SQL Server 2014 :: Insert Dataset Into Two Tables And Grabbing Identity From One For Other
Jan 2, 2015
Ok I think I will need to use a temp table for this and there is no code to share as of yet. Here is the intent.
I need to insert data into two tables (a header and detail table) the Header Table will give me lets say an order number and this order number needs to be placed on the corresponding detail lines in the detail table.
Now if I were inserting a single invoice with one or more detail lines EASY, just set @@Identity to a variable and do a second insert statement.
What is happening is I will be importing a ton of Invoice headers and inserting those into the header table. The details are already in the database across various tables and and I will do that insert based on a select with some joins. As stated I need to get the invoice number from IDENTITY of the header table for each DETAIL insert.
I am assuming the only way to do this is with a loop... Insert one header, get identity; Insert the detail table and include the IDENTITY variable, and repeat.
Hi, First post here :) Subject might not make sense, so allow me to explain. I have a table, tbl_finalized. A unique record consists of an emp_id, building, and school_year. I have another table, (call it table2) where emp_id, building, and school_year are fields as well. What I'm trying to do is... grab all the emp_id's from table 2 ( along with the school_year and building ) and then see if it exists in tbl_finalized. If it does, I don't want it. I want all the usernames in table2 that don't exist in tbl_finalized.
Here's an example: table2 contains the following record: emp_id: xxx, building: 333, school_year: 2008 emp_id: zzz, building: 333, school_year: 2008 emp_id: yyy, building: 444, school_year: 2008
tbl_finalized has the following records: emp_id: yyy, building: 333, school_year: 2008 emp_id: xxx, building: 333, school_year: 2007 emp_id: xxx, building: 333, school_year: 2008
The result I desire is: emp_id: zzz, building: 333, school_year: 2008 emp_id: yyy, building: 444, school_year: 2008
I hope this makes sense. If not, please ask and I will do my best to explain. I have light understanding of joins, but not sure how to get the difference like I desire in this case... TIA.
I am passing a parameter and executing two tables and grabbing it's data.. In the future I will put the code into a store-procedure.
--Exec Table 1 declare @id varchar(20), @MEMBER_ID varchar(20) set @id=null set @MEMBER_ID ='55555' --ie. 55555
Select id from emp Where MEMBER_ID = @MEMBER_ID
--Okay, Next I need to execute another table and pass in the id --that was selected from the emp table.
SELECT EMAIL FROM moreInfo WHERE id = @id
Currently, the emp table displays ie. 100 records that matches the member id 55555.. But the second select is empty.. And I need to display email data for the 100 records that were selected from the emp table..
I hope is it not confusing what I am trying to do..
Am trying to find a way to insert/update/delete data in a SQL mobile database on a Windows CE 5.0 device FROM a desktop PC.
This situation is completely stand alone, no network (apart form device/desktop), no GPRS etc etc etc.
I've looked at RDA but i dont believe it fits my app. (pulling data from a 2005 server that doesnt exist doesnt really help me much, push can't be used without a pull which kills the idea.)
The goal is a UI on the desktop that can manipulate data in the SQL mobile Database.
I've tried all i can find/think off in relation to this but to no avail.
My latest attempt has been using the simplest method possible (using a VS wizard datasource to the devices DB and tryign to whack that on a form) but this just creates a "Path not found. Check the directory for the database [Path = Mobile Device/ce_swipe/TestDB.sdf".
I'm at loss how I'm supposed to work with typed datasets and Sql Server Compact 3.5, when inserting records and I need to update my datatables with the primary key of newly inserted rows.
I've tried adding a RowUpdated handler to all tableadapters that look like this:
I've previously used this type of approach when working with an OleDbDatabase, which works just fine. But it doesn't work with Sql Server CE 3.5, and since it doesn't support stored procedures I can't fix it that way either. And it doesn't support commands in a batch (i.e appending the Insert command of the adapter with ";SELECT @@IDENTITY") so that doesn't work either...
So how are we supposed to use Sql Server CE 3.5? It's impossible together with datasets? Or am I missing something obvious?
We are collecting values in a string format with delimeteres and sending to DB .We would like to insert the data in Bulk insert format rather than splitting the same and then inserting..
