flow of source 1 is: retrieving source data -> trimming (non-key) columns -> sorting on the key-columns.
The flow of source 2 is: retrieving source data -> deriving 2 new columns -> aggregating the data to the level of source 1 -> sorting on the key columns.
Then both flows are merged and other steps are performed.
If I test with just a couple of rows it works fine. But when I change the where-clause in the data source retrieval, so that the number of rows is for instance 15000 or 150000 the number of rows after the merge join is 9963.
When I run the package in debug-mode the step is colored green, nevertheless an error is displayed:
Error: 0xC0047022 at Data Flow Task, DTS.Pipeline: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_PROCESSINPUTFAILED. The ProcessInput method on component "Merge Join" (4703) failed with error code 0xC0047020. The identified component returned an error from the ProcessInput method. The error is specific to the component, but the error is fatal and will cause the Data Flow task to stop running. There may be error messages posted before this with more information about the failure.
To be honest, a few more errormessages appear, but they don't seem related to this issue. The package stops running after some 6000 rows have been written to the destination.
Using SQL 7.0 I'd like to replicate just schema from DB on server A to DB on server B, then be able to replicate data only form DB on server B to DB on server A. I need help!!
Thanks for ANY information you can give me... ~Jepadria
I am currently having this problem with gridview and detailview. When I drag either onto the page and set my select statement to pick from one table and then update that data through the gridview (lets say), the update works perfectly. My problem is that the table I am pulling data from is mainly foreign keys. So in order to hide the number values of the foreign keys, I select the string value columns from the tables that contain the primary keys. I then use INNER JOIN in my SELECT so that I only get the data that pertains to the user I am looking to list and edit. I run the "test query" and everything I need shows up as I want it. I then go back to the gridview and change the fields which are foreign keys to templates. When I edit the templates I bind the field that contains the string value of the given foreign key to the template. This works great, because now the user will see string representation instead of the ID numbers that coinside with the string value. So I run my webpage and everything show up as I want it to, all the data is correct and I get no errors. I then click edit (as I have checked the "enable editing" box) and the gridview changes to edit mode. I make my changes and then select "update." When the page refreshes, and the gridview returns, the data is not updated and the original data is shown. I am sorry for so much typing, but I want to be as clear as possible with what I am doing. The only thing I can see being the issue is that when I setup my SELECT and FROM to contain fields from multiple tables, the UPDATE then does not work. When I remove all of my JOIN's and go back to foreign keys and one table the update works again. Below is what I have for my SQL statements:------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SELECT:SELECT People.FirstName, People.LastName, People.FullName, People.PropertyID, People.InviteTypeID, People.RSVP, People.Wheelchair, Property.[House/Day Hab], InviteType.InviteTypeName FROM (InviteType INNER JOIN (Property INNER JOIN People ON Property.PropertyID = People.PropertyID) ON InviteType.InviteTypeID = People.InviteTypeID) WHERE (People.PersonID = ?)UPDATE:UPDATE [People] SET [FirstName] = ?, [LastName] = ?, [FullName] = ?, [PropertyID] = ?, [InviteTypeID] = ?, [RSVP] = ?, [Wheelchair] = ? WHERE [PersonID] = ? ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------The only fields I want to update are in [People]. My WHERE is based on a control that I use to select a person from a drop down list. If I run the test query for the update while setting up my data source the query will update the record in the database. It is when I try to make the update from the gridview that the data is not changed. If anything is not clear please let me know and I will clarify as much as I can. This is my first project using ASP and working with databases so I am completely learning as I go. I took some database courses in college but I have never interacted with them with a web based front end. Any help will be greatly appreciated.Thank you in advance for any time, help, and/or advice you can give.Brian
Ok I have a query "SELECT ColumnNames FROM tbl1" let's say the values returned are "age,sex,race".
Now I want to be able to create an "update" statement like "UPATE tbl2 SET Col2 = age + sex + race" dynamically and execute this UPDATE statement. So, if the next select statement returns "age, sex, race, gender" then the script should create "UPDATE tbl2 SET Col2 = age + sex + race + gender" and execute it.
