This is a pretty newbie question, but I have no experience with MSSQL. I have a table with the first column named "ID" and this column is a primary key. The data type for this column is "int" and the length is "4". The problem I'm having is that when I insert new data into the table I get an error because the "ID" column cannot be NULL. I thought since the "ID" column is a primary key it will automatically increment when new data is being inserted. I'm not sure what the best solution is, but I figure if I make the column "autonum" that would fix the problem. In the enterprise manager under the design table there doesn't seem to be an "autonum" selection from the data type drop down box. How can you set a column to autonum in MSSQL?
Hello all, Is there any way to force Autonum to generate a number before an entire record is created? Some of my forms will not work because it needs a number already listed in its index (which uses Autonum) and cannot add to the table until it is created.I really need it to have a number ready and waiting upon the last record's completion.
Hello,I am in the midst of converting an Access back end to SQL Server Express.The front end program (converted to Access 2003) uses DAO throughout. InAccess, when I use recordset.AddNew I can retrieve the autonum value for thenew record. This doesn't occur with SQL Server, which of course causes anerror (or at least in this code it does since there's an unhandled NULLvalue). Is there any way to retrieve this value when I add a new recordfrom SQL server or will I have to do it programmatically in VB?Any direction would be great.Thanks!
I know you can set permissions on a column via T-SQL, can it be done via Enterprise Manager? If so, how do you do it? I've looked everywhere but dont seem to be able to find how to do in EM.
Please let me know if there is a more suitable group to post in.In query analyzer I do :alter table mytableadd mycolumn varchar default 50But when I check in Enterprise manager the column has a length of 1 ratherthan 50.What am I doing wrong?Thanks.Cheers - Tom."Do you know what a metaphysical can of worms this portal is?" CraigSchwartz, Being John Malkovich (1999)
How do you set column privileges in the SQL Server 7.0’s Enterprise Manager. It was so easy in 6.5’s but now it seems that the only way to do it is through the stored procedure.
This should be simple. I have a package which reads a flat file into a data flow. One of the columns (RefNumber) needs to be parsed and split into 2 distinct values. So in the dataflow I add the 2 new columns (ID1 & ID2) in a derived column transformation, and then call a script task.
In the script task, RefNumber is readonly, ID1 & ID2 are readwrite.
Here's a cut-down version of the script task with the boring stuff removed;
Public Overrides Sub Parser_ProcessInputRow(ByVal Row As ParserBuffer) Dim narrative As String = Row.RefNumber.Trim()
If (String.IsNullOrEmpty(narrative)) Then Return End If
'lots of stuff happening here not relevant to the question so snipped
If ((IsNumeric(narrative)) And (narrative.Length = 16)) Then Row.ID1 = Int32.Parse(narrative.Substring(0, 8)) Row.ID2 = Int32.Parse(narrative.Substring(8)) Return End If End Sub
Looking at a data viewer after the script task, the values aren't being set. I also stuck some MsgBoxes into the script task and the Row values are being properly in the script.
I know I'm missing something obvious ... any ideas?
Is there a setting in SQL Server that ensures a column is not allowed to have the same value more than once? Or must this be set up in the insert statment itself? Or how about a business rule?
I'm trying to set the default value of a column (SysInvNum) in a table (caseform) of mine by concatenating 3 other fields in the same table. These other fields are all Integer datatypes. they are "CaseYear" e.g. (2005), "InvNum" e.g. (0001) and "PostId" e.g. (5).
So basically the SysInvNum column for this row should read '200500015'
When I run a basic query using the CAST or CONVERT functions like this:
SELECT convert (varchar,caseyear) + convert(varchar,InvNum) + convert(varchar,postid) from caseform
OR
SELECT cast(caseyear as varchar(4)) + cast(InvNum as varchar(4)) + cast(postid as varchar(1)) from caseform
I get the results I want. But since I want this value to be the default value of the column, I tried inserting this: convert (varchar,caseyear) + convert(varchar,InvNum) + convert(varchar,postid) into the default value parameter of the column in the caseform table. The result is a string that is the query itself.
I then tried creating a UDF called getsysinvnum() where I declare and set 2 variables whilst returning one of the variables as a varchar. An example of what it looks like is this:
CREATE FUNCTION GetSysInvNum() RETURNS varchar AS BEGIN DECLARE @maxcaseid Int DECLARE @sysinvnum varchar
SELECT @maxcaseid = max (caseid) from caseform SELECT @sysinvnum = cast(caseyear as varchar(4)) + cast(invnum as varchar(4)) + cast(postid as varchar(1)) from caseform where caseid = @maxcaseid RETURN @sysinvnum END
The result I get when I plug this into the default value of the column as : ([dbo].[getsysinvnum]()) is "2".
Yes it returns the number "2" could someone please tell me what I am doing wrong, or suggest a better way for me to do this?
I am on the verge of being able to do exactly what I want, but just can't seem to find the right combination of things to do it. I'm sure all of you wonderful folks will be able to point it out to me immediately, but I've been looking at it too long or something....