In sql 2014 can we archive the same..sample format currently we are getting the client is like this is
Saleid$ salename$month$year$totalsale#Saleid$salename$month$year$totalsale# has a dataset.
I have a table to store int primary keys. Where the value nextID is the value to use.I need to get the value and update it (nextID + 1) before the next person gets it.I thought using tran would work but it doesn't stop a select.How do I get a value (lock the table for the update), update the table (preventing any selects until done) and release the table.
BEGIN TRAN UPDATE TableIds SET NextId = NextId + 1 WHERE TableName = 'Users'
WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:20'
SELECT NextId FROM TableIds WHERE TableName = 'Users'
COMMIT TRAN
I really want to do this in the reverse order but it doesn't work. But if I do this and have another query to just do a select:
SELECT NextId FROM TableIds WHERE TableName = 'Users'
This query never returns. Doesn't the COMMIT TRAN release the lock on the table?
So, I have some questions about best practice in SQL Server.
1.) I have PK like this (company TINYINT, store TINYINT, action TINYINT, invoice INT, sn SMALLINT). I know JOINS will work faster with surrogate key but I have only couple of JOINS on that table. I use members of PK in WHERE clause mainly, alone and combined for reporting purpose. Is it always better to have surrogate key because they don't have any meaning and context of data laying in current PK.
2.) In my PK from above I have two candidates for using Sequence object. Invoice start with 1 for every (company,store,action) combination. Sn start with 1 for every (company,store,action,invoice) combination. I would like to know can I implement Sequence object here knowing that Sequence don't support PARTITION BY in OVER clause. From what I red it cannot be done via Sequence but I have to ask.Here is data sample for this PK
Hi, I am having problem in bulk update of a sql server table haning identity column from a datatable( has no identity column) using sqlbulkcopy. I tried several approaches, but it does not show any error nor is the table getting updated. But the identity value seems to getting increased every time. thanks. varun
I'm trying to move specific data from three linked tables on a source database to three tables on a destination database by generating dynamic SQL INSERT scripts but am getting stuck on the last set of INSERT statements. I don't think I can use SSIS because the source autonumber fields may already exist on the destination side but I could be wrong.
For simplicity, Table 1 (T1) has one autonumber key of PK1 as well as other fields (A1, B1, etc.).
Table 2 (T2) has one autonumber key of PK2 and a foreign key (FK1) that links back to PK1 as well as other fields (A2, B2, etc.).
Table 3 (T3) has one autonumber key of PK3 and a foreign key (FK2) that links back to PK2 as well as other fields (A3, B3, etc.).
Like this: T1: PK1, A1, B1, etc. T2: PK2, FK1, A2, B2, etc. T3: PK3, FK2, A3, B3, etc.
So, I'm able to query the source database T1 to generate my dynamic SQL INSERT statements that will be run on the destination side. I'm also able to generate my dynamic SQL statements to insert into T2 but when I get to T3 I currently am stuck figuring out how to insert because the destination side is unable to match it's FK2 to the just inserted PK2. It throws the below error.
Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression.
Hi, I have a stored procedure attached below. It returns 2 rows in the SQL Management studio when I execute MyStorProc 0,28. But in my program which uses ADOHelper, it returns a dataset with tables.count=0. if I comment out the line --If @Status = 0 then it returns the rows. Obviously it does not stop in if @Status=0 even if I pass @status=0. What am I doing wrong? Any help is appreciated.
ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MyStorProc]
(
@Status smallint,
@RowCount int = NULL,
@FacilityId numeric(10,0) = NULL,
@QueueID numeric (10,0)= NULL,
@VendorId numeric(10, 0) = NULL
)
AS
SET NOCOUNT ON
SET CONCAT_NULL_YIELDS_NULL OFF
If @Status = 0
BEGIN
SELECT ...... END If @Status = 1 BEGIN SELECT...... END
While I have learned a lot from this thread I am still basically confused about the issues involved.
.I wanted to INSERT a record in a parent table, get the Identity back and use it in a child table. Seems simple.
To my knowledge, mine would be the only process running that would update these tables. I was told that there is no guarantee, because the OLEDB provider could write the second destination row before the first, that the proper parent-child relationship would be generated as expected. It was recommended that I create my own variable in memory to hold the Identity value and use that in my SSIS package.
