I am totally confused, please help me. I am new to this
I am trying to split one DB (A) into two databases original (A) and new-Blank(B) by moving some tables from DB (A) to the new DB (B) however some of the tables has FK and Stored procedures referencing other tables that need to stay in DB (B), The questions are
1. after scritping these tables while they are in DB (A), and runing the script in DB (B) to re-create them, do I delete these table from DB (A), and the FK that references them.
2. What shall I do with the stored procedures. Turn them into trigers or else if turn them into trigers, in which DB should the triggers run (DB A of DB B),if these are becoming triggers do I delete the stored procedures from DB (A)
For example, the table below, has a foreign key (ManagerId) that points to EmployeeId (primary key) of the same table. -------Employees table-------- EmployeeID . . . . . . . . . . int Name . . . . . . . . . . . nvarchar(50) ManagerID . . . . . . . . . . . int
If someone gave you an ID of a manager, and asked you to get him all employee names who directly or indirectly report to this manager. How can that be achieved?
Hi all, I wonder if there is anybody that can help with this one. As you know, you can pass variables into a stored procedure and then use these variables for table names, columns etc. Now, you also know that you can access another database on the same server just by typing the name of it into your query. The hard part: Instead of hardcoding the database name into the stored procedure i want to use a variable and then pass this to reference the database name, in the same way you would reference anything else with a variable. I need to do this as i have to search for various results across multiple databases. We currently use SQL server 2000 standard, though are looking into SQL 2005 - especially is this problem is easy to resolve in the latter. Look forward to your help Regards Darren
I recently moved the db to a new server using detach and reattach sproc. However the moved db in its new location does not have any of the tables or sprocs that I created. As I understand it, information on the databases on the server is stored in the master db. Could it be that the tables are not showing up because the master db on the new server knows nothing of the new db? Must I also copy the master from the other server, perhaps? Has anybody come across this before? TIA D. Lewis
Hi, I have a self-referencing table, something like Emlplyee-Manager. I want to implement the cascading delete in this table. So when I delete a manager than all the employees should be deleted at ANY level below the manager. I do not have DRI for the Foreignkey (manager)!!! My problem is that the trigger fires only one time (for the "sons") and not for the "grandsons" and below. I've used the following flags: - nested triggers (in "SQL Server Properies", "Server settings" tabsheet) - recursive triggers (database "Properties", "Options" tabsheet) I've combined this 2 flags: 1. nested flag reset and recursive flag reset 2. nested flag reset and recursive flag set or 3. nested flag set and recursive flag reset 4. nested flag set and recursive flag set The results are the following: -for case 1, 2 and 3 the same results: the trigger fires just for the first level (the sons are deleted but the grandsons remains there orphan) -for case 4 I have the following error message: "Maximum stored procedure nesting level exceeded (limit 32)" so I can't delete anything at all.
Any idea why the trigger doesn't fire for "grandsons" and below? Could be that this above mentioned flags doesn't works for self-referencing tables ?
Searching the KB i only found links to SP1 and SP3, the server is already at SP3.
BOL says the following:
SQL Server 6.x :
Updatable views were restricted to modifications that affected only one table
SQL Server 2000:
Updatable views can modify more than one table involved in the view. The DELETE, INSERT, and UPDATE statements can reference a view as long as SQL Server can translate the user's update request unambiguously to updates in the base tables referenced in the view's definition.
So why can this view not be updated in SS2000 SP3 ?
FROM PS_PER_ORG_ASGN A ,PS_PER_ORG_INST C , PS_JOB D
WHERE A.EMPLID = C.EMPLID AND A.ORG_INSTANCE_ERN = C.ORG_INSTANCE_ERN AND A.EMPLID = D.EMPLID AND A.EMPL_RCD = D.EMPL_RCD AND D.EFFDT = ( SELECT MAX(EFFDT) FROM PS_JOB JOB2 WHERE D.EMPLID = JOB2.EMPLID AND D.EMPL_RCD = JOB2.EMPL_RCD AND (( JOB2.EFFDT <= { FN CURDATE() }) OR (JOB2.EFFDT > { FN CURDATE() } AND { FN CURDATE() } < ( SELECT MIN(J2.EFFDT) FROM PS_JOB J2 WHERE J2.EMPLID = D.EMPLID AND J2.EMPL_RCD = D.EMPL_RCD) ) )) AND D.EFFSEQ = ( SELECT MAX(EFFSEQ) FROM PS_JOB JOB3 WHERE JOB3.EMPLID = D.EMPLID AND JOB3.EMPL_RCD = D.EMPL_RCD AND JOB3.EFFDT = D.EFFDT )
Hi everybody, I know that it is possible for one column to reference two different parent tables by defining two foreign keys on a same column, I have done it and SQL Server does give any error. But I want to know that is it advisable to define multiple foreign key on a column referncing two differnt parent table's primary key in differnt case... ? Means If Case 1 then It should reference to column1 or table1 otherwise it should reference to table2? How is it practicle...?
