Setting: sql 2005, SP1.
I created a new job (under SQL Server agent) which runs a simple ActiveX script. When run interactively, the job runs fine. But when run under the scheduler the job fails to even start. There is no error message and "History" makes no reference at all to the job run. I checked, the job is enabled. Any thoughts much appreciated.
TIA,
barkingdog
Nothing fancy; just a trigger on a sharepoint table that supposed towrite a record to another SQL table.set ANSI_NULLS ONset QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ONgoALTER TRIGGER [TV_UpdateFileSyncProgress]ON [dbo].[Docs]AFTER INSERTASBEGINSET NOCOUNT ON;BEGINIF EXISTS (SELECT null FROM inserted WHERE DirName like'csm/%/Shared Documents')BEGINIF NOT EXISTS (SELECT null FROM inserted INNER JOINTV_FileSyncProgress fp ON LOWER(RTRIM(fp.LeafName)) =LOWER(RTRIM(Replace(Replace(inserted.DirName,'csm/',''),'/SharedDocuments','') + '' + inserted.LeafName)))BEGININSERT INTO TV_FileSyncProgress (InternalOrigin, ExternalOrigin,ChangeType, SiteId, DirName, LeafName, FlagForDelete)SELECT0,1,1,SiteId,'F:commonExtranet',Replace(Replace (DirName,'csm/',''),'/SharedDocuments','') + '' + LeafName,0 FROM insertedENDENDENDEND
View 1 Replies View RelatedI have a trigger on a table that just updates a last_modified_date and this works fine on our production server. Now I have to update some data and I do not want the trigger to fire. I cannot disable or drop the trigger because the productions systems needs the trigger. Anyone an idea of how to solve this problem?
View 6 Replies View RelatedHi, I need to write a script to run an automation in MS SQL 2005. It will run every 10 hours. What the script will do is just import a .cvs file into a database table. Can someone let me know how can I acheive this? Thanks in advanced.
View 2 Replies View RelatedWe just installed SQL Server 2005. I have 3 jobs within SQL Server 2000 that i would like to import into the new server howeber i have no clue on how to achieve this. In fact I dont even know how to make a new job within SQL Server 2005 at all? Can someone please give me the steps on how to do this.
BTW the old job accesses launches a .EXE application every day, once a day at 5pm and the other job launches the same applicationb but at 5am. I had to have 2 seperate jobs because I couldnt figure out how to pass a different parameter for the two launches.
Thanks.
I have a job in SQL 2005 that when it runs works fine if I hard code the Makedate, what I need it to do is have the Makedate equal todays date minus one day...I came up with the code below, but that does seem to work...any thoughts.
INSERT INTO abcTransaction( Payee, Payment, AccountNumber)SELECT 'Credit', SUM(Rebate * Quantity), A.AccountNumberFROM Account AINNER JOIN abdTrades T on A.AccountNumber = T.AccountNumber Where MakeDate = getDate() - 1
GROUP BY A.AccountNumber
Hi All
I designed a maintenance plan in 2005 it create job in SQL Server Agent-->Jobs when i right click on job to check the properties it doesn’t give me the details of that job instead it open the window for new job which is not the case in 2000. Can some one there please let me know how to check the job details in 2005in GUI not in terms of T-SQL
Regards
Hi Guys,
Any assistance you people can provide will be considered grateful. I€™m in search of a generic cookie cutter snippet of code that simulates the creation of an Oracle DBMS_JOB, but I need it for SQL Server 2005.
Beneath, highlighted in red, is how we create a DBMS_JOB in Oracle, but I need the snippet of code to accomplish the same objective on SQL Server 2005. In Oracle, we deploy our scheduled jobs using anonymous pl/sql which is written in black, as shown beneath. To facilitate conversion of our project scheduled task it would be great if someone can assist me in translating the code beneath written in black and red.
REM spool schedule-jobs_a.sql.log
REM declare
REM jobno NUMBER;
REM cursor job_cur is select job from user_jobs
REM where what like 'dbms_utility.analyze_schema%';
REM begin
REM
REM for job_rec in job_cur loop
REM dbms_job.remove(job_rec.job);
REM
REM end loop;
REM dbms_job.submit(jobno,what => 'dbms_utility.analyze_schema(''&&anal'',''compute'');', interval => 'TO_DATE(SUBSTR(TO_CHAR(TRUNC(SYSDATE+1)),1,10)) + 360/1440', next_date => SYSDATE);
REM dbms_output.put_line( 'Next job '||jobno );
REM exception
REM when others then raise;
REM end;
REM /
PS, I€™m not looking for instructions to create a Scheduled Job through Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, but rather, I need T-SQL code to create a Schedule Job to run daily at some period of time and run some snippet of code.
