Is it possible to write the InsertCommand for a SqlDataSource to return the value of the AUTONumber of a field generated when a new record is added to a database table and display that value on label1.Text after the postback of ItemInsersted event? For example, <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:NearMissConnectionString >" InsertCommand="INSERT INTO [NearMiss] ([Branch], [Division] VALUES (@Branch, @Division); SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY()" SelectCommand="SELECT [NearMissID], [Branch], [Division], FROM [NearMiss]" <InsertParameters> <asp parameter Name="Branch" Type="Int32" /> <asp parameter Name="Division" Type="String" /> </InsertParameters>
</asp:SqlDataSource>
NearMissID would be the value of the autonumber generated by the SQL Server
I am trying to retrieve the value of the autonumber generated when a new record is inserted into a SQL 2000 Database using a SqlDataSource attached to a FormView. Is this possible? Can some give me a short example of how to retrieve that value and display it in a textbox? Thanks for any help with this. It seems like it would be a common issue for .net developers.
Ok, So I am trying to do 1 insert into a table and then insert more information into another table but I need to get the [TKTNUM] (the column with the idenity increment on it) value that was auto-generated when the insert was done. I have done a search and I am well aware that this are tons of posts on this subject already that is how I found out to use the SCOPE IDENTITY(). But nobody is using the insert syntax that I am using and since I am new, I don't understand any of it. I think they are using ADO.NET. I am extremely new to ASP.NET so take it easy on me ok guys... But can someone take a look at my code and tell me what the problem is. Again, I'm new so I am learning as I go so I might be missing something really stupid. Any help would be greatly appreciated. O yeah, I am running this code in a button click event NOT in a stored procedure (dont really know now to use those anyway).Here is my code:Protected Sub submitBtn_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs)Dim newTktNumIf Page.IsValid ThenDim it3Conn As SqlDataSource = New SqlDataSource()it3Conn.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("ConnectionString1").ToStringit3Conn.InsertCommand = "INSERT INTO [IT_TICKET] ([REQUEST_DATE], [LOGGED_BY], [REQUESTED_BY], [TKTSTATUS],[NEEDED_DATE]) VALUES (@REQUEST_DATE, @LOGGED_BY, @REQUESTED_BY, @TKTSTATUS,@NEEDED_DATE); SELECT @newTktNum = SCOPE_IDENTITY()"it3Conn.InsertParameters.Add("REQUEST_DATE", DateTime.Now.ToString)it3Conn.InsertParameters.Add("LOGGED_BY", User.Identity.Name)it3Conn.InsertParameters.Add("REQUESTED_BY", User.Identity.Name)it3Conn.InsertParameters.Add("TKTSTATUS", "NEW")it3Conn.InsertParameters.Add("NEEDED_DATE", needByTB.Text.ToString)it3Conn.Insert()End IfMsgBox("Ticket Number: " & newTktNum & " has been created", MsgBoxStyle.OkOnly, "Ticket Created")End Sub
I have been using tis page as a reference http://forums.asp.net/thread/1511323.aspxbut i cant seem to get this to work. The above page suggests using Dim newId As Object = e.Command.Parameters("@RETURN_VALUE").Value to get the value but when i do that i get an error that Command is not a member of system.web.ui.webcontrols.formViewInsertedEventArgs Can anyone help?ThanksMatt
Hi folks I'm using a function to create a record on a database, and then I want to return the ID of that record to passinto another function. I believe its scope identity that does this, but I'm not sure how to do it. public static void putrecordin(string record) { SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("insert Table (record) values (@record; scope identity)" conn.Open(); cmd.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("@record", record)); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.Close(); another(new-record-ID, anothervalue); } public static void another(string new-record-ID) {do stuff } so you'll see I have a function called putrecordin, and at the end of the sql statment I want to return the id of the new record and pass it into another function called another. Anyone know how to do this? Thanks!