I am currently building an electricity quoting facility on my website. I am trying to insert the data which the user enters into 3 linked tables within my database. My stored procedure therefore, includes 3 inserts, and uses the @@Identity, to retrieve the primary keys from the first 2 inserts and put it as a foreign key into the other table. When the user comes to the quoting page, they enter their contact details which goes into a client_details table, then they enter the supply details for their electric meter these get inserted into the meter table which is linked to client_details. The supply details which the users enters are used to calculate a price. The calculated price, then gets put into a quote table which is linked to the meter table. This all seems to work fine with my stored procedure. However I want to be able to allow a user to enter more than one meter supply details and insert this into the meter table, with the same client_id for the foreign key. This will also generate another quote to insert into the quoting table. However I do not know how to get this to work. Should I be looking at using Sessions and putting a SessionParameter on the client_id for the inserts for these additional meters??
Hello, Is it possible to search in two tables, let's say table # 1 in specific field e.g. (age). If that field is empty then retrieve the data from table #1, if not retrieve the data from table # 2. Is it possible to do it by using SQL Stored Procedure?? Thank you
ok, ill lay it out like this, and try not to be too confusing.
I need to check my trasaction table to see that the user with a UserID bought, keeping track(adding up) of how many times they bought the Product with a productID, , then i need to selcect items from product table with the productID for the items the user bought,
i know how to return the product information, and how to check the tranaction table and i think how to add up the amount of tranastions for that item
so bacially i need to select data from a product table, for the products that the user bought tahts stored in the transaction table.
well i tried not to be confusing, but i think i failed
Hi,If one uses a temporary table/ table variable within a storedprocedure, will it use the compiled plan each time the stored procedureis executed or will it recompile for each execution?Thanks in advance,Thyagu
I am trying to insert into two tables simultaneously from a formview. I read a few posts regarding this, and that is how I've gotten this far. But VWD 2005 won't let me save the following stored procedure. The error I get says “Incorrect syntax near ‘@WIP’. Must declare the scalar variable “@ECReason� and “@WIP�.� I'm probably doing something stupid, but hopefully someone else will be able to save me the days of frustration in finding it. Thanks, the tables and procedures are below.
I made up the two tables just for testing, they are: tbltest
Im currently in the process of developing a new system in ASP.net. The system uses multiple tables from a SQL database. To link information from say the products table to the suppliers table a unique key from the suppliers table is stored in the products table to show which products each supplier has bought...simple so far.
From this I can then pull out any of the information relating to that product instead of just displaying the ID. Currently this is done by creating a stored procedure and then dragging the stored procedure onto the dataset layer to create the data adapter.
Im not 100% this is the best way to be doing this. Is it possible to simply just link the tables in the dataset layer to display a string from another table instead of an ID referencing number?!
any help on this would be much appreciated as I cant really continue untill I have sorted out the data structure problems.Thanks in advancedmowfo
What I am trying to do now is combine multiple complex queries into one table and query it showing the results on an ASP.net page.
I am currently using SQL Server 2000 backend. Each one of these queries are pretty complex so I created each query as a Stored Procedure. These queries are dynamic by each user, so the results will never be the same globally.
What I have done so far was created a master stored procedure passing the current user's username as a parameter. Within the master SP (Stored Procedure) it creates a temporary table inserts and executes multiple stored procedures and inserts into the temporary directory. Each of the sub stored procedures all have the same columns. After the insert to the temp tables, I then query the temp table and return it to the function it was executed in code and fill it as a System.Data.DataTable. I then bind the DataTable to a Repeater.DataSource.
Problem: When the page is rendered, it returns nothing. I tested the master SP in the data environment and it works fine.
Suspect: ASP.net when the SP is executed, it sees that the data is a disconnected datasource? Perhaps the session in the SQL Server when the temp table is created isn't in SYSOBJECTS system table?
Here is an example of the code from the master SP:
CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.TM_getAlerts @Username varchar(32)ASCREATE TABLE #MyAlerts ([DATE] datetime, [TEXT] varchar(200), [LINK] varchar(200) ) INSERT INTO #MyAlertsEXEC TM_getAlertsNewTasks @Username INSERT INTO #MyAlertsEXEC TM_getAlertsLateTasks @Username SELECT [DATE] AS 'DATE', [TEXT] AS 'TEXT', [LINK] AS LINK FROM #MyAlerts GO
It is a fairly simple call... but why doesn't ASP.net doesn't see it when the the DataTable is filled. I tried just executing one of the sub SP without creating temporary tables and it works flawlessly. But the query in one of the sub SP is a normal but complex select.
I have a situation where I want to load some entities from one table lets say the table is customers and i would like to load all the customers with first name = dummy, not only this i would like to load all the orders and order details for these specific customers (these are two different separate tables) . I want all this within one stored procedure that return me three results for three different tables. Please tell me whether it is possible and how.