I have a record of individual sales with the state, and quarter of the sale.
sale_id state quarter 001 NY 2005Q1 003 WI 2006Q2 etc.
I create a report with a matrix to show count(sale_id) with Quarter as the column group and State as the row group. This works fine.
Now what I want to do is to get percentages based on quarterly sales. In other words, what percent of sales for 2005Q1 in NY vs. all sales in 2005Q1. So I create a second dataset (called total) with an SQL query like so:
SELECT count(sale_id) FROM data_table WHERE quarter = @QueryQuarter
Now, back in the matrix I want to use the column that we're in (2005Q1, 2005Q2, etc.) as the value that is passed to this query.
This is a simple concept, but I can't seem to figure out the correct call to pass the column group to the query as the parameter.
Thank you for any pointers you might be able to give. As I said, I'm right on the verge and just can't quite get it.
I am trying to figure out how to set the Description of a Column in my database table by making a SQL function call. I know that I can go into Microsoft Studio Express and type in each desciption for each column. I just have about 1000 variables and each variable's description is in an Excel spreadsheet. I want to be able to build SQL code that will set each of the 1000 variables own description.
I have a set of data spread across a number of tables regarding stock market data. An example of this follows:
Market Capitalization...
Date CompA CompB 01/01/11 100 5 02/01/11 102 4
Share Price....
Date CompA CompB 01/01/11 100 100 02/01/11 101 99
Event Data...
Date Company 01/01/11 CompA 02/01/11 CompB
Pretty simply, I need a way to retrieve the market capitalisation and share price data based on the event data. So for instance I say 'oh, there is an event on the 01/01/11 involving company A, the market capitalisation on this day was 100, then for the next event it was 4 for company B.
I can also transpose the data so that the company name is in the rows and the dates in the columns for the market cap and share price tables, but this leads to the issue that when I try and get the data, I don't know how to query the correct company for that date.
For instance: SELECT Event.Date, Event.Company FROM Event
how do I now say.....
SELECT MarketCapitalisation.Column WHERE Column = Event.Company AND MarketCapitalisation.Date = Event.Date.
I have played around with a few basic joins, but I am having issue with the principle of that second to last line of SQL (so only getting the correct column).
I still have a copy of the data in excel so can flip things around as needed, but that would only mean that I would have the issue of WHERE Column = Event.Date instead of Event.Company.
In my ASP.NET app, I'm executing a stored procedure via a SQLCommand the searches a customer database. I believe the default timeout is 90 seconds. I'm curious of what happens to the SQL Server Stored Procedure after timing out from the ASP.NET application. Does it timeout at the same time or do you have to set up a value in SQL Server?
I have a excel file which has a column called "Code" and their values are A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H. I want to create a new column called "status" based on the values of "Code".
Code:
A B C D E F G H
If A,C,E,G then "status" = "Active" else if B,D,F,H then "Status" = "Inactive". I like to do it using "Derived Column".
The requirement is to have a table say 'child_table', with an Identity column to refer another column from a table say 'Parent_table'..
i cannot implement this constraint, it throws the error when i execute the below Alter query,
ALTER TABLE child_table ADD CONSTRAINT fk_1_ct FOREIGN KEY (child_id) REFERENCES parent_table (parent_id) ON DELETE CASCADE
the error thrown is : Failed to execute alter table query: 'ALTER TABLE child_table ADD CONSTRAINT fk_1_ct FOREIGN KEY (child_id) REFERENCES parent_table (parent_id) ON DELETE CASCADE '. Message: java.sql.SQLException: Cascading foreign key 'fk_1_ct' cannot be created where the referencing column 'child_table.child_id' is an identity column.
Hi guys, If I have a temporary table called #CTE With the columns [Account] [Name] [RowID Table Level] [RowID Data Level] and I need to change the column type for the columns: [RowID Table Level] [RowID Data Level] to integer, and set the column [RowID Table Level] as Identity (index) starting from 1, incrementing 1 each time. What will be the right syntax using SQL SERVER 2000?
I am trying to solve the question in the link below: http://forums.microsoft.com/MSDN/ShowPost.aspx?PostID=2093921&SiteID=1
Thanks in advance, Aldo.
I have tried the code below, but getting syntax error...
ALTER TABLE #CTE ALTER COLUMN [RowID Table Level] INT IDENTITY(1,1), [RowID Data Level] INT;
I have also tried:
ALTER TABLE #CTE MODIFY [RowID Table Level] INT IDENTITY(1,1), [RowID Data Level] INT;
Hello, I am a SQL rookie. I have followed the tutorial and installed MSDN as it says. However, I am unable to create a database with WebMatrix. I keep getting an error that reads "SQL Server does not exist or access denied. ConnectionOpen (Connect())."
When I loaded the SQL, everything seemed to go well. I got all of the results that the tutorial said I should.
Please advise on my next steps. Thank you in advance.
I'm trying to set up a new job to update a field in the table, I've managed to get the select syntax to work, but when I added an IF statement and Update syntax it didn't like it and the following error was shown:-
Server: Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 9 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'BEGIN'.
