Transact SQL :: Way To Have Trigger Fire When Something Happens To Tables That View Is Based On?
Nov 4, 2015
I created a view that joins several tables together and added an instead of insert, update trigger on it. My trigger works when I do an update/insert directly to the view, but it doesn't seem to fire when an insert/update is made to any of the tables that the view is based on. Is there a way to have the trigger fire when something happens to the tables that the view is based on? The application that the database is using is something that was purchased so I don't have access to the code to change any SQL statements that it's using.
IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.AuditLog','U') IS NULL BEGIN CREATE TABLE [dbo].[AuditLog]
[code]....
[AuditLogId] [bigint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [DateCreated] [datetime] NOT NULL, [TableName] [nvarchar](200) NULL,
i have the Audit_log table and the trigger above on Account table..it is working fine and i have some 1000 records in Audit log table , but it did not fire for some customers and i found trigger did not fire for 60 plus customers any possible reasons ??? that trigger did not fire ? Below are the timings account have been created but trigger did not log them
I have a view based on two tables. Now I want to update that view in such a manner that the columns of both the tables are going to update. Can you suggest me what code I should write so that I can update that view.
HiI have two databases: Customers and Operations. In Customers database I havemade a view based on a few tables from both Customers and Operations (leftjoin - customers without any operations). In the same database (Customers) Ihave created a stored procedure based on the view. Finally I'd like to giveto some users permission only to exec the stored procedure.Have I to add the users to Customers? If yes, please describe me how tolimit the users privileges only to execution the stored procedure (no rightsto open tables or view from Customers).Regards,GrzegorzPs. I had sent the post on microsoft.public.sqlserver.security, but I had noanswer.
We are accessing a database through Linked Servers. That database has a bunch of views.We are able to get a list of columns for our views by querying [syscolumns]. However, how do we find out which of those columns have primary keys?
Is it possible to create a trigger to monitor when a value changes from 1 to 0 in a particular row. Example, rows have names, pins and status columns. When the status column of a row changes from 1 to 0, I am going to send a mail item to the person whose name has had the status changed.
I am using SQL Server 2005 database for a webbased application built on .net 2.0. Here is my situation. I have a SubmitDate and a Status field in a table. I want the trigger to fire based on the datevalue in the SubmitDate field. SubmitDate field is the last date for the user to submit an application. For eg: if the SubmitDate value is 03/10/07 , I want the trigger to fire on :01 of 03/11/07 to change the Status field value to Inactive. Is that possible? Thoughts on how to do it?
Is there a way to make a sql table trigger fire off conditionally on calling app?We have this vendor app database which also have in-house custom built app operates on them. Some one are thinking using triggers to audit second part of the app activities, but want to skip the vendor app part of operation for at least performance reason.To my knowledge, the answer is no. An insert trigger will fire off whenever there is an insert. It doesn't provide a mechanism to check which app/process first, then conditionally fire or not fire.
I have a trigger on UPDATE on a table. I'm running some maintenanceUPDATE and DELETE queries which I want the trigger to ignore but at thesame time I want other UPDATE queries that other users might be runningto keep triggering the trigger. Is there a SET statement perhaps thatI could set before my query? Or a clause in the UPDATE statement?This is on MSSQL 2000 server, on Win2k3
Is there a way to fire a trigger when a particular user (with sql login) logs into sql server? We are planning to use the above trigger to start a job which inturn records some inf.
A job runs every morning at 3.00 am to back up a database. Many of the tables have triggers on to write updates, deletes and inserts to audit tables.A typical trigger looks like this.
USE [ProjectDB_Live] GO /****** Object: Trigger [dbo].[trgStakeHolders] Script Date: 03/02/2015 10:23:38 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON
[code]....
I added a trigger to a table over the weekend - structured the same as the one above and, when the back up ran last night, it copied every row in the table into the audit table as if every row in the table had been updated.