1. A simple example SSIS .dts example illustrating the approach of using a variable for identity would be helpful.
2. Suppose I actually had two processes updating these tables, running at the same time. Then it seems the "variable" method will also have its problems. Is there a final solution other than locking the tables involved prior to updating them or doing something crazy like using a GUID for the primary key!
3. We have done the type of parent-child inserts I originally described from t-sql for years without any apparent problems. (Maybe we were just lucky.) Is the entire issue simply a t-sql one or does SSIS add a layer of complexity beyond t-sql that needs to be addressed?
I want to insert a new record into a table with an Identity field and return the new Identify field value back to the data stream (for later insertion as a foreign key in another table).
What is the most direct way to do this in SSIS?
TIA,
barkingdog
P.S. Or should I pass the identity value back in a variable and not make it part of the data stream?
Hey there.. I need to insert some data into a linked server where I need to insert the Identity field. When I try to turn IDENTITY INSERT on, I get this error
The object name 'Server-SQL.MyDatabase.dbo.MyTable' contains more than the maximum number of prefixes. The maximum is 2.
The line I try to execute is this... SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Server-SQL].MyDatabase.dbo.MyTable ON
From my searching around about this error, the workaround seems to be aliasing the table name, but I can't really see how to use an alias in this situation.
Hi, I have 2 tables in my database PrescriptionHeader and PrescriptionDetails.My PrescriptionHeader table has the following fields:PrescriptionID -identity fieldPatientID PatientfNamePatientlname PrescriptionDetails table has the following fields:PrescriptionDetailID -identityPrescriptionID -from PrescriptionHeader table MedicineDosage The function InsertPrescription inserts values into the table PrescriptionHeader. I want the same function to then insert the value of MedicineDosage into PrescriptionDetails with the same PrescriptionID inserted into PrescriptionHeader. How do I tell the function to insert the PrescriptionID that was automatically inserted into PrescriptionHeader also into table PrescriptionDetails . How do I return the identity before proceeding to insert into PrescriptionDetails table?ThanksFunction InsertPrescription(ByVal PatientID As String, _ByVal PatientFname As String, _ByVal Patientlname As String, ByVal MedicineDosage as String)Dim DBAdapter As SqlDataAdapterDim DBDataSet As DataSetDim SQLString As StringDim DBCommandBuilder As SqlCommandBuilderSQLString = "SELECT * FROM PrescriptionHeader WHERE PrescriptionId = ''"DBAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(SQLString, DBConnection)DBDataSet = New DataSetDBAdapter.Fill(DBDataSet)Dim AddedRow As DataRow = DBDataSet.Tables(0).NewRow()AddedRow("PatientID") = PatientIDAddedRow("PatientfName") = PatientFnameAddedRow("Patientlname") = PatientlnameDBDataSet.Tables(0).Rows.Add(AddedRow)DBCommandBuilder = New SqlCommandBuilder(DBAdapter)DBAdapter.Update(DBDataSet) End Function
We are facing a problem with loading data from .pdf files from vendor..pdf files have data in tabular format and we would like to insert those fields into a SQL table.We do not want to insert the physical location of the file but, we need to insert the data within the file.How can we read a pdf file?
I have two tables having one row identifier column each of int datatype. Both these columns are part of the respective primary keys. Now as a part of my process, i'm inserting one small part of data from one table to another table. This was working fine but suddenly started getting error like
Violation of PRIMARY KEY constraint 'PK_TargetTable'. Cannot insert duplicate key in object 'DW.TargetTable'. The duplicate key value is (58544748).First I checked with DBCC CHECKIDENT with NORESEED and found that there is difference in the current identity value and current column value. I fixed it by running DBCC CHECKIDENT. But to my surprise again got the same issue. interesting thing is that the error comes after inserting 65466 records.
My task is to convert jpeg's to binary and then insert them into a table called "images". I need to convert/insert all jpeg files in a directory. I'm able to accomplish the task if the files are numbered. The query below works by retrieving one file at a time based on the value of @i. However, I also have directories where the files are not numbered but have ordinary text names like "Red_Sofa.jpg". I need to iterate through these directories as well and convert/insert the jpeg's. I'm running SSMS 2014 Express on 4.0 and Windows 7.
