Hi,
Please let me know if it is possible to replicate a table with identity property defined in it. Both the publisher and subscriber tables have identity property defined. Which option should be used while setting up transactional replication to allow the identity values at the publisher pushed to the subscriber, which also has identity property defined? Not for replication option with the identity property also fails. Whichever option I choose I get the error, 'An explicit value for the identity column in table 'jobs_id_nfr' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON.' This works only if the identity property is not defined at the subscriber. But, I need to have the identity property defined at the subscriber also because the subscriber should be an exact copy of production.
When replicating a table which has an identity column I get the error: "Procedure cp_insert_tblname expects parameter @C1, which was not supplied.". The stored procedure appears to be called without any parameters so my insert stored procedure does not work. I know I'm missing something basic here!! Do I have to add the field names when telling replication to use a custom stored procedure. If not, how do arguments get passed to my SP, as globals somehow?
Hello friends, I am using sql server 2005. In some tables to create the column Autoincrement I had set the 'Idetity Specification' property to 'Yes'. I want to know that how can we do it through sql scripts i.e. by writing query. Please let me know Thanks & RegardsGirish Nehte
I have a VB script that I am using to run various DTS procedures. One of these involves using DataPumpTransformCopy to copy data from one table to another. The destination table has an Identity field that I would like to disable for the duration of the Transform.
I have tried opening a Command Object and running the "SET IDENTITY_INSERT" function beofre and after the Transform but although it doesn't produce any errors it doesn't seem to actually do anything...
I figure I need to try using the ALTER TABLE to disable the IDENTITY but I can't find an example of how to do this anywhere.. can anyone help me out here?
I assume that the identity property is stored within a given database, so there should be no need to run dbcc checkident after restoring from a backup. Is this a correct assumption?
hi i export tables from Local to Online Server But some tables have a column with Identity=True But after export tables that Property is not True How I can change it True With Query Analyzer????????/
Is there a way to remove the Identity property of a column in SQL Server 2000? The statement: <code> ALTER TABLE <table name> ALTER COLUMN <column name> DROP IDENTITY </code> returns a syntax error. Thank you, Jeff
Has anybody ever tried to do this. I can't figure it out. All I want to do is take an existing table that already has values in the column that I want to change and add the identity property to yes and set the identity seed and increment to a specific number. I know you can do it in the CREATE TABLE statement but is there a way to use the ALTER TABLE command?
Have anyone faced the timeout issue when setting a IDENTITY property of a column to NO.
Is there any way to resolve it ?
Note : The table on which I'm doing the operation is having approx 50 million records.
Thanks,
Hariarul.
I get the below error :
'TrnBillDetail' table - Unable to modify table. Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding.
Is there any way to remove IDENTITY property on particular table? I tried removing IDENTITY property using Manangement studio, but this operation behind the scene use migration concept that is by creating tmp table and then populating with data; droping the orginal and renaming the tmp back to original.
Second, i want some kind of generic solution using certain system table like aya.sysobjects, sys.identitycolumn etc such a way that i should be able to remove the idenity property from all of the table accross a database.
i need to alter all foreign keys in my database and uncheck the"Enforce relationship for replication" check box. Using the EM, Iextracted the code snippet below. unfortunately, when i run this testfrom query analyzer, then go back into the EM, the box is stillchecked.can anyone tell me what i am missing? any advice on unsetting thisattribute globally would be appreciated!BEGIN TRANSACTIONSET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ONSET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLESET ARITHABORT ONSET NUMERIC_ROUNDABORT OFFSET CONCAT_NULL_YIELDS_NULL ONSET ANSI_NULLS ONSET ANSI_PADDING ONSET ANSI_WARNINGS ONCOMMITBEGIN TRANSACTIONALTER TABLE dbo.CustomerCustomerDemoDROP CONSTRAINT FK_CustomerCustomerDemo_CustomersGOCOMMITBEGIN TRANSACTIONALTER TABLE dbo.CustomerCustomerDemo WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINTFK_CustomerCustomerDemo_Customers FOREIGN KEY(CustomerID) REFERENCES dbo.Customers(CustomerID) NOT FOR REPLICATIONGOCOMMITthanks!!