I have tables that I want to fire either an update or insert trigger on.I could write a script containing a long list of inserts but I'm looking forsomething simpler. Would isql work? Any special conditions to get it towork?I've tried tricks like 'update x set col = col' or 'update x set col = col +'' 'All the alternatives seem to have problems. Any ideas?----== Posted via Newsfeeds.Com - Unlimited-Unrestricted-Secure Usenet News==----http://www.newsfeeds.com The #1 Newsgroup Service in the World! 120,000+ Newsgroups----= East and West-Coast Server Farms - Total Privacy via Encryption =----
Does anyone know how to do the following. I'm trying to mimicreplication with triggers.I have 2 databases, each have these 2 tables.1.USERSID intNAME varchar(20)2.CHANGESTABLE varchar(20)TYPE varchar(10)col1 varchar(20)col2 varchar(20)On the USERS table I have a for insert trigger. Whenever a new user isadded the trigger puts an entry into the CHANGES table such as("USERS", "INSERT", "1", "Fred")I now have an application (vb.net) that monitors the CHANGES table onserver1. If it finds an entry it determines the table using the TABLEcolumn and performs the necessary insert and deletes the entry fromCHANGES. Now the problem is server2 also has an for insert trigger onthe USERS table so it puts an entry into CHANGES on server2. As youcan imagine this goes around in a loop.What I was hoping for was someway of saying, "I'm inserting from myapplication so don't do the trigger".Any ideas gratefully appreciated.Steve.
Hi.I need to make a trigger which fires when after an UPDATE is done ontable A in database X. The trigger must perform a statement whichcopies some of the data from the update to table B in database Y onthe same server.My question is: Can I access the data which caused the trigger to fireor just get an indication of which entry in table A had been updated?Best RegardsJens Christian Andersen.
As part of analyzing our fire department's response times, we measure the time it takes to get a certain amount of people on a fire scene. I have two table that contains incident data. The incident table contains one row per incident. The apparatus table contains multiple rows per incident with each row contain the information for each unit. They are connected by the incident key with a one to many relationship.
The column apparatus.num_personnel contains the count of personnel for each fire truck. The goal is to capture the response time of the unit that is carrying the 10th person to the scene. In the example below, E78 was the unit that the sum of apparatus.num_personnel was => 10. There response time of 0:06:18 is returned to the incident table.
I realize I will need to create a logical test (calculated column on the incident table) that sums the number of personnel for each incident and then when that number => 10, then return the MIN Response Time of that row. From past projects, I understand I can create a temporary table (ADD COLUMNS) which will iterate over each incident row, comparing the units for that incident. I"m just not sure how to put it all together.
Overview of data model. The incident and apparatus are my data tables and the rest are lookup tables. The parameter table is used for a percentile measure, but doesn't play a role with this project.
I am sure someone must have run into this before. I have a couple of tables with a parent child relationship.
I created a trigger on the insert of the parent but don't want it to fire until both the parent and child have been inserted into.
However sometimes the child may not get inserted in to at all. In other words it is a 1 to 0 or more relationship.
I created the whole insert into the parent and the child and wrapped it all up in a transaction hoping that the trigger would not fire until the transaction actually completed.
However such is not the case and it fires when the parent is inserted into but nothing is inserted into the child yet even though that is part of the transaction.
Is it possible to postpone trigger fire until after both parent and child table values have been inserted?
I have two different SQL 2008 servers, I don't have permission to create a linked server in any of them. i created a trigger on server1.table1 to insert the same record to the remote server server2.table1 using OPENROWSET
i created a stored procedure to insert this record, and i have no issue when i execute the stored procedure. it insert the recored into the remote server.
The problem is when i call the stored procedure from trigger, i get an error message.
Stored Procedure: USE [DB1] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON
[Code] ....
When i try to insert a new description value in the table i got the following error message:
No row was updated the data in row 1 was not committed Error source .Net SqlClient Data provider. Error Message: the operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI10" for linked server "(null)" returned message "The partner transaction manager has disabled its support for remote/network transaction.".
correct the errors entry or press ESC to cancel the change(s).
I'm new to this whole SQL Server 2005 thing as well as database design and I've read up on various ways I can integrate business constraints into my database. I'm not sure which way applies to me, but I could use a helping hand in the right direction.