To Parse it out. This then has to be inserted into another table with an identity column (damn Identity column), and I need to grab the generated id for each row, because then there are other children tables that need to be populated.
Question: Is there any set way to grab multiple generated id's? Or do I need to loop or use a cursor?
Hi, I've been trying to insert data in a Sql server (.mdf) db and use SCOPE IDENTITY to be able to insert an id in both the parent and the child tables. However, I don't know how to write one of the lines correctly: Dim MyConn As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection(System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("myConnectionString").ConnectionString) Dim MySQL As String = "INSERT INTO Document (fid, serie, vnr, datum, vtext, sign) " & _ "Values (@fid, @serie, @vnr, @datum, @vtext, @sign) Select @verid=SCOPE_IDENTITY()" Dim Cmd As New SqlCommand(MySQL, MyConn) With Cmd.Parameters .Add(New SqlParameter("@fid", fid)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@serie", SerieDropDownList.SelectedValue)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@vnr", vnr)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@datum", datumet)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@vtext", VtextTextBox.Text)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@sign", sign)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@verid", SqlDbType.Int)) 'HERE IS THE LINE THAT SHOULD BE CHANGED (OR SO I THINK) End With MyConn.Open() Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() Dim p As SqlParameter = Cmd.Parameters.Add("@verid", SqlDbType.Int) p.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output Dim verid = Cmd.Parameters("@verid").Value.ToString For Each row As GridViewRow In StampelGridView.Rows Dim kpnr As String = row.Cells(0).Text Dim kst As String = row.Cells(1).Text If kst = " " Then kst = "" Dim projekt As String = row.Cells(2).Text If projekt = " " Then projekt = "" Dim debettext As String = "0.00" Dim kredittext As String = "0.00" If row.Cells(3).Text.Length > 3 Then debettext = Replace(row.Cells(3).Text, ",", ".") If row.Cells(4).Text.Length > 3 Then kredittext = Replace(row.Cells(4).Text, ",", ".") Dim ptext As String = row.Cells(5).Text If ptext = " " Then ptext = "" Dim MySQLpost As String = "INSERT INTO Vpost (verid, kpnr, kst, projekt, debet, kredit, ptext) " & _ "Values (@verid, @kpnr, @kst, @projekt, @debet, @kredit, @ptext)" Dim Cmdpost As New SqlCommand(MySQLpost, MyConn) With Cmdpost.Parameters .Add(New SqlParameter("@verid", p)) 'THIS SHOULD CHECK OUT AS WELL... .Add(New SqlParameter("@kpnr", kpnr)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@kst", kst)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@projekt", projekt)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@debet", debettext)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@kredit", kredittext)) .Add(New SqlParameter("@ptext", ptext)) End With Cmdpost.ExecuteNonQuery() Next MyConn.Close() In other words, the verid is the id of the new post in the first table. This id should be inserted in the new table as well. Thank you very much in advance fro helping me out! I've worked a LONG time with this. Pettrer
Hi, I have been trying to get the scope Identity after inserting a record using an ObjectDataSource. I can't find what event, or how to get the value that the scope identity returns. Here is my Sproc.
ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.[YourCompany_LanCustomer_Insert] ( @DNNUserID int, @FirstName nvarchar(50), @LastName nvarchar(50), @Address nvarchar(50), @Address2 nvarchar(50), @City nvarchar(50), @State nvarchar(50), @Zip nvarchar(50), @EmailAddress nvarchar(50), @PhoneNumber nvarchar(50), @CustomerID int OUTPUT ) AS INSERT INTO YourCompany_LanCustomer (DNNUserID, FirstName, LastName, Address, Address2, City, State, Zip, EmailAddress, PhoneNumber, DateEntered) VALUES (@DNNUserID, @FirstName, @LastName, @Address, @Address2, @City, @State, @Zip, @EmailAddress, @PhoneNumber, getdate()) SET @CustomerID = Scope_Identity() RETURN
I have a table EugeneTest(id_num, fname, minit, lname)where field "id_num" is type IDENTITY and has UNIQUE constraintLet's say 2 user execute this code at the same time:DECLARE @return integeruse EugeneTestINSERT employees( fname, minit, lname)VALUES( 'Eugene3', 'F', 'Josephs')SET @return = @@IDENTITYIs is not possible to get duplicated value in id_num column becuase ofUNIQUEconstraint, but is it possible the both user get the same @@IDENTITYnumber( for example, if @@IDENTITY is evaluated and kept somewhere in thebuffer before the data actually get written to the disk )Thanks, Eugene
I have taken three dtsx files and re written them into one each in its own container. I use the XML Task task alot which the File connection is set by a variable and the variable value is evaluated by expression (the expression makes up the path/filename from other variable values). All the variables that make up the connection are at the container scope. The package will not run now because it is saying that the source (created by variables) for the file connection do not exist.
