SQL Server 2012 :: How To Update Master Count Column From Multi Thread Application
Sep 28, 2015
We have an application that runs Jobs, each of which affect ## number of child objects (usually around 1M). When a thread gets to 5000 updated child objects it bulk inserts into a table called ActionLog with the child Id and JobId.
When the job is complete a sproc SUMs the children from the ActionLog table:
select sum(id) from ACTIONLOG where JOBID = @JobId;
It then updates the Jobs table AffectedObjectCount column with the sum(*) from above.
Instead of writing to the ActionLog table and calculating the SUM at the end I would like to do this 'real time'. After the bulk insert I would like to update the AffectedObjectCount column with the number of rows that were just bulk inserted. I tried this in the past and ran into major contention issues. There are usually 20 threads running a job so there exists a lot of potential for deadlocks.
Is there a recommended way to handle updating one column on one row from multiple threads? What is the best practice for a counter like this?
I have a bad web application install for Master Data Services. This was the first installation and there was some back and forth to get it going. I now have set up an identically configured server correctly and figure the easiest thing to do is delete the web app and re-create it rather than spend a bunch of time troubleshooting. How do I do this? I've googled and haven't had much luck. I only want to uninstall the web app since everything up until then was installed correctly.
I have a multi-value parameter that I am having a hard time writing a COUNT expression for in SSRS. Here is the situation:
1. If the "(Select All)" in the drop down is selected, COUNT all last names for ALL of the Auditor parameter 2. If a specific or multiple auditors are selected from the drop down, COUNT all last names based on that selection for the Auditor parameter
Currently, I am having it COUNT by ALL and it works but if a specific or multiple auditors are chosen, then the COUNT doesn't work.
I have created table in which there are four columns (id, date, parcelname, parcelnumber) and 10 rows. I want to count record of the column parcelnumber but condition that, in between two different dates the record should be counted.
i have database which has 25 tables. all tables have productid column. i need to find total records for product id = 20003 from all the tables in database.
I have a student table like this studentid, schoolID, previousschoolid, gradelevel.
I would like to load this table every day from student system.
During the year, the student could change schoolid, whenever there is a change, I would put current records schoolid to the previous schoolid column, and set the schoolid as the newschoolid from student system.
My question in my merge statement something like below
Merge into student st using (select * from InputStudent ins) on st.id=ins.studentid
When matched then update
set st.schoolid=ins.schoolid , st.previouschoolid= case when (st.schoolid<>ins.schoolid) then st.schoolid else st.previouschoolid end , st.grade_level=ins.grade_level ;
My question is since schoolid is et at the first line of set statement, will the second line still catch what is the previous schoolid?
is it possible to use a single connection object shared by severaltasks where each task is handled by a thread? these tasks call storedprocedures that return record sets, no editing, update or delete.my objective is that db connection is expensive and each user can onlyhave 1 connection object. each user submits a request to the webserver, and the result web page construction consists of a number ofresult sets obtained from several stored procedure from the samedatabase instance.i could obtained my result sets by making each sp call one at a timebut was thinking whether i could instead break up the tasks, create athread for each task that shares the same db connection objectconcurrently. the connection object will be alive until all tasks arecompleted, that is if the final object ive could be achieved in ashorter time. No connection pooling here.i am wondering over questions like:1. within the same db instance, if 2 stored procedures need to accessthe same table, does SQLserver queue-up and service one request at atime.2. would there be any problem using the connection object this way,sharing between multiple theads?3. is it possible that a 'dead-lock' may occur within the DB?of cos this whole idea can be absurd and into the trash if theconnection object doesn't support multi-thread and is queue based inthe first place.pardon me if my SQL server basics is off track. been doing too manyother things.thanks,meng
I am writing a query to update table variable. It is throwing me some error.
I have a table variable declared and inserted the data with three columns. I want to update col1 of that table variable when the second column of that table variable= one column from a physical table
update @MYtabvar set @Mytabvar.LatestDate=B.LatestDate from TableB B where @Mytabvar.id=B.ID
In a t-sql 2012 stored procedure, I would like to know how I can complete the task I am listing below:
In an existing t-sql 2012 stored procedure, there is a table called 'Atrn' that is truncated every night. The Table 'Atrn' has a column called 'ABS' that is populated with incorrect data.
