I have a temporary table #Temp with, among others, a column CountryCode and a column Lastname.I would like to change the ü that appears in some names to u (u umlaut to a plain u), but only for those that have the nationality 'Ned'
My code so far:
Update #Temp
set LastName = replace(Lastname, 'ü', 'ue') WHERE CountryCode = 'Ned'
This code deletes all entries in the column Lastname
I think it must be easy, but I keep staring at the code.
I am trying to update a table and then also use OUTPUT clause to capture some of the columns. The code that I am using is something like the one below
UPDATE s SET Exception_Ind = 1 OUTPUT s.Master_Id, s.TCK_NR INTO #temp2 FROM Master_Summary s INNER JOIN Exception d ON d.Id = LEFT(s.Id, 8) AND d.Barcode_Num = s.TCK_NR WHERE s.Exception_Ind IS NULL
The above code is throwing an error as follows:
Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Procedure Process_Step3, Line 113 The multi-part identifier "s.Master_Id" could not be bound. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Procedure Process_Step3, Line 113 The multi-part identifier "s.TCK_NR" could not be bound.
I am trying to use a stored procedure to update a column in a sql table using the value from a variable table I getting errors because my syntax is not correct. I think table aliases are not allowed in UPDATE statements.
This is my statement:
UPDATE [dbo].[sessions_teams] stc SET stc.[Talks] = fmt.found_talks_type FROM @Find_Missing_Talks fmt WHERE stc.sessionid IN (SELECT sessionid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks) AND stc.coupleid IN (SELECT coupleid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks)
To avoid locking/blocking, or in transaction scope, we are trying make a common practice of writing coide for update commands in our all SPs based on primary key columns in where clause. I have a following scenario...
UPDATE [dbo].[TL_CST_Locker_Issuance] SET [isActive] = 0 WHERE LockerIssuanceId IN (SELECT LockerIssuanceId
[Code] ...
What is the better approach and should be followed to avoid locks and gain performance or best approach.
I am using web developer 2008, while connecting to I wanted to fetch data from Lotus notes database file, for this i used notesql connector, while connectiong to notes database i am fetting error
ERROR [42000] [Lotus][ODBC Lotus Notes]Table reference has to be a table name or an outer join escape clause in a FROM clause
I have already checked that database & table name are correct, please help me out How i can fetch the lotus notes data in my asp.net pages.
I am using web developer 2008, while connecting to I wanted to fetch data from Lotus notes database file, for this i used notesql connector, while connectiong to notes database i am fetting error
ERROR [42000] [Lotus][ODBC Lotus Notes]Table reference has to be a table name or an outer join escape clause in a FROM clause
I have already checked that database & table name are correct, please help me out How i can fetch the lotus notes data in my asp.net pages.
To see where is the problem I am trying to count rows in the database.First I create a table A with 2 columns namely tablename, rowbefore and rowafter and I insert records in it as below.
INSERT INTO A SELECT TableName = o.name, '', Rows = max(i.rows) FROM sysobjects o INNER JOIN sysindexes i ON o.id = i.id WHERE xtype = 'u' AND OBJECTPROPERTY(o.id,N'IsUserTable') = 1 GROUP BY o.name ORDER BY o.name Then I update rowbefore with rowafter as below. UPDATE A SET rowbefore = rowafter
Now I launch my application with update records in the database.Then I am trying to update rowafter with new records as below.
UPDATE A SET rowafter = (SELECT max(sysindexes.rows) FROM sysobjects INNER JOIN sysindexes ON sysobjects.id = sysindexes.id WHERE xtype = 'u' AND OBJECTPROPERTY(sysobjects.id,N'IsUserTable') = 1 AND A.tablename = sysobjects.name)
Does this update really update my column rowafter or not?
I have some stored procedures that do updates using table aliases, like this:
UPDATE TableAlias SET ColVal = 1 FROM RealTable AS TableAlias WHERE TableAlias.ColVal <> 1
This allows me to include joins and stuff in the update (not shown) and make it all more readable for me.
It all works fine, and the SSMS parser says it's fine. But I also have another script which looks at sys.sql_expression_dependencies and sys.objects to find stored procedures with invalid object references (see below), and it's understandably saying that all of the above type stored procedures have invalid references.
SELECT OBJECT_NAME(DEP.referencing_id) AS referencing_name, DEP.referenced_entity_name FROM sys.sql_expression_dependencies AS DEP WHERE -- Only validate local references: ( DEP.referenced_database_name = DB_NAME()
[Code] ....
So I have a couple questions.
1. Is the UPDATE syntax I'm using kosher? 2. Can you recommend any updates to my stored procedure validation script that will better accommodate table aliases like mine?
I am writing a query to update table variable. It is throwing me some error.
I have a table variable declared and inserted the data with three columns. I want to update col1 of that table variable when the second column of that table variable= one column from a physical table
update @MYtabvar set @Mytabvar.LatestDate=B.LatestDate from TableB B where @Mytabvar.id=B.ID
I have a table with 8 columns, I need to update data in multiple columns on this table, this table contains 1 million records, having single update was taking time so I broke the single update into multiple update statements and running multiple update statements in parallel, Each update statement updates different column.