It seems the answer is that file connections exist at the package level therefore the variable has to be at the package level. This seems to be alot of variables i now have to move to package level to generate the XML source connection. Which in essence makes it confusing as to which variables operate in which container.
My question is can we easily move variable scope (Not ideal as we have alot of variables at package level) Or Can we do the same for connection managers as we do for variables and have them only used in a scope? (this will be ideal as some connections only need to be at a container scope)
I'm trying to update my e-commerce approach from ADO-heavy code to a more modern approach based on the SqlData Source. I also want to move away from Stored Procedures for the moment, if I can, though I may return to them later (mainly for educational purposes at the moment). In the past I used @@Identity in a stored procedure to return an ID# which I passed on to the end user as their "order number". Unfortunately this approach seems to only apply to SPs. In short, what's the best way to handle this using SqlDataSource and minimal ADO code? Just to add a bit more detail, I've got basically three tables, in a fairly obvious relationship. Orders stores the main order info (Customer's name and address, total, etc), OrderDetails lists the line items, and Products contains detail on the items. (Put another way, the auto-generated tags in the SqlDataSource object either don't include the OrderID param because it's toggled for Identity in the database, or if I toggle Identity off then I don't know how to trigger it to toggle the next number in sequence. And either way I don't know how to feed that information back to the program.) Thanks!
Hello all,I have a sqldatasource that inserts data to the database but I want to get the ID from an Identity field after I am done inserting the data. How can I best do that? I'm not using a stored procedure to do this. <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:onepduConnectionString %>" InsertCommand="INSERT INTO [tblaccounts] ([fname],[lname], [address], [city], [state], [zip], ,[phone],[credits]) VALUES (@fName,@lname, @address, @city, @state, @zip, @email, @phone, @credits)> <InsertParameters> <asp:FormParameter Name="fname" FormField="FirstNameTextBox" Type="String" /> <asp:FormParameter Name="lname" FormField="LastNameTextBox" Type="String" /> <asp:FormParameter Name="address" FormField="AddressTextBox" Type="String" /> <asp:FormParameter FormField="cityTextBox" Name="city" Type="String" /> <asp:FormParameter FormField="stateTextBox" Name="state" Type="String" /> <asp:FormParameter FormField="zipTextBox" Name="zip" Type="String" /> <asp:FormParameter FormField="emailTextBox" Name="email" Type="string" /> <asp:FormParameter FormField="phoneTextBox" Name="phone" Type="string" /> <asp:Parameter Name="credits" DefaultValue=0 /> </InsertParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource>
is there a way that I can use the sqldatasource with a form view where my sqldatasource select statement is like this select * from tblUsers where vcUserName=@vcUserName <selectparameters> <asp:Parameter Name="user.identity.name" Type="String /> </selectParameters>
Is there no way to pass identity info back through SqlDataSource? You can only do that with ADO.NET code? In other words, if I want to run a complex INSERT statement to a table that uses Identity, I can't take that key value back through something like SCOPE_IDENTITY() and use it? I know how to do this with ADO code, but I can't figure out how to do it purely with SqlDataSource. I was hoping to do this without having to write a new Insert statement -- just using the one that's already in the SqlDataSource control. But there doesn't seem to be any facility for Identity in there. I tried embedding a separate select statement after the insert statement and a semi-colon, but that didn't seem to do anything. Thanks!
