SQL Update Statement Set Field Value To Column Default
May 17, 2008
Is there a way to set a field value to the column default in an update statement?
Eg.
UPDATE Table2 SET field1 = DefaultValue
where DefaultValue is the field1 column default in the table definition.
The reason I need to do this is when I delete a record from Table1, I need to set the foreign key in Table2 to the default (I don't want to delete the record in Table2, just want to set the key to a default key). I could hard-code the default value in the stored procedure but I think that's just not clean. If I create a new instance of the DB and the default value changes, I'd need to change the stored procedure(s). Just not clean...
To avoid a drawn-out discussion, there are reasons why I can't setup a relationship between the two tables and use "ON DELETE SET DEFAULT".
Any info greatly appreciated.
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Jan 30, 2006
If we have a column with a default value set, say GETDATE( ), how can weassure that value is reset on an UPDATE (not an INSERT) without changingthe client code that does the updating?I'd rather stay away from triggers, etc if possible.Thanks,Mike Husler
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May 8, 2015
I have a table with ~30M records. I'm trying to add a column to the existing table with default value and have noticed following ... When using alter with default value- (Executes more than 45 min and killed forcefully)
ex:
ALTER TABLE dbo.Table_X Add is_Active BIT CONSTRAINT DF_Table_X_is_Active DEFAULT 'FALSE' NOT NULL
GO
When using update command after adding column with alter (without default value) it completes is 5 min.
ex:
ALTER TABLE dbo.Table_X Add is_Active BIT NULL
GO
UPDATE Table_X SET is_Active = 0 WHERE is_Active IS NULL
GO
Why there is so much of difference in execution times ? I was just trying to understand internal behavior of the SQL in these two scenarios.
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Jul 24, 2006
hi I have a bit field in sql server represented by a checkbox ... I am updating the database in code ( ie not using formview generated update .. ) the line that is falling over is .Parameters.Add("@archive", SqlDbType.Bit).Value = txtarchive.Checkedit falls over saying failed to convert string parameter to boolean the
value of txtarchive.checked is either true or false - how do i convert
this to 1 or 0 or something that sql is happy with ... thanks
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Jan 24, 2007
I do a SELECT * from table command in an ASP page to build a text fileout on our server, but the export is not to allow a field name rows ofrecords. The first thing I get is a row with all the field names. Whydo these come in if they are not part of the table records? How do Ieliminate this from being produced? Here's the ASP code....<html><head><title>Package Tracking Results - Client Feed</title></head><body><%' define variablesdim oConn ' ADO Connectiondim oRSc ' ADO Recordset - Courier tabledim cSQLstr ' SQL string - Courier tabledim oRSn ' ADO Recordset - NAN tabledim nSQLstr ' SQL string - NAN tabledim objFSO ' FSO Connectiondim objTextFile ' Text File' set and define FSO connection and text file object locationSet objFSO = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject")'Set objTextFile =objFSO.CreateTextFile(Server.MapPath("textfile.txt"))'Response.Write (Server.MapPath("textfile.txt") & "<br />")Set objTextFile = objFSO.OpenTextFile("C: extfile.txt",2)' write text to text file'objTextFile.WriteLine "This text is in the file ""textfile.txt""!"' SQL strings for Courier and NAN tablescSQLstr = "SELECT * FROM Courier"' set and open ADO connection & oRSc recordsetsset oConn=Server.CreateObject("ADODB.connection")oConn.Open "DRIVER={Microsoft Access Driver (*.mdb)};DBQ=" &"c:/Database/QaTracking/QaTracking.mdb" & ";"set oRSc=Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset")oRSc.Open cSQLstr, oConnResponse.ContentType = "text/plain"Dim i, j, tmpIf Not oRSc.EOF ThenFor i = 1 To oRSc.Fields.CountobjTextFile.Write oRSc.Fields(i-1).NameIf i < oRSc.Fields.Count ThenobjTextFile.Write " "End IfNextobjTextFile.WriteLineWhile Not oRSc.EOFFor i = 1 To oRSc.Fields.CountIf oRSc.Fields(i-1) <"" Thentmp = oRSc.Fields(i-1)' If TypeName(tmp) = "String" Then' objTextFile.Write "" &_'Replace(oRSc.Fields(i-1),vbCrLf,"") & ""' ElseobjTextFile.Write oRSc.Fields(i-1)' End IfEnd IfIf i < oRSc.Fields.Count ThenobjTextFile.Write " "End IfNextobjTextFile.WriteLineoRSc.MoveNextWendEnd IfobjTextFile.CloseSet objTextFile = NothingSet objFSO = NothingoRSc.CloseSet oRSc = NothingoConn.CloseSet oConn = Nothing%></body></html>
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Aug 25, 2006
Hi,
I'm new to SQL Server but not new to SQL because I used it with Oracle. I wonder if it is possible to do this kind of statement on SQL Server:
UPDATE TableX M
SET (M.column1, M.column2, M.column3)=
(SELECT T.column1, T.column2, G.column3)
FROM Table_Y T,
Table_Z G
WHERE join condition))
WHERE EXISTS (join condition for TableX)
Basically, I'd like to update multiple columns in one statement but for some reason I can not get it to work.