Thanks,
Vikram
I have a strange problem that I think deals with security on SQL 2005.I have a scheduled task that runs on a Windows 2000 machine. It callsa vb script which creates a connection to SQL Server.We migrated a database from SQL 2000 to 2005 which is on a differentbox. I changed the connection in the vb script to use the new sqlserver. The original connection to SQL 2000 used the 'sa' accountcoded into the connection string , which we don't want to use on thenew server, so I changed the connection string in the script to usethe below login information.Const strConnection = "Provider=SQLOLEDB;DataSource=SQLServer;Integrated Security=SSPI;Persist SecurityInfo=False;Initial Catalog=database;I created a domain user and gave it dbo rights on the new database onSQL 2005 as well as administrative rights on the local machine and thenetwork. The task runs fine for a while and then it will fail tostart. I have looked in the event log as well as the SQL log and havenot found anything else that ran when my task failed. Once it hasfailed, if I manually run the vb script on the 2000 machine, it runsjust fine, but the schedule won't work. If I change the name of theuser that is running the scheduled task, it will begin working again.I have run the profiler on SQL 2005 and watched the scheduled tasklogin as the correct user and update the database. There is nopattern to when the scheduled task will stop running. This has beenhappening for a few days now.This script and scheduled task worked fine for over a year on themachine when it logged into SQL 2000 and nothing else has changed,which makes me think it is related to the SQL 2005 server. Any ideas?
View 1 Replies View RelatedBelow is a migration plan that I've compiled to migrate SQL 2000 DTS packages to SSIS 2005. Once these DTS packages have been migrated i will need to create a job and schedule them in SQL 2005.
I would appreciate and feedback or questions on this migration plan.
Migration DTS 2000 packages to SSIS 2005:
1. Will need to save the current production DTS package as structure storage file. We do not have a UDL file. We set the data connections within each DTS package.
2. Go to Sql 2005 - ManagementLegacyData Transformation Services - right-click and open previous saved structure storage file.
3. Modify the DTS data creditentials to reflect the SQL 2005 connection data. Modify any SQL 2000 MAPI settings to utilize SQL 2005 new database mail. Save the package on SQL 2005.
4. After the modified DTS package has been updated and saved on SQL 2005, save this file as a structure storage file.
5. go to BIDS. Create a new SSIS project. Right-click on SSIS packages and select Migrate DTS 2000 package. This will migrate over the DTS 2000 package with the updated SQL 2005 data creditentails.
6. click on the package properties - protectionlevel and change it to dontsavesensitive.
7. right-click and select package configurations..., select to store data creditentials in xml format.
8. right-click on execute DTS 2000 package task, select Edit... and click on Load DTS2000 package internally. This will embed this task into the new SSIS package. Test the package. Continue if successful.
9. Use SSIS deployment functionality to move the package over to SQL 2005 Integration Services. Right-click on package and select Run Package, if successful, create a job and schedule it to run on SQL 2005 Agent.
10. When creating the Job under SQL Agent, change the Owner: of the job to reflect the owner of the new SSIS package. Schedule the job.
I've just coming up to speed on SSIS 2005. Therefore, this is what i've been able to piece together up to this point and I'm looking for some industry advice/feedback on whether or not this is a good migration plan. I need to provide a migration plan to management by 2/18. Thanks
Hi allI am looking for the best method to automate a website's database management. Lets say I have a user registration database and the users register. This sends an automated email to the user with a link to activate the users registration. If the user does not register within 24 hours, his registration must be automatically deleted from the database using a stored procedure.I know how to do this using the global.aspx file, however there must be an alternative way of doing this, especially if the database is an SQL database. I do not know how much MSSQL server access is given to a developer by an as ISP who hosts the website.Can anyone tell me what would be the best method to use.ThxWarren
View 1 Replies View Related I cannot get this event to fire. I am using TextBox9 to see if statements are processed and it never fills so it appears the Button4_Click never happens. Any ideas?
