Hi all,
I have a sql puzzle (which I've solved) but seems very unwieldy. Is
there a more efficient way of doing this?
It reads like so:
SELECT a.*
FROM axindex a INNER JOIN
axindex b ON a.id4 = b.id4 AND a.id1 = b.id1 AND
a.id5 = b.id5 AND a.conflict_type = b.conflict_type INNER JOIN
axindex c ON b.id4 = c.id4 AND b.id1 = c.id1 AND
b.id5 = c.id5 AND b.conflict_type = c.conflict_type INNER JOIN
axindex d ON c.id4 = d.id4 AND c.id1 = d.id1 AND
c.id5 = d.id5 AND c.conflict_type = d.conflict_type
WHERE (a.stext = 'land') AND (b.stext = 'reg') AND (c.stext =
'fees') AND (a.conflict_type = 5) AND (d.stext = 'hamilton')
Hello all, I have a puzzle that needs solving please. I have a Stored Procedure and it works fine and produces what I want to see. I have two servers replicating and when the stored procedure is ran on the other server, it produces nothing at all but the data is verified the same. So I go to query analyzer and copy the following sql statement from the stored procedures and put in the variables it asks for and I get nothing on either server. Here is the statement:
CREATE PROCEDURE sp_Transfer ( @Weekending datetime, @Transfer datetime) AS
select jobs.jobnumber, activities.weekending, activities.material, case employees.type when '1099' then case left(lineitems.item,4) when '2392' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft1099) end else case employees.type when '1099' then case left(lineitems.item,4) when '2391' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft1099) end else case employees.type when '1099' then case left(lineitems.item,4) when '3172' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft1099) end else case employees.type when '1099' then case left(lineitems.item,5) when 'ECAD2' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft1099) else (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.labor1099) end else case left(lineitems.item,4) when '2392' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft) else case left(lineitems.item,4) when '2391' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft) else case left(lineitems.item,4) when '3172' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft) else case left(lineitems.item,5) when 'ECAD2' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft) else (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.labor) end end end end end end end end as labor, (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.vehicle) as Vehicle, (activities.meals + activities.lodging) as PerDiem, (employees.state) as FState, (states.state) as TState from jobs inner join activities on jobs.jobid = activities.jobid left outer join employees on activities.employeeid = employees.employeeid left outer join lineitems on activities.activityid = lineitems.activityid inner join states on jobs.billingstateid = states.stateid where (activities.weekending = @Weekending or activities.transferdate = @Transfer or jobs.transferdate = @Transfer) and jobs.billingstateid <> employees.stateid and lineitems.quantity <> null GO
Can anyone help tell me why this happens or has anyone ever experienced this before?
Can anyone solve this puzzle with SQL only - no temp tables and no cursors (sent to me by a friend)?
I would have done it with a cursor on SQL Server but the rules stipulate not using a cursor. Can this be done with just SQL?
You have a table:
First Name Last Name John Doe Jeff Smith etc..
Is it possible to write a query in SQL which assigns serial numbers 1; 2; 3; to the rows(in any sequence)? So the output should look like this:
Number First Name Last Name 1 John Doe 2 Jeff Smith etc..
Note that your query must work with any data for the input table. You cannot rely on the fact that there are only two rows. Number cannot be a IDENTITY column.
Hello all, I have a puzzle that needs solving please. I have a Stored Procedure and it works fine and produces what I want to see. I have two servers replicating and when the stored procedure is ran on the other server, it produces nothing at all but the data is verified the same. So I go to query analyzer and copy the following sql statement from the stored procedures and put in the variables it asks for and I get nothing on either server. Here is the statement:
CREATE PROCEDURE sp_Transfer ( @Weekending datetime, @Transfer datetime) AS
select jobs.jobnumber, activities.weekending, activities.material, case employees.type when '1099' then case left(lineitems.item,4) when '2392' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft1099) end else case employees.type when '1099' then case left(lineitems.item,4) when '2391' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft1099) end else case employees.type when '1099' then case left(lineitems.item,4) when '3172' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft1099) end else case employees.type when '1099' then case left(lineitems.item,5) when 'ECAD2' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft1099) else (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.labor1099) end else case left(lineitems.item,4) when '2392' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft) else case left(lineitems.item,4) when '2391' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft) else case left(lineitems.item,4) when '3172' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft) else case left(lineitems.item,5) when 'ECAD2' then (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.draft) else (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.labor) end end end end end end end end as labor, (lineitems.quantity * lineitems.vehicle) as Vehicle, (activities.meals + activities.lodging) as PerDiem, (employees.state) as FState, (states.state) as TState from jobs inner join activities on jobs.jobid = activities.jobid left outer join employees on activities.employeeid = employees.employeeid left outer join lineitems on activities.activityid = lineitems.activityid inner join states on jobs.billingstateid = states.stateid where (activities.weekending = @Weekending or activities.transferdate = @Transfer or jobs.transferdate = @Transfer) and jobs.billingstateid <> employees.stateid and lineitems.quantity <> null GO
Can anyone help tell me why this happens or has anyone ever experienced this before?