What would be the equivalent on SQL Server?
Thanks for the help,
Laszlo M
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Nov 14, 2013
i have a table named masterlist wherein the columns are :
name-----age------sex
andrew---19-------male
trisha---23------female
and i have also another table which is namelist that is linked to the masterlist table.. after i search for the record andrew in the table namelist..i updated andrew as 25 and sex is female..now i want reset andrew's record, same to the records that andrew has in the table masterlist..
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Nov 1, 2007
I'm trying to write a script that would only update a column if it exists.
This is what I tried first:
IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'Enrollment' AND COLUMN_NAME = 'nosuchfield')
BEGIN
UPDATE dbo.Enrollment SET nosuchfield='666'
END
And got the following error:
Server: Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 1
Invalid column name 'nosuchfield'.
I'm curious why MS-SQL would do syntax checking in this case. I've used this type of check with ALTER TABLE ADD COLUMN commands before and it worked perfectly fine.
The only way I can think of to get around this is with:
IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'Enrollment' AND COLUMN_NAME = 'nosuchfield')
BEGIN
declare @sql nvarchar(100)
SET @sql = N'UPDATE dbo.Enrollment SET nosuchfield=''666'''
execute sp_executesql @sql
END
which looks a bit awkward. Is there a better way to accomplish this?
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Mar 24, 2015
I have a table with 201 columns . I am importing 200 columns from a file using DFT. I want update the 201th column with the fileId of the file that just imported. I am storing the fileId of the file in varFileID .
How do I go back and update the 201th column ( column name sfileId) with the varFileID value?
I can use Execute SQL Task but how will I know it's the records of the files that I just imported not other rows.
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Sep 9, 2015
My current proc updates(updates using joins of two or three tables) millions of records as per the condition provided for each department.
However, when the proc fails it writes to a ErrorTable, ERROR_MESSAGE(), ERROR_SEVERITY() and which department has failed.
Since the records are updated keeping the selected departments in loop, I get the department in a temp variable.
Now, I was asked to log the specific record where the failure was occured.
Something like log the identity column value or primary key value which record has failed.
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Jul 23, 2005
I have a single update statement that updates the same column multipletimes in the same update statement. Basically i have a column thatlooks like .1.2.3.4. which are id references that need to be updatedwhen a group of items is copied. I can successfully do this withcursors, but am experimenting with a way to do it with a single updatestatement.I have verified that each row being returned to the Update statement(in an Update..From) is correct, but that after the first update to acolumn, the next row that does an update to that same row/column combois not using the updated data from the first update to that column.Does anybody know of a switch or setting that can make this work, or doI need to stick with the cursors?Schema detail:if exists( select * from sysobjects where id = object_id('dbo.ScheduleTask') and type = 'U')drop table dbo.ScheduleTaskgocreate table dbo.ScheduleTask (Id int not null identity(1,1),IdHierarchy varchar(200) not null,CopyTaskId int null,constraint PK_ScheduleTask primary key nonclustered (Id))goUpdate query:Update ScheduleTask SetScheduleTask.IdHierarchy = Replace(ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy, '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.', '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.Id as varchar) + '.')FromScheduleTaskINNER JOIN ScheduleTask as TaskCopyData ONScheduleTask.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDTaskCopyData.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDcharindex('.' + CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.',ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy) > 0Query used to verify that data going into update is correct:selectScheduleTask.Id, TaskCopyData.Id, ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy, '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.', '.' +CAST(TaskCopyData.Id as varchar) + '.'FromScheduleTaskINNER JOIN ScheduleTask as TaskCopyData ONScheduleTask.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDTaskCopyData.CopyTaskId IS NOT NULL ANDcharindex('.' + CAST(TaskCopyData.CopyTaskId as varchar) + '.',ScheduleTask.IdHierarchy) > 0
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Jan 12, 2007
Set publisher database table column to 1.