I know a sql stored procedure can return >1 tables. How can I use .Net 2.0 to read these tables one at a time, for example the first one could iterate Forum entries and the second one all internal links used in these forums... The idea is to use fewer backtrips to the sql server?
I have several tables that are related with the same primary key that I need to make a consolidated list of values for. The schema of each table is similar but some have more or less fields than others. I want to make a list of all table names, field names, and the value of that field. I can select all tables included from sysobjects. The existence of the key is probable but not guaranteed in all tables. The basic table format is: Table1------ID Field1 Field2 Field31 0.0 4.1 3.92 0.5 1.3 0.23 7.1 8.8 9.3 Table2------ID Field10 0.41 3.32 2.73 5.7 Table3------ID Field1 Field22 2.4 4.63 4.3 8.1 Format of the result set:(specifying ID = 2) Table_Name Table_Field ValueTable1 Field1 0.5Table1 Field2 1.3Table1 Field3 0.2Table2 Field1 2.7Table3 Field1 2.4Table3 Field2 4.6
I was just looking at an SSIS package someone else set up and I went into one of the execute SQL tasks and it is calling a stored procedure to truncate a table. There are a lot of places that tables are truncated within this SSIS package. But each one the 'database', 'owner', and 'table' name are hard coded.
Like this: exec dbo.uspTruncateTable 'dbname', 'dbo', 'tblname'
Of course there are different names, just changed for an example.
I have two tables and I need to update values in them via a stored procedure. Tried too much to update but some times it update the first table only, others the second or even fail due to cannot allow duplicates. Also when it updates the WHOLE data in the table becomes the same as the new updated ones. I've now reached to this error after all these lines of codes
Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'Emp_ID',table 'DatePics'; column does not allow nulls. UPDATE fails.The statement has been terminated
Here is the SQL code :
ALTER procedure [dbo].[UpdateEmp] @EmpName nvarchar(100), @Nationality nvarchar(30), @Passport nvarchar(20), @ContractDate date, @HealthDate date
I have an orchestration that recieves a pricelist flat file and it must insert into 2 tables - article, articlePrice(for each LotSize) into sql server using a sql adapter. I also want it to check if a record exists for that lotSize and update it if it does. The records are indentified with a uniqueidentifier. So I have 3 if statements: 1 - if (<the article does not exist(checks SupplierArticleNumber)>) <insert a record into article table> <insert a record into articlePrice table>
2 - else if(<the article exists but not for that lotSize>) <insert a new record in articlePrice table>)
3 - else update the corresponding ArticlePrice row.
My problem is in writing the sp, first it checks if the article exists, if it does then it creates a row in the article table and then one into the articlePrice table. My question is how do I get a hold on the "articleGUID"(pk - uniqueidentifier) that was created on the first table on insertion in order to create the row in the second table(fk)?
And is this possible with one stored procedure? If not does anyone know in Biztalk what other way to do this?
I am new to both Biztalk and sql, so I don't really know what I am doing? I would really appreciate any suggestions!
I want my application to create a new database/tables when run for thefirst time. I have created a stored procedure to create the newdatabase named "budget". When I run the stored procedure, it createsthe budget database but the tables are created in the "master"database. Please help.
I'm coding in a black hole that has a moving target in it.
Ok, I now need to call an stored procedure and with the results from the stored procedure I need to populate my tables on my handheld.
Any ideas on how I can do this? I was using inline sql "select col1, col2, from table1" and doing my rda pull from that, but now I need to call stored procedures to do this and one sp takes a parameter. How can I accomplish this on handheld ?
Hi all,I have heard that we must insert into two tables simultaneously when there is a ONE-TO-ONE relationship. Can anyone tell me how insert into two tables at the same time, using SP? Thanks Tomy
Hi, I have a relational database with the primary table, table01. And 2 child/foreign tables, table02 and table03. All 3 tables shared the same key - [ID]. I am not sure if this is the correct approach but I am trying to create a stored procedure where if I were to delete a the row in table01 (primary), the procedure will automatically delete the common row in both table02 and table03. I have come up with something like that but it does not seems to be correct. CREATE PROCEDURE [sp_delete_test01_1] (@id [int]) AS DELETE [test01] DELETE [test02] DELETE [test03] WHERE ( [id] = @id)GO Your advise please. Many Thanks.
Hi all, I have a few stored procedures which all perfom SELECT queries on a table in the database. Do these kind of stored procedures affect any other processes or procedures working on that table. I am talking about locks, blocks etc. For example, the database has a table which gets updated periodically by some process which I don't know. Now I wrote some stored procedures just to do the SQL SELECT with some conditions in WHERE clause. Is there any possibility that my stored procedure failed and the because of this, the process that runs on the table was not executed?