I managed to get things broken and I can't solve it:
Scenario: SQL Server --->Databases --->TestDB ---> Users ------> dbo mapped to user1 (user1 = SQL Server user) ------> user1(database user) mapped to nothing (no SQL user) ---->Security -------> Logins -------> user1
Problem: I don't want SQL Server user 'user1' to be dbo but I can't remove dbo rights because it owns objects nor can I drop database user 'user1' or delete SQL Server user 'user1' because it's mapped to dbo.
I'm running in circles.. First and last time I use the auto_fix option to fix orphaned users. At this point, the only solution to me is dropping the database.
Here's a fun little puzzle that I thought up based on some rather gnarly problems I faced today. It might brighten up your morning. See if you can figure out what it does and how it does it.
How does it work? When will it fail as written (this example does not fail)? Why will it fail? How can you change it to increae its capacity?-- ptp 20080117 SQL puzzle
DECLARE @iINT , @cVARCHAR(360)
SET @i = 90 SET @c = ''
WHILE 64 < @i BEGIN SET @c = Char(@i) + Space(@i - 64) + @c SET @i = @i - 1 END
I've been running my simulations against our SQL Server 2005 database all day today and have been noticing a lot of deadlocking. Almost every transaction was deadlocking and retrying.
About an hour ago I started SQL Profiler and enabled trace flags using DBCC TRACEON(3605, 1204). However, even though Performance Monitor was indicating high Deadlocks/sec ratio I could not find any evidence of them in SQL Profiler or in SQL Server error log. I restarted my simulations several times, but nothing changed.
So, then a miracle happened and the last time I started my simulations all deadlocks disappeared. I did not change any queries and I am puzzled as to what could have happened. The only things I did were starting SQL Profiler and executing DBCC TRACEON commands.
Since queries and transactions did not change, could it be that they started executing (and hence releasing locks) faster because of lower network traffic at the end of the day or because the transaction log was written to disk? Could it be anything that SQL Server 2005 does to optimize its own performance? What else could have caused such a drastic change?
Hi,Probable there is a simple solution for this, hopefully someone candirect me in the right direction.I have a table with a persons firstname, lastname, birthdate andaddress. However, I want to select only one person per address, namelythe eldest of all persons living on the same address.Can anyone provide me a solution?Thanks in advance.Duncan
Hello -I have three feeds from sources around the world, each coming in at aseparate time.These feeds move into a large table (3GB) that is queried by managers.The feeds are loaded sequentially, and then the previous day's feedrows are deleted from the table (this is done so that the user'sapplication is never without data).The issue is that the import takes a lot of time, as do the deletes.These is hurting performance significantly. I attempted to fix theproblem by creating separate tables for each feed. I then created aview with the original table's name and used UNION ALL's. My intentionwas that as each feed came in, I'd alter the view with the new table'sname, and then truncate the older table. This met both goals ofconcurrency and import/delete speed.Unfortunately, this view seems to ignore the indexes on the underlyingtables, which devastates performance. I can't index the view, sincealtering it makes the index less useful.I'm looking for a different strategy for loading and deleting thedata, all without disruption to the applications. I'd appreciate anysuggestions....
I have probably a dumb newbie question but I can't find the answer anywhere.
On my Control Flow design pane I have two objects: a SQL task object and a Data flow task object. The first 'points' to the second. From my digging I believed that by indicating with the arrow from 1 to 2 that 1 would execute to finish before 2 was started.
My SQL taks is to truncate a table to receive the new data coming from the data flow task object. Instead 2 executes first and then 1. You can imagine producing an empty table was not my goal for this package.