i was tasked to created an UPDATE statement for 6 tables , i would like to update 4 columns within the 6 tables , they all contains the same column names. the table gets its information from the source table, however the data that is transferd to the 6 tables are sometimes incorrect , i need to write a UPDATE statement that will automatically correct the data. the Update statement should also contact a where clause
the columns are [No] , [Salesperson Code], [Country Code] and [Country Name]
i was thinking of doing
Update [tablename] SET [No] = CASE WHEN [No] ='AF01' THEN 'Country Code' = 'ZA7' AND 'Country Name' = 'South Africa' ELSE 'Null' END
Hello,I am trying to update records in my database from excel data using vbaeditor within excel.In order to launch a query, I use SQL langage in ADO as follwing:------------------------------------------------------------Dim adoConn As ADODB.ConnectionDim adoRs As ADODB.RecordsetDim sConn As StringDim sSql As StringDim sOutput As StringsConn = "DSN=MS Access Database;" & _"DBQ=MyDatabasePath;" & _"DefaultDir=MyPathDirectory;" & _"DriverId=25;FIL=MS Access;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;" &_"PWD=xxxxxx;UID=admin;"ID, A, B C.. are my table fieldssSql = "SELECT ID, `A`, B, `C being a date`, D, E, `F`, `H`, I, J,`K`, L" & _" FROM MyTblName" & _" WHERE (`A`='MyA')" & _" AND (`C`>{ts '" & Format(Date, "yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss") & "'})"& _" ORDER BY `C` DESC"Set adoConn = New ADODB.ConnectionadoConn.Open sConnSet adoRs = New ADODB.RecordsetadoRs.Open Source:=sSql, _ActiveConnection:=adoConnadoRs.MoveFirstSheets("Sheet1").Range("a2").CopyFromRecordset adoRsSet adoRs = NothingSet adoConn = Nothing---------------------------------------------------------------Does Anyone know How I can use the UPDATE, DELETE INSERT SQL statementsin this environement? Copying SQL statements from access does not workas I would have to reference Access Object in my project which I do notwant if I can avoid. Ideally I would like to use only ADO system andSQL approach.Thank you very muchNono
It appears to update only the first qualifying row. The trace shows a row count of one when there are multiple qualifying rows in the table. This problem does not exist in JDBC 2000.
I'm writing a fairly involved stored procedure. In this Stored Procedure, I have an update statement, followed by a select statement. The results of the select statement should be effected by the previous update statement, but its not. When the stored procedure is finish, the update statement seemed to have worked though, so it is working.
I suspect I need something, like a GO statement, but that doesnt seem to work for a stored procedure. Can anyone offer some assistance?
I run the following statement and it will not update beyond 7 million plus rows and I have about 38 million to complete. I keep checking updated row counts and after 1/2 day it's still the same so I know something is wrong because it was rolling through no problem when I initiated it. I need to complete ASAP so it's adding to my frustration. The 'Acct_Num_CH' field is an encrypted field (fyi).
SET rowcount 10000 UPDATE [dbo].[CC_Info_T] SET [Acct_Num_CH] = 'ayIWt6C8sgimC6t61EJ9d8BB3+bfIZ8v' WHERE [Acct_Num_CH] IS NOT NULL WHILE @@ROWCOUNT > 0 BEGIN SET rowcount 10000 UPDATE [dbo].[CC_Info_T] SET [Acct_Num_CH] = 'ayIWt6C8sgimC6t61EJ9d8BB3+bfIZ8v' WHERE [Acct_Num_CH] IS NOT NULL END SET rowcount 0
Hello All,Is there a way to run sql select statements with column numbers inplace of column names in SQLServer.Current SQL ==> select AddressId,Name,City from AddressIs this possible ==> select 1,2,5 from AddressThanks in Advance,-Sandeep
I have a student table like this studentid, schoolID, previousschoolid, gradelevel.
I would like to load this table every day from student system.
During the year, the student could change schoolid, whenever there is a change, I would put current records schoolid to the previous schoolid column, and set the schoolid as the newschoolid from student system.
My question in my merge statement something like below
Merge into student st using (select * from InputStudent ins) on st.id=ins.studentid
When matched then update
set st.schoolid=ins.schoolid , st.previouschoolid= case when (st.schoolid<>ins.schoolid) then st.schoolid else st.previouschoolid end , st.grade_level=ins.grade_level ;
My question is since schoolid is et at the first line of set statement, will the second line still catch what is the previous schoolid?
Dim lblock As Boolean chkChecked = lblock strSQL = "UPDATE CLIENTS SET " If blnCompleted = True Then strSQL = strSQL & "COMPLETED_DT = '" & Format(Now(), "MM/dd/yyyy") & "', " Else strSQL = strSQL & "LAST_SAVED_DT = '" & Format(Now(), "MM/dd/yyyy") & "', " End If strSQL = strSQL & "COMMENTS = '" & FixString(txtcomments.Text) & "' " _ & "WHERE client_ID = " & iclientID & ""I want to put my booleen value lblock to sql too, I probably need value of it, It is checkbox, called chkblock, . how would I include this to update statement database field for that BLOCK =