This is the syntax I'm trying to use for the job:-
USE EmployerEngagement
IF (SELECT On_Stop FROM tblEmployer LEFT OUTER JOIN tblWP_Details ON tblEmployer.Emp_ID = tblWP_Details.Emp_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN tblVetting ON tblWP_Details.Record_ID = tblVetting.Record_ID WHERE tblEmployer.On_Stop = 0 AND tblVetting.Next_Vett_Date <= GETDATE()) BEGIN UPDATE tblEmployer SET On_Stop = 1 END
Basically I just want to change the On_Stop value from 0 to 1 if the Next_Vett_Date is before or on todays date.
Hello,I've noticed on my DTS that it is connecting to the remote SQL Servervia Named Pipes. Not sure why I've been getting the following error:[DBNETLIB][ConnectionWrite (WrapperWrite()).] but I wanted to changethe DTS from using Named Pipes to use TCP/IP. How to do it?Also, if anyone has any clues on what this error means, please let meknow!Step Error Source: Microsoft Data Transformation Services (DTS) DataPumpStep Error Description:The number of failing rows exceeds the maximumspecified. (Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Server (80004005):[DBNETLIB][ConnectionWrite (WrapperWrite()).]General network error.Check your network documentation.)Step Error code: 8004206AStep Error Help File:sqldts80.hlpStep Error Help Context ID:0Tnks!
I am trying to connect to my database in SQL SERVER EXPRESS via dreamweaver. I am trying to create DSN connection but when i click on sql server in the optionlist it lists about 100 options of the sql server i want to connect to. How do I find out which one is the one I have my tables in and the sql server express that I use.
I am unable to set the value of my SqlParameter unless it is to a string.sqlCmd.Parameters.Add('@myParameter', SqlDbType.Bit).Value := false; Setting it to false or 0 results in error: "Incompatible types: 'Object' and 'Boolean' (or 'Integer')" I've tried to cast them as objects and that didn't work. I don't understand why something like 'false' (as a string) will. FYI: I'm using Delphi.NET and hating it.
Hi, I have just started with ASP, and have a problem. I have created a stored procedure which looks to a specific tablename for information, based upon the users choice from a dropdown list. The control works fine when executed from within visual web developer, and I manually enter the value that the variable expects. However I can not get the dropdown listbox value to be written to the SQL value. I have tried for days, traweled the net for answers, borrowed 3ft in height of SQL books! so either I am doing something fundamentally wrong, or I am missing something. My SP is: ALTER Procedure GenericTableSelect @tablename VarChar(20) AS Declare @SQL VarChar(1000) SELECT @SQL = 'SELECT [base model] FROM ' SELECT @SQL = @SQL + @tablename Exec ( @SQL) and from the page the command to call it is: SelectCommand=generictableselect></asp:SqlDataSource> But this fails to compile and comes back with "@tablename not defined" any pointers in the right direction would help. The object of this is for two drop down boxes - the first is populated from one database of categories, the selection of which populates the second drop down list with items from within that category. Cheers, Richard
Hello all, I've gotten approval at my work place to implement a new web server cluster. We currently have one web server running Windows 2003 and one SQL 2005 box. I've gotten approval to purchase 2 new web servers that will eventually become our primary servers. I've browsed Microsoft's site but can't seem to find any FAQ's or How-Tos on clustering that are of any help. Is there anyone out there who has some info that could help me get started?
I have been using MySQL as the back end of my .Net 2.0 applications for a while using a custom membership provider without any problems.Having now switched to a new webhost which supports both MySQL and MS SQL Server 2005 and also creating a new site thought I should set up the new site to use MS SQL..... I am having trouble however setting up the SQL server to act as the membership provider. Following the advice on here I tried using aspnet_regsql.exe... Firstly, when trying to get the list of databasses on the remote server I get the following error: Failed to query a list of database names from the SQL Server. Invalid object name 'Sysdatabases' If I then just type in the name of my database and go through to the end I get the following error:Exception:An error occurred during the execution of the SQL file 'InstallCommon.sql'. The SQL error number is 8152 and the SqlException message is: String or binary data would be truncated. I can connect to my MS SQL server remotely without any problem using the likes of MS SQL Server Management Studio Express. Is there any other way I can setup the databases needed for user and roles access control or is the usage of MS SQL much more complicated than what MySQL was?
hey guys heres my problem iam trying to install SQL server2000 but i keep on running into problems....?? here is what iam having problems with setup SAPWD="AStrongSAPwd" SECURITYMODE=SQL it keeps saying the instance name specified is invalid there has to be an easyer way to run the program...?? i have all ready set up an instance name and the SAPWD. any suggestions?? please help
I have the following to create a new table.... CREATE TABLE dbo.test (Id varchar(20) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, Name varchar(256) NOT NULL, visible bit NOT NULL )
I need to set the default value of the bit visible to 1. How can this be done using a T-SQL statement? Thanks, Zath
How can I change the Default value of a column in a table using sql? for instance I have a table called Phone and I have a field called AreaCode and the default now is '123' . I would like to change it to '456'.