I have a view based on few tables okay I have a query that gives me document details of various revisions Now i also get the latest rev of those if i use a MAX() in my Query
And if i filter for a month of 12/2004 If i query for latest it should give Document1 - rev2
Now i need to get a filter with latest as rev2, plus i also need as a indication of actual latest as rev 7 using a query
How do i do that ...
Coz when i use filter for a month and Max then it does not consider rev7 for that filter and skip the record and if i try to filter only as per month .. i get a wrong info as latest rev2 which is not a true info as per database records.
May i possibly get both ... filtered info as per specific month and also a rev info as what is the latest for a spec document.
Just i need to know is that possible .. in SQl using a query
Any more info needed please mail me on neeraj.jariwala@gmail.com
If I log into the SQL server with my credentials and connect to SSIS through SQL Management Studio, I'm able to execute my test SSIS package successfully.
If I go to my machine and try to connect to SSIS "Integration Services..." I get "Access Denied" message.
If I execute the same package via DTEXECUI, the package errors out also.
My account is member of the group "Security_IT_Data", this group has sysadmin privileges on the SQL Server level.
The account used to run the SSIS Service is part of the Local Admin group on the box and also a sysadmin on the SQL Server.
I have the following data (very simplified version)TransactionId Agent_Code------------- ----------191462 95328C205427 000024C205427 75547CAgent Code 75547C is a corporate agent. The others are not. I have alist of corporate codes so I can query against it, BUT what I want todo is...Return a unique TransactionId and max of the AgentCode, but if theAgent is a corporate agent, I need to return max of the corporate agentcodes. We can have multiple agents against the transaction andsometimes have a mix of corporate and none corporate agents. What weneed to do is see the corporate adviser if there is one. I only want 1record per TransactionId.We derive more data (sales hierarchy) from this, so are not interestedin anything other than the maximum, but need to know if it wascorporate which therefore gives me a different hierarchy later.Ideally I want to do this in a view and not use an SP. I can then usethis in my main view. If I have to resort to an SP, then so be it, butI would appreciate any helpful comments (or even better, the answer)ThanksRyan
Hi: in sp_add_jobschedule @freq_type = 8 for weekly @freq_interval = 1 for Sunday.
I need to script to create a job which will run every Sunday 6 pm, to backup one prod database to a new backup device. EX. database name is DBTest, and the 7/20/2003 (Sunday) running result should be backup_DBTest_2003_07_20.bak. and next Sunday's should be backup_DBTest_2003_07_27.bak. (if this way, the backup device will be created at the begining of the job running...)
this way the backup would not be overwritten. Is there a way to dynamically generate 54 weeks job script from this coming Sunday?
Or to make the backup result as backup_DBTest_2003_week27.bak, backup_DBTest_2003_week28.bak....
SQL 2000 pricing and licensing is quite confusing, and even more pain including the upgrading pricing from sql6.5/sql7.0.
I got very clear Windows2000 pricing and upgrading from one Microsoft web address. But just could not find a ONE Microsoft web sit explicitely describe the $ pricing for each of SQL2000 edition (per processor vs. CAL..., including upgrading from SQL 6.5, SQL 7.0). May be I missed that site?
We have MSSQL 2000 Server instance installed and working well on Windows 2003 Server machine [IBM X series-366] with 16GB RAM, 3.67GHZ cpu power, and 400GB hard disk space.
We further created an identical server instance on a new machine. More specifically, on Windows 2003 Server machine [Intel (R) Xeon (TM)] with 16GB RAM, 3.67GHZ cpu power, and 400GB hard disk space, we installed MSSQL 2000 Server and copied over all the dbs, applications ...
We were expecting same or similar performance (since processor speed, ram, hd, server and database configurations are all the same, with same indexes on same tables. However, for some reason, there is a noticeable difference in performance.
More specifically, I ran Profiler for 30 minutes on both servers simultaneously [same trace parameters]. The trace file of the new server is 3 times as large as that of the old one (i.e. It looks like more items are being processed). However, the average duration of the executed stored procedures is much longer on the new server than that of the old server.
Moreover, when I run same queries on 2 servers. The query on the new server always takes longer than that on the old server. And for tables where we don't have indexes, it takes much longer.
Following advice here(http://support.microsoft.com/kb/274750/), we configured our new server (just as was our old one configured) to use 15GB of RAM. I further compared the configurations of 2 servers by executing sp_configure (with advance options). The only difference I saw was that "remote proc trans" is set to off on the new server and on on the old server. I don't think it could affect this issue though.