I have a number of "join" tables ie joins records from two other tables for example, an employee may be responsible for more than one product so the join table would look like this:
table name: employee_products Employee_id foreign key from employee table product_id goreign key from products table
My question is, how do I replication this table? Replication requires all table to have a primary key field. In this case, both fields are foreign keys and I dont have a primary key as the same data appears regularly in either field.
How should I get around this so I can implement replication? I dont want to have to add another field to be the primary key field.
I have a table that is used for reporting, the problem is that the data in the table is refreshed every 30 minutes with a bulk insert. I am trying to find a way to have two tables that are mirror images of each other and when the loading table is loaded, then the table assumes the identity of the reporting table. The basic prinicpal is I need to have the table be available almost all the time and when the bulk insert is happening, users cannot query. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Hi All!We are doing new development for SQL Server 2000 and also moving fromSQL 7.0 to SQL Server 2000.What are cons and pros for using IDENTITY property as PK in SQL SERVER2000?Please, share your experience in using IDENTITY as PK .Does SCOPE_IDENTITY makes life easier in SQL 2000?Is there issues with DENTITY property when moving DB from one serverto another? (the same version of SQL Server)Thank you in advance,Andy
How do i drop/remove the identity property for an existing column in all Tables where the Identity column is a primary key. The Script below was used to find all the tables that have an Identity Column as a primary key in a database. Now i want to remove the identity property from the Identity Columns that have a primary key in the database.
select pk.table_name, c.column_name,
from information_schema.table_constraints pk
INNER JOIN information_schema.key_column_usage c ON c.TABLE_NAME = pk.TABLE_NAME
and c.constraint_name = pk.constraint_name
where constraint_type = 'PRIMARY KEY'
and COLUMNPROPERTY(object_id(pk.table_name), column_name, 'IsIdentity') = 1
I am replicating an 80GB database between NY can CT and would like toknow why table sizes are different between the two.Here is an example of sp_spaceused::NY IOI_2007_04_23 rows(279,664) reserved(464,832)data(439,960) index_size(24,624)CT IOI_2007_04_23 rows(279,666) reserved(542,232)data(493,232) index_size(48,784)Thanks,
Client is running X- version of application and corresponding database size is huge. Now client's vendor is releasing Y-version of same application with many database schema changes (like new tables added, new columns added, renamed existing columns and etc) To upgrade to the Y-version, vendor is suggesting to my client that down the system and do the upgrade for application/database to Y-version. We are sure that this process will take days together to upgrade to the Y-version. My client is not ready to down the system for that long. So we are trying to find the solution with minimal down time.The approach we are thinking is,
1) Create the replicated database to another server (server2) from production server(server1) using golden gate with X-version
2) Create new tables/schema updated tables from Y-version database on same server1. Here for Updated schema tables we are planning to use the name <table_name_Y_version> as the same table name exists in X-version.
3)With above 2 steps, golden gate replicate the changes from production to server1 and server1 will have the new Y-version table schema (with different concatenate name ' _Y_version'). BTW , there is no affect for the production
4) At this stage we are planning to find best approach, to fill the '<table_name>_Y_version' from X-version tables. two challenges here a) all data needs to be moved to Y-version tables b) they have to sync data in real time.
we thought of going to
a) ssis package to pump the data to Y-version tables, but real time data will not sync.
b) trigger based technique, previous experience said, lot of load
when i do a snapshot i have it set up to truncate before inserting. As a result I'm getting an error saying that it cant truncate a table reference in an indexed view. What settings should i use to allow for a snapshot in this instance? Should i manually drop the databinding then snap then recreate the databinding? there has to be a better way
I need to copy all the data from all the tables in a database to a copy of this database on another server. What feature of SSIS should I take advantage of to accomplish this?