Replicate table to subscriber (column is also 1 on subscriber once it is replicated).
Set subscriber database column to 2.
Update publisher database column to 1 (even though it is already 1).
Change is NOT replicated to subscriber (it stays at 2).
This means that replication is comparing the insert statement to its current value in the database.
Is there any way to change this behavior? We want the the column to replicate to the subscriber.
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Sep 9, 2015
My current proc updates(updates using joins of two or three tables) millions of records as per the condition provided for each department.
However, when the proc fails it writes to a ErrorTable, ERROR_MESSAGE(), ERROR_SEVERITY() and which department has failed.
Since the records are updated keeping the selected departments in loop, I get the department in a temp variable.Now, I was asked to log the specific record where the failure was occured.Something like log the identity column value or primary key value which record has failed.
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Jun 14, 2007
Hi,I have table with three columns as belowtable name:expNo(int) name(char) refno(int)I have data as belowNo name refno1 a2 b3 cI need to update the refno with no values I write a query as belowupdate exp set refno=(select no from exp)when i run the query i got error asSubquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when thesubquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used asan expression.I need to update one colum with other column value.What is the correct query for this ?Thanks,Mani
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Jul 25, 2015
I have a four tables called plandescription, plandetail and analysisdetail. The table plandescription has the columns DetailQuestionID which is the primary and identity column and a QuestionDescription column.
The table plandetail consists of the column PlanDetailID which the primary and identity column, DetailQuestionID which is the foreign key attribute of plandescription table and a planID column.
The third table analysisdetail consists of a analysisID which the primary and identity column, PlanDetailID which is the foreign key attribute of plandetail table and a scenario.
Below is the schema of the three tables
I have a two web form that will insert, update and delete data into these three tables in a two transaction. One web form will perform CRUD operations in plandescription and plandetail table. When the user inserts QuestionDescription and planid in this web form, I will insert the QuestionDescription Value in the plandescription table and will generate a DetailQuestionID value and this value is fed to the plandetail table with the planid. Here I will generate a PlanDetailID.
Once this transaction is done, I will show the second web form in which the user enters the scenario and this will be mapped with the plandescription using the PlanDetailID.
This schema cannot be changes as this is the client requirement. When I insert values I don’t have any problem. However when I update existing data, I need to delete existing PlanDetailID in the plandetail table and recreate PlanDetailID data for that DetailQuestionID and planID. This is because, the user will be adding or deleting a planID associated with the QuestionDescription.
Once I recreate PlanDetailID for that DetailQuestionID and planID, I need to update the old PlanDetailID with the new PlanDetailID in the third table analysisdetail for the associated analysisID.
I created a #Temp table called #DetailTable to insert the values analysisID, planid and old PlanDetailID and new PlanDetailID so that I can have them in update statement once I delete the data from plandetail table for that PlanDetailID.
Then I deleted the plandetailid from the plandetail table and recreate PlanDetailID for that DetailQuestionID. During my recreation I fetched the new PlanDetailID’s created into another temp table called #InsertedRows
After this I am running a while loop to update the temp table #DetailTable with the newly created PlanDetailID for the appropriate planID’s. The problem is here. When I have the same number of planID’s for example 2 planID’s 1,2 I will have only two old PlanDetailID and new PlanDetailID for that planID and analysisID.But When I add a new PlanID or remove a existing planID I am getting null value for that newly added or deleted planID. This is affecting my update statement of analysisdetail table as PlanDetailID cannot be null.
I tried to remove the Null value from the #DetailTable by running the update statement of analysis detail in a while loop however its not working.
DECLARE @categoryid INT = 8
DECLARE @DetailQuestionID INT = 1380
/*------- I need the query to run for the below three data.
Here i'm updating my planids that already exists in my database*/
DECLARE @planids VARCHAR(MAX) = '2,4,5'
[code].....