Thank you,
<asp:Button ID="Button4" runat="server" OnClick="Button4_Click" Text="Delete Submission" /> protected void Button4_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string CompanyDeleteID = TextBox10.Text; SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["localhomeexpoConnectionString2"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("DeleteSubmission", con); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@C_ID", CompanyDeleteID); TextBox9.Text = "SP completed";
}
PROCEDURE dbo.DeleteSubmission @C_ID intASBEGIN DELETE FROM tblCompanyInfo_Submit WHERE C_ID = @C_ID
DELETE FROM tblStoreStudioSubmit WHERE C_ID = @C_ID
DELETE FROM tblContractorSubmit WHERE C_ID = @C_ID RETURNENDWHERE CD_ID = @C_IDRETURN
I have a datasource on my page, not connected to anything. In the selected event, I have the following:protected void InitializedDatasource_Selected(object sender, SqlDataSourceStatusEventArgs e)
{int total = e.AffectedRows;
lblInitialized.Text = total.ToString();
}
Howevever, because it's not attached to a gridview or anything, it seems the selected event never fires. How would i get it to run on page load?
Does anyone here know of a way to execute a DTS package from an ASP that works? I have been using a variation on Microsoft's example that has yet to work.
I know that this code is getting a handle to both the package object and the task object because it recognizes if I have them spelled incorrectly and gives me an error.
On the other hand when everything is correct it simply claims to execute but nothing really happens... My screen will read
Executing...
Done.
The script goes something like this, any suggestions?:
Const DTSReposFlag_Default = 0
Const DTSReposFlag_UseTrustedConnection = 256
Dim oPackage, strResult
Dim oPump
Set oPackage=Server.CreateObject("DTS.Package")
oPackage.LoadFromSQLServer "hoaorg10","","",DTSReposFlag_UseTrustedConnection ,"","","","DirCopy"
set oPump = oPackage.Tasks("Copy Data from Results to [lhr2000].[dbo].[Households] Task").CustomTask
oPump.SourceSQLStatement = "SELECT * FROM HOREFPA WHERE NEIGHBORHOOD = 'testnbhd'"
oPackage.Execute
Response.Write "Executing package...<BR>"
For i = 1 To oPackage.Steps.Count
If oPackage.Steps(i).ExecutionResult = DTSStepExecResult_Failure Then
oPackage.Steps(i).GetExecutionErrorInfo lpErrorCode
iStatus = False
strErr = oPackage.Steps(i).Name + " in the " + oPackage.Description + " failed.<BR>"
End If
Response.Write strResult
Next
If iStatus = True Then
strResult = oPackage.Description + " Successful<BR>"
Response.Write strResult
End If
Response.Write "Done.<BR>"
Hi,
Anyone got an idea why this does not work. I have a trigger that is supposed to fire as an INSERT is done on a table. If I manually insert (insert into....), the trigger fires. If I use BCP to insert, the trigger DOES NOT FIRE.....
Davy
My working environment exist of Win 2000 advance server w/service pack 1 and
SQL 2000 Enterprise no service pack applied.
I created trigger on INSERT table "A" which have to insert record
into table "B". The trigger fired when records inserted by insert statement from Query Analyzer. But the trigger doesn't s not fired if I moved records from text file into table "A" using DTS Import/Export Wizard.
How can I make it work.
Thank you.
OK, I'm at a loss..it must be staring me right in the face.
I have a junction table that relates 2 tables, with a unique key of the composit of the 2 keys. There is also an indicator that says 1 relationship between the 2 tables is "primary" and there should only be one of those. So I figured a trigger to take care of it...but I can't seem to get it working...I wrote sample sql to mimic the inserted table as well, and it seems correct, but the trigger just does not fire.
Any ideas?