The goal is to place the correct value into 'ABS' column that is located in the Atrn table while the t-sql 2012 stored procedure is excuting.
**Note: The goal is to fix the problem now since it is a production problem. The entire stored procedure that updates the 'dbo.Atrn' table will be rewritten in the near future.
My plan is to:
1. create a temp table called '#Atrnwork' that will contain the columns called, Atrnworkid int, and ABSvalue with a double value.
2. The value in the column called Atrnworkid in the '#Atrnwork' table, will obtain its value from the key of the 'Atrn' called atrnid by doing a select into. At the same time, the value for ABSvalue will be obtained by running some sql when the select into occurs?
3. The main table called 'Atrn' will be changed with a update statement that looks something like:
Update Atrn set ABS = ABSvalue join Atrn.atrnid = #Atrnwork.Atrnworkid
In all can you tell me what a good solutiion is to solve this problem and/or display some sql on how to solve the problem listed above?
In a stored procedure I dynamically create a temp table by selecting the name of Applications from a regular table. Then I add a date column and add the last 12 months. See attachment.
So far so good. Now I want to update the data in columns by querying another regular table. Normally it would be something like:
UPDATE ##TempTable SET [columName] = (SELECT SUM(columName) FROM RegularTable WHERE FORMAT(RegularTable.Date,'MM/yyyy') = FORMAT(##TempMonths.x,'MM/yyyy'))
However, since I don't know what the name of the columns are at any given time, I need to do this dynamically.
how can I get the column names of a Temp table dynamically while doing an Update?
I have an application that is being developed on Visual Studio 2005 (VB) and SQL Express. The application is set up to use the SQL Express on the development computer, and if an Internet or CD install is built, it installs SQL Express as expected. The question is, when it is time to deploy and put the SQL Express database on the 2003 server, how should the install on the server be done and how should we set the database path to the server?
I'm hoping someone can help with with a task I've been given. I need to write a trigger which will act effectively as a method of automatically distributing of incoming call ticket records. See DDL below for creation of the Assignment table, which holds information on the call ticket workload.
SELECT COUNT(CallID) AS [Total Calls], AssignmentGroup, Assignee FROM #Assignment GROUP BY AssignmentGroup, Assignee ORDER BY COUNT(CallID) DESC , AssignmentGroup, Assignee
What I need to do is write a trigger for on INSERT to automatically update the Assignee column with the name of the person who currently has the least active calls. For example, using the data above, the next PC Support call will go to Mickey Mouse, and the next two Service Desk calls will go to Jim Smith.
So, the logic for the trigger would be
UPDATE #Assignment SET Assignee = (SELECT Assignee FROM #Assignment WHERE COUNT(CallID) = MIN(COUNT(CallID))
But that's only the logic, and obviously it doesn't work with the syntax being nothing like correct.
Does any one have an idea or pointers as to how I should go about this?
I have a four tables called plandescription, plandetail and analysisdetail. The table plandescription has the columns DetailQuestionID which is the primary and identity column and a QuestionDescription column.
The table plandetail consists of the column PlanDetailID which the primary and identity column, DetailQuestionID which is the foreign key attribute of plandescription table and a planID column.
The third table analysisdetail consists of a analysisID which the primary and identity column, PlanDetailID which is the foreign key attribute of plandetail table and a scenario.
Below is the schema of the three tables
I have a two web form that will insert, update and delete data into these three tables in a two transaction. One web form will perform CRUD operations in plandescription and plandetail table. When the user inserts QuestionDescription and planid in this web form, I will insert the QuestionDescription Value in the plandescription table and will generate a DetailQuestionID value and this value is fed to the plandetail table with the planid. Here I will generate a PlanDetailID.
Once this transaction is done, I will show the second web form in which the user enters the scenario and this will be mapped with the plandescription using the PlanDetailID.
This schema cannot be changes as this is the client requirement. When I insert values I don’t have any problem. However when I update existing data, I need to delete existing PlanDetailID in the plandetail table and recreate PlanDetailID data for that DetailQuestionID and planID. This is because, the user will be adding or deleting a planID associated with the QuestionDescription.