This approach is working fine but I am getting the deadlock error.
Transaction (Process ID 65) was deadlocked on lock | communication buffer resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim. Rerun the transaction.
Is it possible to allow a user to insert and update data in a table but prevent them from performing deletes against that same table? For auditing purposes I need to prevent the end users from being able to delete data.
I have created a table(T1) from select query result, that Select query is parameterised. Now I need to update the select query table(T1) based on the result every time.
Below is my Query:
ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[RPT_Cost_copy] SELECT MEII.*, SIMM.U_SP2DC, UPPER(SIMM.U_C3C2) AS GRP3,sb.cost, PREV.Z1, PREV.Z3, SB.Z2, SB.Z4,SIMM.U_C3DC1 AS FAM INTO T1 FROM (SELECT a.meu, a.mep2, SUM(a.mest) as excst FROM mei as A WHERE a.myar=@yr and a.mprd=@mth AND LTRIM(A.MCU) <> '' AND LTRIM(A.MRP2) <> ''
In a stored procedure I dynamically create a temp table by selecting the name of Applications from a regular table. Then I add a date column and add the last 12 months. See attachment.
So far so good. Now I want to update the data in columns by querying another regular table. Normally it would be something like:
UPDATE ##TempTable SET [columName] = (SELECT SUM(columName) FROM RegularTable WHERE FORMAT(RegularTable.Date,'MM/yyyy') = FORMAT(##TempMonths.x,'MM/yyyy'))
However, since I don't know what the name of the columns are at any given time, I need to do this dynamically.
how can I get the column names of a Temp table dynamically while doing an Update?
Our system runs a SQL Server 2012 DB, it has a table (table_a) which has over 10M records. Our system have to receive data file from previous system daily which contains approximate 3M updated or new records for table_a. My job is to update table_a with the new data.
The initial solution is:
1 Create a table (table_b) which structur is as the same as table_a
2 Use BCP to import updated records into table_b
3 Remove outdated data in table_a: delete from table_a inner join table_b on table_a.key_fileds = table_b.key_fields
4 Append updated or new data into table_a: insert into table_a select * from table_b
As the test result, this solution is very inefficient. Step 3 costs several hours, e.g. How can I improve it?
I have a stored proc that contains an update which utilizes a case statement to populate values in a particular column in a table, based on values found in other columns within the same table. The existing update looks like this (object names and values have been changed to protect the innocent):
UPDATE dbo.target_table set target_column = case when source_column_1= 'ABC'then 'XYZ' when source_column_2= '123'then 'PDQ'
[Code] ....
The powers that be would like to replace this case statement with some sort of table-driven structure, so that the mapping rules defined above can be maintained in the database by the business owner, rather than having it embedded in code and thus requiring developer intervention to perform changes/additions to the rules.
The rules defined in the case statement are in a pre-defined sequence which reflects the order of precedence in which the rules are to be applied (in other words, if a matching value in source_column_1 is found, this trumps a conflicting matching value in source_column_2, etc). A case statement handles this nicely, of course, because the case statement will stop when it finds the first "hit" amongst the WHEN clauses, testing each in the order in which they are coded in the proc logic.
What I'm struggling with is how to replicate this using a lookup table of some sort and joins from the target table to the lookup to replace the above case statement. I'm thinking that I would need a lookup table that has column name/value pairings, with a sequence number on each row that designates the row's placement in the precedence hierarchy. I'd then join to the lookup table somehow based on column names and values and return the match with the lowest sequence number, or something to that effect.
The objective is to identify orders where an order fee has been applied incorrectly. I have multiple orders per customer, my table contains an orderID and a customerID. Currently if the customer places additional orders before the previous orders have been closed/cancelled, then additional fees are being applied.
Let's say I'm comparing order #1 to order #2. I need to identify these rows where the following is true:-
The CustID is the same.
Order #2 has a more recent order date.
Order #2 has a FeeDate Before the CancelledDate of Order #1 (or Order #1 has no cancellation date).
So in the table the orderID:2835692 of CustID: 24643 has a valid order fee. But all the subsequently placed orders have fees which were applied before the first order was cancelled and so I want to update the FeeInvalid column with a 'Y'. The first fee will always be valid.
I think I understand why the code I am trying doesn't achieve the result I want but I can't figure out how to write it correctly. Below is one example of code I've tried and also code to create the table and insert some test data.
update t1 SET FeeInvalid = 'Y' FROM MockData t1 Join MockData t2 on t1.CustID = t2.CustID WHERE t1.CustID = t2.CustID AND t2.OrderDate > t1.OrderDate AND t2.FeeDate > t1.CancelledDate CREATE TABLE [dbo].[MockData]( [OrderID] [float] NULL,
I want to compare two columns in the same table called start date and end date for one clientId.if clientId is having continuous refenceid and sartdate and enddate of reference that I don't need any caseopendate but if clientID has new reference id and it's start date is not continuous to its previous reference id then I need to set that start date as caseopendate.