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[PIF_MEP99] (
[PIFRecID] [int] NOT NULL ,
[MEPRecID] [int] NOT NULL ,
[PrimaryInd] [char] (1) NOT NULL
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO
ALTER TABLE [dbo].[PIF_MEP99] WITH NOCHECK ADD
CONSTRAINT [PIF_MEP99_PK] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED
(
[PIFRecID],
[MEPRecID]
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO
INSERT INTO PIF_MEP99(PIFRecID, MEPRecID, PrimaryInd)
SELECT 1,1,'Y' UNION ALL
SELECT 2,1,'N' UNION ALL
SELECT 3,2,'N'
GO
CREATE TRIGGER dbo_PIF_MEP99_tr_Rule1 ON dbo.PIF_MEP99
FOR UPDATE, DELETE
AS
SET NOCOUNT ON
-- Rule 1: Prevent and MEP from having more than 1 PIF as Primary
IF Exists ( SELECT * FROM inserted i
INNER JOIN PIF_MEP99 p
ON i.MEPRecID = p.MEPRecID
AND i.PrimaryInd = 'Y'
AND p.PrimaryInd = 'Y')
BEGIN
ROLLBACK TRAN
RAISERROR 500003 'Attempting to Insert 2 Primary PIFs for an MEP'
END
GO
SELECT * FROM PIF_MEP99
GO
SELECT * FROM (SELECT 4 AS PIFRecID,1 AS MEPRecID,'Y' AS PrimaryInd) AS i
INNER JOIN PIF_MEP p
ON i.MEPRecID = p.MEPRecID
AND i.PrimaryInd = 'Y'
AND p.PrimaryInd = 'Y'
GO
BEGIN TRAN
INSERT INTO PIF_MEP99 (PIFRecID, MEPRecID, PrimaryInd) SELECT 4,1,'Y'
COMMIT TRAN
GO
SELECT * FROM PIF_MEP99
GO
SELECT * FROM (SELECT 5 AS PIFRecID,1 AS MEPRecID,'Y' AS PrimaryInd) AS i
INNER JOIN PIF_MEP p
ON i.MEPRecID = p.MEPRecID
AND i.PrimaryInd = 'Y'
AND p.PrimaryInd = 'Y'
GO
DROP TABLE PIF_MEP99
GO
Brett
8-)
Hint: Want your questions answered fast? Follow the direction in this link
http://weblogs.sqlteam.com/brettk/archive/2005/05/25/5276.aspx
Add yourself!
http://www.frappr.com/sqlteam
I have a job that fires every 15 minutes. Job is working.
I looked in here
select * from msdb.dbo.sysmail_allitems
records are in here...
I looked in here and
select * from msdb.dbo.sysmail_log it says the database mail is
2008-06-24 14:46:10.997DatabaseMail process is started
2008-06-24 14:56:13.453DatabaseMail process is shutting down
Which it seems to do periodically ....through out the log
What starts up the process - to go run the email alerts.
I have build a SQL Trigger that fires on the update of a specific column; this works perfectly when I test using SQL or even the SQL Server GUI but when I do the update from .NET it doesn€™t fire.
I have a dataset that gets modified and then I call sqlDataAdapter.Update(Dataset) - the row is successfully modified in the database but alas - the trigger isn't fired.
Any help would be appreciated.
Afternoon All ...
I have a trigger on a table that works great when a single record is updated BUT it seems not to fire when I try to do a bulk update as in ...
update TableA
set field3 = ms.field3
FROM TableA as ta,
#ms as ms
where field1 = ms.field1
and field2 = ms.field2
Why does this happen and how can I correct it.
Thanks!
The foreach loop below runs fine and it sends emails as expected but the SP does not update the Companies table. Any thoughts? How do I cause the SP to execute?
PROCEDURE newdawn.EmailSentDate @CID intAS UPDATE Companies SET Companies.LastEmailDate = (GetDate()) WHERE tblCompanies.C_ID = @CID RETURN
foreach (GridViewRow row in GridView3.Rows) { pstrTo = row.Cells[2].Text; CEmail = row.Cells[2].Text; CName = row.Cells[3].Text; CID = row.Cells[1].Text; CState = TextBox1.Text; CCity = row.Cells[5].Text; CCat = row.Cells[4].Text; CCID = row.Cells[0].Text;
SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["localhomeexpoConnectionString2"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("EmailSentDate", con); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CID", CCID); try { System.String mailServerName = "mail.domain.com";
REST of code sends email to email address found in each row ....it all works find but SP above does not fire.
Someone please help me with this.
I'm trying to fire off an already created DTS package. This package is stored within SQL Server's -- underneith the Data Transformation Services / Local Packages section.
HOW CAN I FIRE THIS OFF FROM A VB .NET APPLICATION
I'm familiar with strored procedures and using them in vb.net so if somone could lead me down that road I would be very much appriciated.
Thanks in advance everyone,
RB
Hey guys...
I am trying to tidy up my code a bit and have one SQL command (Sub class) to call when needing to insert, update, delete and select.
I have got one class I am testing with that delete from a table support_ticket and then calls RunSQL() again to delete the corresponding tickets in Support_Reply.
however it only seems to want to delete from one table at a time...as i commented out the first sql and it worked and the second fires...but if the first one is active it doesnt fire.
Do anyone on the forum know why this has happened?