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Oct 30, 2006
Hi All,
I need to create a new field on a table and have that field default to another field value in that same table. Is there a way to do this w/ a default constraint rather than adding a trigger to the table? If i can't use a default constraint does anyone have a template trigger i could use? Below is an example of what i'm trying to do (Field_C is the new field and i want it to use Field_A value if no other value is specified on insert). Any help would be greatly appreciated.
alter table FOO add Field_C varchar(50) not null constraint FOO_default DEFAULT Field_A
thanks,
Dave
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Oct 29, 2007
Hi guys,
I have the query below (running okay):
Code Block
SELECT DISTINCT Field01 AS 'Field01', Field02 AS 'Field02'
FROM myTables
WHERE Conditions are true
ORDER BY Field01
The results are just as I need:
Field01 Field02
------------- ----------------------
192473 8461760
192474 22810
Because other reasons. I need to modify that query to:
Code Block
SELECT DISTINCT Field01 AS 'Field01', Field02 AS 'Field02'
INTO AuxiliaryTable
FROM myTables
WHERE Conditions are true
ORDER BY Field01
SELECT DISTINCT [Field02] FROM AuxTable
The the results are:
Field02
----------------------
22810
8461760
And what I need is (without showing any other field):
Field02
----------------------
8461760
22810
Is there any good suggestion?
Thanks in advance for any help,
Aldo.
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Mar 29, 2001
I have a table called test with 4 fields namley studentname, Mark1, Mark2, total (formula column).
Created table test in the following structure,
create table test (studentname varchar(50), Mark1 numeric, Mark2 numeric, total as ([Mark1]+[Mark2]))
Now I need to drop formula nature of this column total and assign default value '0'. I like to know how to do it using T-Sql script.
Thanks for your help in advance.
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Mar 11, 2015
when creating a new table. How can I set the default value of the column to equal the value of another column in the same table?
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Nov 11, 2013
I want to update a field with a trigger only if a specific field is updated.
When I try the code below, it updates the field when any field in the record is updated. Is there a way to only make look at picked_dt?
ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[UpdatePickedDate]
on [dbo].[oeordlin_sql]
after update
AS
BEGIN
-- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from
[Code] .....
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Jun 15, 2004
Is it possible to change the default value of a field using a stored proc or query? Any hints on how to do this if it is possible would be appreciated!
Mike B
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Jul 9, 2007
I'm copying MyDbTable to TempdbTable. There are 12 fields and I'm ignoring 11 of them when copying the one table to another with DTSWizard.
Once the TempdbTable is there, I'm adding 2 fields along with the one that is there already.
1) field1 int, Nullable, Default value ((3))
2) field2 tinyint, Nullable, Default value ((1))
The reason why I'm creating these two fields and giving them a value so they will match up when I import TempdbTable to MyDb2ndTable.
The problem I'm having is... field1 and field2 have a Null value intead of the value I'm giving them.
I'm new at this, so maybe the cause of the problem is obvious, but if anyone can help me I'd really appreciate it.
Thanks,
Bill
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Apr 16, 2015
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE(
ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName)
VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL
FROM MYOTHERTABLE
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Mar 25, 2008
hi, please help me, i have a data driven site, i made a field that i call "Status"so this is how it should happens, there are three different gridviews in a single page, gridview1 filter is [status] = ok, gridview2 filter is [status] = fine, gridview3 filter is [status] = complete, so all gridview has its own <asp:hyperLinkField> at first the value of "Status" is ok, so it will appear in the gridview1, so when the user click on the <asp:HyperLinkField> of gridview1 it will go to a new page with a form view, this page has a button that when click will change the value of the status field to "fine", so that it will no longer appear to the gridview1 but it will now appear to gridview2 and same with the next <asp:HyperLinkField> click until it appears to the final gridview. so my question is how can i make the button that is capable of changing (update) the value my database field (status) to a specific value, that is not visible to the user thru codebehind or plain asp.net codes. please help me, if you need more info just reply.ThanksSALAMAT PO!
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Jul 6, 2004
Hello,
Can I simply set the default value of a dateTime field with the date and time that the record was created?