I apologise if i have not posted this in the correct Topic before i start. But was uncertain where to post this query. This is my first project in ASP.NET, MS Visual Web Developer 2005 Express and SQL Server 2005 Express. I have relatively little experience, so please bare with me. I have managed to create a form that inserts data into a table and then inserts the Automatically Created Primary Key(as a foreign key) in another table. I have done this by inserting what is highlighted in red in the code of my InsertCommand below (Please scroll across to the end of the code):-InsertCommand="INSERT INTO [PrinterModel] ([Model], [PrinterMakeID], [CartridgeCode], [PartCode], [Duplex], [NIC], [Wireless], [Parallel], [USB], [Colour], [PrinterTypeID]) VALUES (@Model, @PrinterMakeID, @CartridgeCode, @PartCode, @Duplex, @NIC, @Wireless, @Parallel, @USB, @Colour, @PrinterTypeID) INSERT INTO [Model] ([PrinterModelID],[TypeID]) VALUES (@@IDENTITY, 3)" Can you see any problems that may arise from using this method. This project is an Asset Management System and will be used by no more than a handful of users. My Concern is the use of the @@IDENTITY (As it only stores the last Key used). Should I be using it here? If there is more than one user inserting into tables (Chances of this happening are very low), will the correct Primary key be insert to the table in the above code?Thank you for your comments.
Hi,How do I get hold of the HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name from within an sqldatasource? I want to create a WHERE clause that says WHERE UserName = @UserName and the @UserName parameter be filled with the current user name. I would be able to do this in code, but I don't know how to get at this information from within a datasource. At a guess I tried to use the Cookie option from the drop down list, and use the name of the FormsAuthentication Cookie, but this didn't work. Is there a way I can do this? If so how? I don't want to resort to using a hidden field or anything like that if I can help it. Many thanks, Steve
What is the C# code I use to do this? I'm guessing it should be fairly simple, as there is only one row selected. I just need to pull out a specific field from that row and then insert that value into a different SqlDataSource.
HelloI am trying to run a program to check for transaction scopeI have written the following code.But it seems I need to add a namespace or referenceWhat namespace am I supposed to addthanksusing (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScope.Required, options)){SqlConnection MyCon = new SqlConnection("server=hemalatha\sqlexpress;integrated security=sspi;database=demo");MyCon.Open();SqlCommand Mycmd=new SqlCommand("insert into t1 values 574,'scope','10/10/2007',3,3,3");Mycmd.ExecuteNonQuery();SqlConnection MyCon1 = new SqlConnection("server=hemalatha\sqlexpress;integrated security=sspi;database=persons");MyCon1.Open();SqlCommand Mycmd1 = new SqlCommand("insert into persons values 'scope',123,123,12,'scope'");Mycmd1.ExecuteNonQuery();}
In the following Query, is Table1.Column3 updated in the subquery for each row in Table1, or does it take the first value, or is it NULL, or is it ____?
Select Column1, Column2 from Table1 where Column1 IN (Select Col1 from Table2 where Col2 > Table1.Column3 Group by Col1 Having count(Col1) > 1) and Table1.Column3 < Column4
Is an index in a database the equivalent for a <TH scope="col"> in a columnof atable in the html code?--Luigi ( un italiano che vive in Svezia)https://www.scaiecat-spa-gigi.com/s...kor-italien.php
I've been trying to figure out the usage of "Nothing" as the scope parameter, and the more I try, the more I can confused.
It says on the RDL spec:
"For expressions inside data regions:
.......
Specifying the keyword Nothing as the scope is equivalent to specifying the outermost data region containing the report item in which the aggregate is used."