Once I recreate PlanDetailID for that DetailQuestionID and planID, I need to update the old PlanDetailID with the new PlanDetailID in the third table analysisdetail for the associated analysisID.
I created a #Temp table called #DetailTable to insert the values analysisID, planid and old PlanDetailID and new PlanDetailID so that I can have them in update statement once I delete the data from plandetail table for that PlanDetailID.
Then I deleted the plandetailid from the plandetail table and recreate PlanDetailID for that DetailQuestionID. During my recreation I fetched the new PlanDetailID’s created into another temp table called #InsertedRows
After this I am running a while loop to update the temp table #DetailTable with the newly created PlanDetailID for the appropriate planID’s. The problem is here. When I have the same number of planID’s for example 2 planID’s 1,2 I will have only two old PlanDetailID and new PlanDetailID for that planID and analysisID.But When I add a new PlanID or remove a existing planID I am getting null value for that newly added or deleted planID. This is affecting my update statement of analysisdetail table as PlanDetailID cannot be null.
I tried to remove the Null value from the #DetailTable by running the update statement of analysis detail in a while loop however its not working.
DECLARE @categoryid INT = 8 DECLARE @DetailQuestionID INT = 1380 /*------- I need the query to run for the below three data. Here i'm updating my planids that already exists in my database*/ DECLARE @planids VARCHAR(MAX) = '2,4,5'
Disaster Recovery Options based on the following criteria.
--Currently running SQL 2012 standard edition --We have 18000 databases (same schema across databases)- majority of databases are less than 2gb-- across 64 instances approximately --Recovery needs to happen within 1 hour (Not sure that this is realistic -- We are building a new data center and building dr from the ground up.
What I have looked into is:
1. Transactional Replication: Too Much Data Not viable 2. AlwaysOn Availability Groups (Need enterprise) Again too many databases and would have to upgrade all instances 3. Log Shipping is a viable option and the only one I can come up with that would work right now. Might be a management nightmare but with this many databases probably all options with be a nightmare.
More often than not, I typically don't touch DTC on clusters anymore; however on a project where the vendor states that it's required. So a couple things here.
1) Do you really need DTC per instance or one for all? 2) Should DTC be in its own resource group or within the instance's group? 2a) If in it's own resource group, how do you tie an instance to an outside resource group? tmMappingSet right?
SServer PC: Win SBS 2003 with 2.6 GHz processor and 1GB RAMSQL Server 2000 v 2000.8.00.76 (sp3)MS Office 2k3MSJet ms04-014 (latest ost sp8)MDAC v2.8 RTMADO 2.1vb6.exe / ADO 2.0I think this is a SQL Server/ADO problem as I have 2 applications withsame problem.My access database uses a timer based function to insert records intoSQL Server using ADO and stored procedures. Access also uses DAO ,Jet/ odbc to linked tables on SQL Server for many other tasks/forms.All is well when Access 1st run but after a few hours or so the Accessapp grinds to a halt.Upon checking the task manager the mem usuage upto 160MB and handlecount upto 86,000 ! (cpu process % is low).After the "Access Fail" if I stop/start access only, performance isnot returned, I have to stop/start SQL Server.It would seem that allconnections from this PC to SQL server are badly affected, it is nottied to the client application that had the problem.As I could not work out where the problem was I took the Accessfunctionality into a VB6 app, using ADO 2.0, thinking this shouldsimplify matters with Jet and ODBC out of the way.I now have the same problem with the number of handles increasing withevery new timer based function.* code snippet example *If Not OpenConnection Then 'we have not been able to open aconnection to SQL serverCall procLog("Connection failed to SQL server")Exit FunctionEnd If'gVar.cnnSQL is my public ADODB.ConnectionSet cmdSQL = New ADODB.CommandWith cmdSQL.ActiveConnection = gVar.cnnSQL.CommandText = "MyDB.dbo.insert_tblMyData".CommandType = adCmdStoredProc.Execute RecordsAffected:=lngRecs, _Parameters:=Array(lngID, dtDate,intCategory,strNationality,strNotes,strName)End With* code snippet *** After the "Access Fail" if I look at one of my clients, running thesame Access app on another PC, it seems normally responsive when usingone my bound forms to browse the data from same SQL Server **Any ideas anyone ?