I'm testing, with SQL 2014 on the same DB, a procedure that extracts data from a table into a file and Loads data from that file into a different table which has the same columns as the initial table (I use a function to create the create table statement from the source table and change the name of the destination table)
when doing my bcp -c the record with the special character "é" doesn't make it to the file. when doing a bcp -w the record with the special character makes it to the file but the bulk insert omits the whole record.
The result file in the case that makes it to the file is unicode. I'm not using a format file (don't see the need for it)
The bulk insert into the destination table that contains identical columns as the source (a mixture on int, varchar, char) --> didn't work
I also tried by building the columns of the destination table with nvarchars -- Still doesn't work.
It's a complicated process that takes 1 XML record that contains information + the Create Table Statement (to eventually be able to this on a different server/DB) + the title Row for each column + the Data... Each of these are created with a BCP command (all with the same options). they are then appended to each other with a copy /B c:file1.txt + c:File2.txt + c:File3.txt + c:File4.csv c:ResultFile
Once the result file is created I bulk insert the 2 first rows in one table "TableA" create the tmp table "TABLE B" with the create table statement that is in "TableA" and do another bulk insert of the remainder of the file into the newly created table.
What else can I try? Should I be creating a format file? what are the benefits of a format file?
It's a very long procedure that does both Extract and Load (with 12 parameters) not sure what I should put here.
I have two tables for insertion in one transaction scope. Table one have 10 rows. After first table insert statement (not yet committed) if I run select on first table from other session, it holds table until my insert is committed or rolled back and from (SSMS), it display 10 rows and then wait for transaction scope till finished. My question is do I need to use no lock hint in this situation. Or there is something wrong with isolation level. One saying that in this situation table should not hols select while insert is in transaction scope.
Using Visual Studio 2005 Prof and SQL Server everywhere.
How do get the identity column value after insert record.
With SQL Server 2005, its quite easy to get by creating and insert statement on the tabledapter ( Insert statement followed by a select statement where identitycolumn = scope_identity())
Using VS 2008 Beta 2, SQL CE 3.5, on desktop, and Typed Datasets: The INSERT command of dataset table adapter does not return the updated identity of inserted row. Why?
also every time I want to modify the insert command to return the updated identity of inserted row, i get the error: "Unable to parse query text."
I had to reinstall my local copy of SQL a few weeks ago, which naturally overwrote the
msdb.dbo.sysmanagement_shared_server_groups_internal and msdb.dbo.sysmanagement_shared_registered_servers_internal tables.
However I still have the local XML file that SSMS reads so I can still access the groups, I just get weird errors when trying to re-register my install as the new CMS. How to rebuilt those tables from the XML file or know of a way to repopulate?
Basically I've got two tables with a common column (in this case it's UserID)
The structure of the table Users is basically:
UserID FirstName LastName 1 Jim Smith 2 Nancy Orr 3 Ken Stephenson
And the structure of the classes table is
UserID ClassID 1 AAA 1 BBB 2 AAA 3 BBB
What I'd like to do is select the FirstName and LastName the users table who have a UserID in both Classes and Users.
The tricky part of it is that I only want to return the FirstName and LastName of userID who have multiple ClassID in the classes table. (hopefully I'm making sense when I explain this)
In this case I'd like it to return just Jim Smith's name because he's the only userID who has two ClassID entries.
So far I've come up with
select UserId, count(*) as MultipleClasses from classes group by UserID having count(*) > 1;
which outputs the UserID and a colum called MultipleClasses with how many classes each ID returned has.
how would I do something like
Select firtname, lastname from users where Userid=
The output from that initial bit finding users with multiple classes.
We are in the middle of re-designing few tables (namely transaction tables) that would store very large data and would be hosted on cloud (Azure). The old design of this product breaks transaction tables into monthly tables. i.e. say ORDERS Table would be physically broke into twelve monthly tables over a year like ORDERS0115 (mmyy), ORDERS0215 and so on.
We are in the opinion that keeping the entire transactions in one Table is better. Would like to know what's the best practices for transaction tables like the one mentioned above? Is it better to use one table with partitions. I read somewhere that partitions can slow down SELECT queries if not designed and thought properly.Since this would be hosted on cloud (Azure), do you think some additional things are to be taken care? How a site like Amazon keeps their transactions tables?