It seems that what's it saying is that if I have an expression in a table as = last(somefield, "the name of the table") is the same as = last(somefield,Nothing) But, apparently it;s not. (I tried last, first,sum, count,CountRows, min, max...........) it doesn't matter where I put "=last(somefield,Nothing)" in the table (i tried table header,footer, detail, and table group header, footer), none of them worked. and I tried it everywhere in matrix, in charts. It's just not working. It always complains about the invalid scope not being the containing data region, containing grouping or dataset name.
However, the only way I get the "Nothing" as the scope to work is in a RunningValue function, not in any other aggregate funcitons.
Anyone help me with this, please... I need a complete definition on the usage of Nothing as scope.
Variable scope of package variables should be in a dropdown. I want to copy (20+) variables from one sequence container to another. Do I have to retype all the names, types and initial values because I made the mistake not to place them one level higher?
I am really starting to like CTEs. My only qualm is that you can only use them within the first statement after you declare them. I wish they would remain active for the duration of the sql batch just like everything else (variables,local temp tables, ect). Is there any trick so that you can use them multiple times? Maybe define them as a string and do dynamic sql or something like that? Hopefully (i have not researched the new version of sql server) in SQL Server 2008 the scope has increase. Anyways any help would be appreciated.
While I have learned a lot from this thread I am still basically confused about the issues involved.
.I wanted to INSERT a record in a parent table, get the Identity back and use it in a child table. Seems simple.
To my knowledge, mine would be the only process running that would update these tables. I was told that there is no guarantee, because the OLEDB provider could write the second destination row before the first, that the proper parent-child relationship would be generated as expected. It was recommended that I create my own variable in memory to hold the Identity value and use that in my SSIS package.
1. A simple example SSIS .dts example illustrating the approach of using a variable for identity would be helpful.
2. Suppose I actually had two processes updating these tables, running at the same time. Then it seems the "variable" method will also have its problems. Is there a final solution other than locking the tables involved prior to updating them or doing something crazy like using a GUID for the primary key!
3. We have done the type of parent-child inserts I originally described from t-sql for years without any apparent problems. (Maybe we were just lucky.) Is the entire issue simply a t-sql one or does SSIS add a layer of complexity beyond t-sql that needs to be addressed?
This is kind of what I'm trying to do in my MS SQL 2000 query. ShouldI be able to reference s1.col1 inside the 2nd derived table?I'm getting 'Invalid column name col1' and it's coming from the 2ndderived table (I've commented out other refs to just it to check).Maybe I need to use a temp table instead.SELECT s1.col1,(SELECT * FROM(SELECT COUNT(zzz) AS SomeTotalFROM tab1WHERE s1.col1 = zzz)) AS RowCount) /* error here */FROM(SELECT col1 FROM table) AS s1Thank you!
We're working on a new release of a software.In the existing version, each client connects and executes a long batch ofanalysis on some tables.In the new release, we need to allow each client to execute analysis on asubset of data, according to certain login information.Our idea is:1) Connection to db2) Creation of one View according to restrictions3) Execution of analysis using just created view and some tables.The problem is that executingcreate view myvista asselect * from tb_data where testo='A1'from two different clients, creates just one view.Question: Does it exist a way of creating a VIEW with a connection scope,something like 'select into ##temptable'?We tried Create View #MyVista or ##Myvista, but this name is not accepted.Alternative way, is creating a ##TempTable, at the beginning of the batch,and using it as data source instead of full table, but, due to really hugeamount of data, this could really disturb server performances.Thanks for any helpAlberto
I have a detailed report ..with summary lines and detailed lines (drill down).
I have a column with a function "RowNumber(Nothing)" which is supposed to just count the rows
when I put this in the summary row for the column I need in the Design Layout section and run the report, I get numbers on the summary lines which include the number of rows in the level below (detailed rows).
I just want to number the summary rows sequentially without taking into consideration, the number of detailed rows.
How do I modify RowNumber(Nothing) to exclude counting the detailed rows....???