I want to compare two columns in the same table called start date and end date for one clientId.if clientId is having continuous refenceid and sartdate and enddate of reference that I don't need any caseopendate but if clientID has new reference id and it's start date is not continuous to its previous reference id then I need to set that start date as caseopendate.
I am trying to use a stored procedure to update a column in a sql table using the value from a variable table I getting errors because my syntax is not correct. I think table aliases are not allowed in UPDATE statements.
This is my statement:
UPDATE [dbo].[sessions_teams] stc SET stc.[Talks] = fmt.found_talks_type FROM @Find_Missing_Talks fmt WHERE stc.sessionid IN (SELECT sessionid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks) AND stc.coupleid IN (SELECT coupleid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks)
Here I will describe my problem. 1. We are loading large amount of data from database on background thread which is starting on Application_start event in global.aspx.cs file.The data is later cached for subsquent request to improve the performance. 2. Now when we put the application on web farm garden, it is not able to load the application. 3. We are sending the request the servers through Router kind of application. 4 This application is working fine on single server enviornment.
Using - SQL Server 2005 - Management Studio Express.
Here's the SQL statement
Code Snippet
SELECT TOP 1000
[test].[CatalogStudioId],
[test].[CollectionId],
[test].[unique],
[test].[att1]
FROM CatalogStudioEntity.dbo.[test] WHERE [test].[att1] LIKE '%1%'
Now, before you respond, allow me to say that I know using the table name to qualify the columns is redundant, and I know there are other options (such as aliasing the table). Don't respond to tell me this. However -- as far as I know -- this is a valid T-SQL statement and I should be able to get this query to run.
The interesting part is that if management studio is connected to the CatalogStudioEntity database, this query runs fine. If connected to the master database, I get the "multi-part identifier [x] could not be bound" error. The error is listed for every column.
My issue with this is that the table in the FROM clause is qualified with the database name, so whether I'm connected to that database or to "master" should not matter.
I have an application that generates select statements like the one above, and all of the machines so far that we've developed, beta tested and deployed this application on all don't have this problem. It's this one specific installation of SQL Server 2005 on this new machine where this problem arises.
Before I go back and retool the application to output whatever arbitrary syntax this specific machine seems to want, I want to try and troubleshoot and understand why it's acting like this.
Any ideas or thoughts would be greatly appreciated.
If Exists ( Select c.name from sys.columns c where object_id = object_id('HH835HP') and C.name = 'ID_1' ) Begin UPDATE HH835HP SET ID_1 = ( select ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY CHKDTS ASC) AS ID_1 FROM HH835HP ) ; End;
Obviously... The stuff inside the IF is wrong syntax...I mean
UPDATE HH835HP SET ID_1 = ( select ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY CHKDTS ASC) AS ID_1 FROM HH835HP ) ;
I have 6 tables which are very huge in row count and records needs to deleted which are older than 8 days.
Little info: Every day, 300 Million records are inserted in below 7 tables. we should maintain only 8 days worth of data in below tables. How to implement Purge script which can delete records in all tables in the same time and with optimized parallelism.
Master table which has [ID],[Timestamp] Table Name: Sample - 2,578,106
Child tables: Foreign key [ID] is common for all the tables. There is no timestamp column in child table. So the records needs to deleted based on Min(ID) from Sample
The CUSTOMERS table holds the record date span into which the FLAGS table records have to "fit". In no case will the date spans from the FLAGS table fall outside the STARTDATE - ENDDATE span in the CUSTOMERS table for any CUSTOMERNBR. Here is an example of the final expected output in the DHS table from combining records in the CUSTOMERS and FLAGS tables:
We have a BI-Stack configuration for server SQL 2012 that includes a gateway server that houses the app, a second server which houses SQL Server DB and SSIS, and a third server that houses SSAS and SSRS. Where should SSDT tools be installed? I assume on the gateway? This is a production environment, so should VS and/or SSDT not be here at all?
i design SP for insert data in 2 tables i need to store list of array in one parameter to complete my query i try the table value but it`s not good for me because table value is readonly and i need to insert data with list of array .....