A quick explanation of the various tables I'm dealing with: WBS - the Work Breakdown Structure, for example: A - Widget 1, AA - Widget 1 Subsystem 1, and etc. Impacts - the Risk or Opportunity impacts for the weights of a part/assembly. (See Assemblies have Impacts below) Allocations - the review of the product in question, say Widget 1, in terms of various weight totals, including all parts. Example - September allocation, Initial Demo allocation, etc. Mostly used for weight history and trending Parts - There are hundreds of Parts which will eventually lead to thousands. Each part has a WBS element. [Seems redundant, but parts are managed in-house, and WBS elements are cross-company and issued by the Government] Parts have Allocations - For weight history and trending (see Allocations). Example, Nut 17 can have a September 1st allocation, a September 5th allocation, etc. Assemblies - Parts are assemblies by themselves and can belong to multiple assemblies. Now, there can be multiple parts on a product, say, an unmanned ground vehicle (UGV), and so those parts can belong to a higher "assembly" [For example, there can be 3 Nut 17's (lower assembly) on Widget 1 Subsystem 2 (higher assembly) and 4 more on Widget 1 Subsystem 5, etc.]. What I'm concerned about is ensuring that the weight roll-ups are accurate for all of the assemblies. Assemblies have Impacts - There is a risk and opportunity impact setup modeled into this design to allow for a risk or opportunity to be marked on a per-assembly level. That's all this table represents.
A part is allocated a weight and then assigned to an assembly. The Assemblies table holds this hierarchical information - the lower assembly and the higher one, both of which are Parts entries in the [Parts have Allocations] table.
Therefore, to ensure proper weight roll ups in the [Parts have Allocations] table on a per part-basis, I would like to check for any inserts, updates, deletes on both the [Parts have Allocations] table as well as the [Assemblies] table and then re-calculate the weight roll up for every assembly. Now, I'm not sure if this is a huge performance hog, but I do need to keep all the information as up-to-date and as accurate as possible. As such, I'm not sure which method is even correct, although it seems an AFTER DML trigger is in order (from what I've gathered thus far). Keep in mind, this trigger needs to go through and check every WBS or Part and then go through and check all of it's associated assemblies and then ensure the weights are correct by re-summing the weights listed.
If you need the design or create script (table layout), please let me know.
I need to create a trigger to update a FLAG column by row modification. The table likes,
Col1FLAG a0 b0 c0 d0 e0
If "a" in Col1 is changed, the "0" in same row (First row) should be changed to '1'. Other FLAG values should not be changed. The same rule for other row.
After upsizing an access mdb backend to SQL Server 2005, some of the access frontend queries need rewriting.
One of my Access queries contains several joined tables (tables that used to live on users local c drive) and also references the value of a form control as its where criteria. When this is run against linked sql tables it is very slow.
So I thought I would use a view to represent the joined tables and link to that in Access, but views don't allow you to pass parameters. How do I create a view that I can link to in my access front end whose contents will vary based on a passed parameter from Access? I am OK at vba coding so I can call to this object in code if necessary. The recordsource needs to be updateable.
is this possible to retireve data from view where i need only userid with rolekey1.? tried with a function but its taking more time? any options in doing it in the view itself?
I have a spreadsheet that we download from one of our customers that contains Sales Order Release information. The spreadsheets contains 1-n releases per part #.
I have a SQL 2000 view that groups this information into a smaller table (after importing into SQL).
I need to take this view and create 1-n release records based on our production run qty and put it in a new table. I have a field in my view that contains the desired # of records to create.
Since I never used TSQL to loop through table/view, how do I do this. Following is what the output should look like:
From SQL view --------------------------------------- Part #: 11124A1 Qty Due:175 Run Qty: 50 # Release to Generate: 4
My question is that: Just one month before subscriptionendperiod that is on 11/20/2005(mm/dd/yyyy) an automatic email should go to david@john.com with the message 'Your subscription period ends on 12/20/2005'
How to write trigger for this.
Please Note : No ASP code is invloved in this. Only MSSQL coding to be done.
in my report model project, i'm able to successfully create and deploy a report model based on a data source view that is in turn based on a table object in my data store.
but if i try to create a report model that's based on a a data source view that is in turn based on a view in my data store, well then, the report model that gets created comes up blank - i.e. shows no objects.
What gives? Is it not possible to create a report based on a view? that can't be right!