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Aug 29, 2006
I am currently having this problem with gridview and detailview. When I drag either onto the page and set my select statement to pick from one table and then update that data through the gridview (lets say), the update works perfectly. My problem is that the table I am pulling data from is mainly foreign keys. So in order to hide the number values of the foreign keys, I select the string value columns from the tables that contain the primary keys. I then use INNER JOIN in my SELECT so that I only get the data that pertains to the user I am looking to list and edit. I run the "test query" and everything I need shows up as I want it. I then go back to the gridview and change the fields which are foreign keys to templates. When I edit the templates I bind the field that contains the string value of the given foreign key to the template. This works great, because now the user will see string representation instead of the ID numbers that coinside with the string value. So I run my webpage and everything show up as I want it to, all the data is correct and I get no errors. I then click edit (as I have checked the "enable editing" box) and the gridview changes to edit mode. I make my changes and then select "update." When the page refreshes, and the gridview returns, the data is not updated and the original data is shown. I am sorry for so much typing, but I want to be as clear as possible with what I am doing. The only thing I can see being the issue is that when I setup my SELECT and FROM to contain fields from multiple tables, the UPDATE then does not work. When I remove all of my JOIN's and go back to foreign keys and one table the update works again. Below is what I have for my SQL statements:------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SELECT:SELECT People.FirstName, People.LastName, People.FullName, People.PropertyID, People.InviteTypeID, People.RSVP, People.Wheelchair, Property.[House/Day Hab], InviteType.InviteTypeName FROM (InviteType INNER JOIN (Property INNER JOIN People ON Property.PropertyID = People.PropertyID) ON InviteType.InviteTypeID = People.InviteTypeID) WHERE (People.PersonID = ?)UPDATE:UPDATE [People] SET [FirstName] = ?, [LastName] = ?, [FullName] = ?, [PropertyID] = ?, [InviteTypeID] = ?, [RSVP] = ?, [Wheelchair] = ? WHERE [PersonID] = ? ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------The only fields I want to update are in [People]. My WHERE is based on a control that I use to select a person from a drop down list. If I run the test query for the update while setting up my data source the query will update the record in the database. It is when I try to make the update from the gridview that the data is not changed. If anything is not clear please let me know and I will clarify as much as I can. This is my first project using ASP and working with databases so I am completely learning as I go. I took some database courses in college but I have never interacted with them with a web based front end. Any help will be greatly appreciated.Thank you in advance for any time, help, and/or advice you can give.Brian
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Mar 30, 2004
Hi all,
I have a problem about a query to update a table
UPDATE Email SET EmailDT='31 Mar 2004' WHERE Idx={BDF51DBD-9E4F-4990-A751-5B25D071E288}
where Idx field is a uniqueidentifier type and EmailDT is datetime type. I found that when this query calling by a VB app. then it have error "[Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver]Syntax error or access violation" and i have tried again in Query Analyzer, same error also occur, the MS SQL server is version 7. Please help. thanks.
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May 12, 2006
Not a SQL guy but can do enough to be dangerous :)Trying to update a record. We have records that have a field with datasurrounded by some comment text such as *** Previous Public Solution*** Start and *** Previous Public Solution *** End . What I am tryingto do is write a SQL statement that will:Check that field C100 = TICKET0001 (to test with one record beforerunning on whole db)Check that field C101 is = ClosedCheck that field C102 is nullCopy field C103 data to field C102 and strip out any words such as ***Previous Public Solution *** Start and *** Previous Public Solution*** endThanks for any help!Kevin
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Jan 9, 2015
Ok I have a query "SELECT ColumnNames FROM tbl1" let's say the values returned are "age,sex,race".
Now I want to be able to create an "update" statement like "UPATE tbl2 SET Col2 = age + sex + race" dynamically and execute this UPDATE statement. So, if the next select statement returns "age, sex, race, gender" then the script should create "UPDATE tbl2 SET Col2 = age + sex + race + gender" and execute it.
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Nov 7, 2007
I am doing a shopping basket type demo.I have difficulties going from table with fields like (Name,ProductCode) to table(Name, ProductCode, NumberOfItems). One way could be adding just Name and ProductCode fields and let NumberOfItems come automatically. It could have some common value like 1. How should I do this with VB.
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May 25, 2004
In SQL Server 2000 / Asp.Net I am trying to use default values for all fields; hoping to eliminate nulls.
For number and character fields, the default is pretty obvious, but is there any empty value for a date field? I think a null there might be better than putting in a bogus date, at least it can be tested for.
Are there any more developend ideas on this question?
Many thanks
Mike Thomas
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Jan 28, 2008
Hello,
I am trying to write an SQL command to set the default value of an integer column I have within a table.
ALTER TABLE TableName alter column ColumnName int default 0
Any suggetions?
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Nov 7, 2007
I am creating a new filed in SQL Server 2005, and I want the field to have the default of '0'
I select the data type as numeric and save my changes, I then visit our front end database to see if the default value is just '0' but it appears as '0.00'
SO i thought about changing the default value to int (im thinking this means integer?) and changing it to '3' but it still displays the decimal point and two 0's
Am I doing something wrong here? I just want it to display '0'
Thanks
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