Sub DeleteUserTicket(sender as Object, e as EventArgs)
Dim strSQL1 = "DELETE FROM Support_Ticket WHERE (TicketID = " & txtticketID & ")"
RunSQL(strSQL1)
strSQL1 = "DELETE FROM Support_Reply WHERE (TicketID = " & txtticketID & ")"
RunSQL(strSQL1)
End Sub
'One class to run the sql statements for the entire page this will reduce in repetitve code as well as reduce code size
Sub RunSQL(strSQL)
Dim objCmd As SqlCommand
Dim sqlConn = New SqlConnection(strConn)
objCmd = New SQLCommand(strSQL, sqlConn)
objCmd.Connection.Open()
'Check that the rows can be deleted if not then return a error.
Try
objCmd.ExecuteNonQuery()
response.redirect("ticketsystemtest2.aspx")
Message.InnerHtml = "<b>Ticket " & txtticketID & " Closed</b> <br/>"
Catch ex As SqlException
If ex.Number = 2627 Then
Message.InnerHtml = "ERROR: A record already exists with " _
& "the same primary key"
Else
Message.InnerHtml = "ERROR: Could not update record, please " _
& "ensure the fields are correctly filled out <br>" & ex.Message & " " & ex.Number
Message.Style("color") = "red"
End If
End Try
objCmd.Connection.Close()
sqlConn = nothing
objcmd = nothing
End Sub
cheers
I created an alert (18453) to audit successful logins. After I was done with the alert I made I edited the alert 18453 to disable event log logging and then deleted the alert. My problem is that the alert is deleted but it continues to log to the SQL Server error log and the windows application log. I have tried restarting the SQL Server Agent and even had the server rebooted over the weekend. Has anyone else had this problem? Where is this configured and how can I disable it?
View 2 Replies View RelatedI have a table that is getting refreshed from DB2 using DTS (I believe the DBA is doing a DELETE and an APPEND). I have a trigger on this table ON APPEND, INSERT, but the trigger never fires. When I manually update the data, the trigger fires no problem...
Is DTS capable of updating a SQL Server table without firing the trigger?
I'm an Oracle guy, and this is my 1st experiences with SQL Server, so I'll put the code here and if you want to point out any bad practices (such as the way i converted the DB2 TIMESTAMP to a SQL Server DATETIME , please do.
FYI, the DB2 TIMESTAMP is getting loaded into the SQL Server table as a VARCHAR(26)
Carl
CREATE TRIGGER trig_SAWakeUp ON tsnro
FOR INSERT, UPDATE
AS
DECLARE @snro_stus char(10)
DECLARE @snp_sht_dtm as datetime
SELECT @snro_stus = snro_stus
FROM tsnro
IF (RTRIM(@snro_stus) = 'ASSIGNED') OR (RTRIM(@snro_stus) = 'REFRESHED')
BEGIN
SELECT @snp_sht_dtm = CONVERT(DATETIME, SUBSTRING(evt_dtm,1,19))
FROM tsnro
INSERT INTO TSNP_SHT_DTM (SNRO_STUS, SNP_SHT_DTM )
VALUES (@snro_stus, @snp_sht_dtm)
END
ELSE
BEGIN
INSERT INTO TSNP_SHT_DTM ( SNRO_STUS, SNP_SHT_DTM )
VALUES (@snro_stus, @snp_sht_dtm)
END
hi all
i have an issue with an insert trigger sometimes not firing.
here is the trigger
CREATE TRIGGER Insert_tPABillToAddr ON [dbo].[tPA00175]
FOR INSERT
AS
INSERT into tPABillToAddr
(
chrJobNumber
)
SELECT chrJobNumber
FROM inserted
when the user enters a new this table is to insert one column into another table. the thing is, sometimes it does not do the insert. any ideas as to why? it is a very uncommon thing, lets say once out of every 20 inserts does it fail. but it is crucial that it never fails.
thanks
Hi,
I have an update tigger on one of my tables.
I want to fire an Update SQL but somehow prevent trigger from firing.
Any Ideas..
1) I have two tables , chat and country tables , chat table has 3 columns(chat_id,language,chat_info) and media table has 2 fields(chat_id ,country), chat table will store all countries data (India,china,taiwan)
2) chat_id,language will be populated by insert statement, and chat_info by update statement, i have a below after update trigger on chat table,which should verify country from media table and copy respective record from chat table to chat_country table (chat_in,chat_cn,chat_tw - these tables will have same structure as chat table)
3) this trigger is not firing for some of the records ,no clue or info for which it is missing some records.
create TRIGGER [dbo].[chat_trigger] ON [test].[dbo].[chat]
after update
as
BEGIN
[code]...
hi,Here's the scenario1) I am running a DTS job to fetch some rows from Oracle2) The job populates the Table A as step 13) Then it fires a update statement which updates the rows in Table B.Here's the statementUPDATE Table B SETtime = case when (select median from Table A where sno = sno and TableA.stno=70 ) is null then timeelse (select median from Table A where Table B.sno = Table A.sno andTable A.sstno=70) end ,endWHERE EXISTS (select sstno from Table A where Table B.sno = TableA.sno)There is a trigger on table B which should fire as soon as thevalue>15.When I fire the update statement direcly with a higher value than itfires the trigger.update table B set time=17 where b.sno=1000But not when the job runs...I am puzzled.Thoughts?AJ
View 1 Replies View Related
Hi All,
I have an update trigger which stores the date a record was updated by a GIS app.