I'd like to update the attribute Active of the table COMPANY_BRANCH to the value 0 (or false, since it is a bin field) on the below recordset:
SELECT COMPANY_BRANCH.CompBranchID, MAX(PLACEMENT.ExpirationDate) AS Expr1
FROM COMPANY_BRANCH INNER JOIN
PLACEMENT ON COMPANY_BRANCH.CompBranchID = PLACEMENT.ProducerBranchID
GROUP BY COMPANY_BRANCH.CompBranchID
HAVING (MAX(PLACEMENT.ExpirationDate) < DATEADD(yyyy, - 1, GETDATE()))
yet, I am unable to understand the concept on how this can be done. If I put it into query designer and change the query type to update, the code that gets generated is not correct - can someone help me?
Hi, I'm trying to inner join an update statement. Something like this:
update #point_connection_temp AS a inner join #point_connection_temp_two as b on a.key_fld = b.key_fld set a.next_point = b.next_point where #point_connection_temp.next_point is null order by a.key_fld
I'm getting an error message:Incorrect syntax error near AS Any help will be greatly appreciated.Thank you!!!!!!!!!1
MySQL has a ON UPDATE clause which can be used as given below:create table t(col1 varchar(90), time_col timestamp NOT NULL default CURRENT_TIMESTAMP on update CURRENT_TIMESTAMP);Whenever a column (col1) is updated time_col will also be updated with curren time stamp. Is there any equivaent in SQL ServerAm aware that this could be handled using Triggers, is there any other better solution.
I could write a query with a sub-query in order to perform an UPDATE on the most recent 60,000 records of a table based on a date field, but unfortunately I am receiving an error.
Code: SELECT * FROM DMTM SET transmit_date = '2012-05-07 00:00:00.000', transmit_status = '1223' WHERE temp_pk in
Hi All,In Oracle, I can easily make this query :UPDATE t1 SET (f1,f2)=(SELECT AVG(f3),SUM(f4)FROM t2WHERE t2.f5=t1.f6)WHERE f5='Something'I cannot seem to be able to do the same thing with MS-SQL. There areonly 2 ways I've figured out, and I fear performance cost in both cases,which are these :1)UPDATE t1 SET f1=(SELECT AVG(f3)FROM t2WHERE t2.f5=t1.f6)WHERE f5='Something'and then the same statement but with f2, and2)UPDATE t1 SET f1=(SELECT AVG(f3)FROM t2WHERE t2.f5=t1.f6),f2=(SELECT SUM(f4)FROM t2WHERE t2.f5=t1.f6)WHERE f5='Something'Is there a way with MS-SQL to do the Oracle equivalent in this case ?Thanks,Michel
I'm collecting id based on user's selection and storing to ArrayList/String[in asp.net]. Now want to pass those ids stored to stroed procedure. I want SP to update all records in single statement using in like update table set field in (value).
I'm storing id with comma (,) separator. Below is my asp.net code:
string sId=string.Empty;
for(int a=0;a<Id.Count;a++)
{
Id += Id;
if(a!=Id.Count-1)
sId +=",";
}
In database id column is int type. I'm passing id collected with comma separator and passing it as a parameter to SP. but it is giving error related converting to int or similar.
Plz help me create Stored Procedure in SQL 2005 based on above scenario.
I am trying to update a table and then also use OUTPUT clause to capture some of the columns. The code that I am using is something like the one below
UPDATE s SET Exception_Ind = 1 OUTPUT s.Master_Id, s.TCK_NR INTO #temp2 FROM Master_Summary s INNER JOIN Exception d ON d.Id = LEFT(s.Id, 8) AND d.Barcode_Num = s.TCK_NR WHERE s.Exception_Ind IS NULL
The above code is throwing an error as follows:
Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Procedure Process_Step3, Line 113 The multi-part identifier "s.Master_Id" could not be bound. Msg 4104, Level 16, State 1, Procedure Process_Step3, Line 113
The multi-part identifier "s.TCK_NR" could not be bound.
The objects "MYTEST2.TEST" and "mytest.TEST" in the FROM clause have the same exposed names. Use correlation names to distinguish them.use of fully qualified names is allowed without having to alias them.One workaround is changing compatibility mode to 80.Is there another (startup flag?).Reason for no alias: MS Reportbuilder doesn't provide them when building queries
CREATE SCHEMA MYTEST; go CREATE SCHEMA MYTEST2; go CREATE TABLE MYTEST.TEST
Looking to coalesce a WHERE clause with XML data. I cannot supply test data.
If 472 is null, check the NEXT XML field at grab the 150, if both 472 AND 150 do NOT exist let it be NULL.
set @Date = (select top 1 XL.value('(DTM/DTM.02/DTM.02.1)[1]', 'varchar(100)') from #src where coalesce(XL.value('(DTM/DTM.01/DTM.01.1)[1]', 'varchar(50)') = '472', '(DTM/DTM.01/DTM.01.1)[1]', 'varchar(50)') = '150')