Furthermore, the new server appears to have many more locks, as compared to the old server. Could it be because it is processing more items?
I cannot figure what is causing the queries to be slower on the new server.
I hope this is not outside the scope of this newsgroup.have been useing BulkAdd with ms-access with good success.Until now that I;m switching to MSDE which is on a shared server.The problem is that MSDE gives an error:Invalid attribute/option identifier, sql state=HY092which corresponds to:SQL_ATTR_CONCURRENCY statement attribute was set to SQL_CONCUR_READ_ONLY.but my BulkAdd routine explicitly has a call to:SQLSetStmtAttr(stHndl, SQL_ATTR_CONCURRENCY, SQL_CONCUR_LOCK , iRet)I cannot imagine how the concurrency is readonly.Could it be that I'm looking at the wrong place or the wrong attribute???Thanks in adv.
the talbe row like this: ID Name Scoe 11 Tome 20 12 Jack 30 11 Tome 40 12 Jack 10 13 John 10 My query command like this: Select T1.Id,T1.Name,T2.mathfrom st T1right join(Select Id as Id2,Sum(Math) as Math from St group by id) T2on T1.id=t2.id2where t1.id = t2.id2 While the reuslt is : Id Name Score 11 Tom 60 11 Tom 60 12 Jake 40 12 Jack 40 13 John 10
I am wonder :the T1 gives a table with six rows, the T2 gives a table with three rows, and I use RIGHT JOIN to connect the two table,the result should be a table with only three rows.I tried INNER JOIN, the result is same. but why ? please help me !
I am a bit puzzled. Our database backup grew from the usual size of ~27GB to ~40GB, all of a sudden. Nothing special happened in the last few days - nothing major to cause such increase.
I found out about this, because we suddenly had the backups failing, and when I explored, I saw that this was due to the lack of space on the hard-disk.
I do know that we need additional hard disk space. In the meantime, however, I'd like to be able to identify what exactly could cause such growth.
As far as I understand, for the backup to grow, the database needs to grow in a similar proportion. My only theory is that when the backup failed a few times, each time, somehow, it resulted in the database growth. Does this make any sense?
Another clue is that the backup job, which usually runs ~ 30 minutes has been running for 6 hours already, the file has grown to 40GB, and the backup job is still running ...
What is the best way for me to explore what exactly happened? Are there some system tables containing history of table counts or something - so that I can see who grew when and by how much?
I ran a query to see which objects were added in the past few days - that did not give me any clues - all looks normal.
Here's a nice puzzle for all you masochistic programmers LOL.
Actually, it's just something that's been giving me problems and I know this forum has some amazing programmers who will probably find my problem to be easy.
I'm using 2005.
Simply put... Here's the data: ID Start End X 123 10 15 a 123 9 10 b 123 11 18 d 123 14 16 z 123 19 21 x 234 16 18 bb
I'd like to roll up overlapping start and end numbers into one set. So here would be the output: ID Start End [Ttl X] 123 9 18 4 123 19 21 1 234 16 18 1
The way I'm thinking of attacking this is maybe a combination of RowNumber & a CTE of some sort.
A little puzzle with this Error - Status and PropertyType fields do not allow nulls while other columns do ( there are about 20 columns in original expression but left out for simplicity - these are created the same way ). Any ideas how to solve it?
[Conditional Split Filter Changes [813]] Error: The expression
on "output "Listing Changed" (885)" evaluated to NULL, but the "component "Conditional Split Filter Changes" (813)" requires a Boolean results. (My wish for next version is to have better expression editor and be able to see the output for those in dataflow transforms with lets say sample 200 rows)
I had development a reporting service home page for our intranet . And I deployed this home page at "domain.server1" (for example) and my sql server database and reporting service is at another server "domain.server2"(for example). on the "domain.server1" , the Authentication methods is Integrated windows authentication. and on the "domain.server2" , with the reportingservice server properites and home folder, in the "permissions" tab, I had add the "domain.server1$" as system user role. so I can view my report via my home page and it works fine. If I remove the "domain.server1$" from the reporting service, there could be encountered an error "The permissions granted to user 'domain.server1$' are insufficient for performing this operation".
and add this "UserName" to a local group "group1" on "domain.server2" , and grant this group "group1" to access the reporting service server. It works fine.
but now , I'm confused how to get the user's information (especially the password infomation , even though encrypted )?