It worked in SQL2000 but when I copied and pasted the code into SQL2 its not firing. Any Ideas? Below is the code.
Create TRIGGER [dbo].[Date_Entered] ON [dbo].[ZONING_OP]
FOR UPDATE
AS
UPDATE [dbo].[ZONING_OP]
Set Date_Entered = GetDate()
Where ID = (Select ID from Inserted)
Hi There
I just had the following scenario.
I checked sys.service_queues to confirm the my queue has an activated proc assigned to it and is activation_enabled.
I send messages to the service, however i see that the messages just sit in the queue. I run profiler with all SB and Error events there is nothing, i check the sql server log, there is also nothing.
So i have no idea why the activated proc is not firing, all i see in the profiler trace is that the messages are acknowledged but the activated proc does not execute.
For a while i was stumped. i then tried to execute the proc myself and i got a syntax error.
Basically what happened was that i altered a table that the proc used and now the proc cannot execute cos there are more columns that must be inserted so i altered the proc.
However the activated proc still did not fire.
I had to disable and re-enable activation for it to work.
What i am wondering is why was there no indication in profiler or the sql og as the the fact that something was wrong with the activated proc ? Surely the activated proc should have fired and given the same error i got either to the sql log or profiler ?
And why did i have to re-enable activation ? Does sql cache the proc when you activate it and not know that the proc has changed when you alter it ?
Thanx
I am running
ALTER DATABASE dbname SET ENABLE_BROKER
on my app startup and then SqlDependency.Start(), and then the following code
SqlCommand cmd = con.CreateCommand();
cmd.CommandText = "SELECT request_queue.track_id, track.file_name, track.track_number, track.track_name, " +
"artist.artist_id, album.album_id, artist.artist_name, album.album_name " +
"FROM dbo.request_queue INNER JOIN track on request_queue.track_id=track.track_id " +
"inner join artist on track.artist_id=artist.artist_id " +
"inner join album on track.album_id=album.album_id";
cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text;
if (con.State != ConnectionState.Open)
con.Open();
dep = new SqlDependency(cmd);
dep.OnChange += new OnChangeEventHandler(dep_OnChange);
SqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader();
List<Track> l = new List<Track>();
while (rdr.Read())
{
Track t = new Track();
t.TrackID = (int)rdr["track_id"];
t.Filename = (string)rdr["file_name"];
if (rdr["track_name"] != DBNull.Value)
t.TrackName = (string)rdr["track_name"];
t.TrackNumber = (int)rdr["track_number"];
l.Add(t);
}
rdr.Close();
and for some reason, after i do multiple changes to the request_queue table, (adding rows), the dep_on_change never fires, and if i check dep.HasChanges it is always false.
I ran into a pretty bizzare behavior in SSIS:
I am trying to set up a package with a built-in auditing. It has a OnPreExecute, OnPostExecute and OnError event handlers. I am trying to record when the package starts, completes, and the completion status. Each one of these event handlers has a script task that does the logging. I put in debug message boxes into each event handler script to understand what goes on. So here's the sequence of events:
1. When starting the package the OnPreExecute event fires. Right away it fires the second time. I'm guessing what happens here is the script task within the event handler fires its own OnPreExecute event - that's how the first message really pops up. The second message is generated by the actual package-level OnPreExecute event.
2. I have a condition within the OnPreExecute event handler which might set the task status to failure. You would expect the OnError handler to fire, right?.. Wrong! The package dies without firing either OnError or OnPostExecute event....
3. If i remove the condition in step 2, and force an error in the package body, i get an OnError event, and then 2 OnPostExecute events ( i guess for the same reason as in step 1).
What I'm trying to understand is why in the world my OnPreExecute and OnPostExecute events get fired by their own event handlers, yet when i fire other events within these event handlers the appropriate (other) event handler does not run.
Any ideas will be greatly appreciated.