We have an SLA for 8am, most times the data warehousing jobs complete at 8:05am. Adding an additional process/set of tasks to this package would obviously make matters so I'm trying to update/copy/replicate the data in the fastest manner. Typically we're talking 2 marts (10-20GB) with 2 large tables (5-10 mill records) and 20 marts (0.5 - 5 GB) with many more smaller tables (~40 tables with record count ranging from 1 to a million)
Additionally please indicate if the design/feature you suggest can handle (pushing schema changes and additions to the target server) schema changes or new tablesviews added to the source database.
My only idea so far...is using the import wizard (in Management Studio) to create an SSIS package (top copy all the tables from one server to another) and saving it to the server, Then executing this package after the job is complete. However this would not work if the schema of a table changed, or if a a table is added. Moreover I don't think I can edit this package in visual studio.
I am having problems exporting data into a flat file using specific code page. My application has a variable "User::CodePage" that stores code page value (936, 950, 1252, etc) based on the data source. This variable is assigned to the CodePage property of desitnation file connection using Property expression.
But, when I execute the package, the CodePage property of the Destination file connection defaults to the initial value that was set for "User:CodePage" variable in design mode. I checked the value within the variable during runtime and it changes correctly for each data source. But, the property of the destinatin file connection doesn't change and results in an error.
[Flat File Destination [473]] Error: Data conversion failed. The data conversion for column "Column01" returned status value 4 and status text "Text was truncated or one or more characters had no match in the target code page.".
[DTS.Pipeline] Error: The ProcessInput method on component "Flat File Destination" (473) failed with error code 0xC02020A0. The identified component returned an error from the ProcessInput method. The error is specific to the component, but the error is fatal and will cause the Data Flow task to stop running.
If I manually update the variable with correct code page and re-run the ETL, everything works fine. Just that it doesn't work during run-time mode.
I developed a simple custom control flow component which has several read/write properties and one readonly property (lets call it ROP) whichs Get method simple returns the value of a private variable (VAR as string). In the Execute method the VAR has a value assigened. When I put the value of ROP or VAR into MsgBox I can see the correct value. However when I execute the component I can not see the value of the ROP in the property window. I see the property but its value is empty string. For example when I put a breakpoint to postexecute or check the property before click OK in a MsgBox I would expect that the property value would be updated in SSIS as well. Is there a way how to display correct values of custom tasks properties in property window?
Untill recently I had a smooth running SSIS package,but suddenly it throws error syaing "OnError,,,,,,,The result of the expression
"@[User:trTextFileImpDirectory] +"SomeTextStringHere"+ @[User:trANTTextFileName] +(DT_STR,30,1252) @[User:taging_Date_Key]+ "SomeTextStringHere" " on property "ConnectionString" cannot be written to the property. The expression was evaluated, but cannot be set on the property."
I have child SSIS package running under a parent package (through execute package task)
I have few flat file connection managers in child package for text file import , in which I am building text file path dynamically at run time by assigning an expression in connection string property of connection manager. The Expression is as follows
Where @[User:trTextFileImpDirectory] is a variable which contains path of directory containg text files.Value in this variable is assigned at runtime from parent package's variable,which in turns fetch value from a configuration file on local server.
With my current configuration this path has been configured to some other server's directory over network ( I.e my package picks text files from some other servers folder over network)
While "Some string here"+ @[User:trANTTextFileName]" part of file name string.
(DT_STR,30,1252) @[User:taging_Date_Key] Contain the date of processing ,value in this variable is also picked up at run time from parent package variable.
1) So can someone give me some insight into possible reason of failures. 2) Is it possible that problem arises if directory (from which I m picking text files) is assigned password or is there exist some problem in accessing forlders over network ? 3) Or there can be some problem in package configuration at design time( I.e where I m assigning value in variable from parent package vriables)?
Is there a way ,(if so what is the syntax?), to set up a DTS package that loads a table that has an identity column. I am trying to load the data from another table, (leaving the identity field unmapped), and de-selecting the "enable identity insert" from the advanced tab of the Data Transformation Properties window. I keep getting errors due to the table not allowing null values. I tried using the set_identity command, but this still did not work. Any help would be appreciated. TB
