hi all,
i have created a gridview with the select,delete and insert commands working properly. but the update command does not work. when i edit a column and click the update button, it generates no errors but does not save the changes. it just brings back the original values. i dont know wats missing. can anyone help me?
this is part of my code:
UpdateCommand="UPDATE [test101] SET Surname=@Surname, Names=@Names,Registration=@Registration,[Course code]=@Course_code,Grade=@Grade WHERE ID=@ID1 "
<UpdateParameters>
<asp:Parameter Name="Surname" Type=String />
<asp:Parameter Name="Names" Type=String />
<asp:Parameter Name="Registration" Type=String />
<asp:Parameter Name="Course_code" Type=String />
<asp:Parameter Name="Grade" Type=Int32 />
<asp:Parameter Name="ID1" Type=Int32 />
</UpdateParameters>
Hello,I created a formview in a web page. The data are in a sql server express database.With this form, I can to create a new data, I delete it but I can't to modify the data.The app_data folder is ready to write data; the datakeynames element in formview web control declared. I replace the automated query created by VS 2005 by a strored procedure to see if the problem solved.The problem is the same with an update query or a update stored procedure...Have you an idea, please.Than you for your help.Regards.
Im working with a detailsview and when I try to edit something and then update, the changes are not saved. I have 2 tables ("[etpi.admin].Ocorrencias" and "[etpi.admin].SMS") that store the data that Im trying to change. Since Im having problems with the name of tables, Im coding it manually, using SQL server management studio and VWD. I believe my code can be wrong (Im new to vwd and C# world), so here it is: UpdateCommand="UPDATE [etpi.admin].Ocorrencias SET [Status_Ocor] = @Status_Ocor, [Percentual] = @Percentual, [IDPriori] = @IDPriori, [Abertura] = @Abertura, [IDTecRes] = @IDTecRes, [Area] = @Area, [CodEquip] = @CodEquip, [Descricao] = @Descricao, [Destinatario] = @Destinatario, [Data_Implanta] = @Data_Implanta WHERE [etpi.admin].Ocorrencias.IDOcorre = @IDOcorre UPDATE [etpi.admin].SMS SET [idSMS] = @idSMSWHERE [etpi.admin].SMS.IDOcorre = @IDOcorre"> <UpdateParameters><asp:Parameter Name="idSMS" Type="Int32" /><asp:Parameter Name="Status_Ocor" Type="String" /><asp:Parameter Name="Percentual" Type="Int32" /><asp:Parameter Name="IDPriori" Type="Int32" /><asp:Parameter Name="Abertura" Type="DateTime" /><asp:Parameter Name="IDTecRes" Type="Int32" /><asp:Parameter Name="Area" Type="String" /><asp:Parameter Name="CodEquip" Type="Int32" /><asp:Parameter Name="Descricao" Type="String" /><asp:Parameter Name="Destinatario" Type="String" /><asp:Parameter Name="Data_Implanta" Type="DateTime" /><asp:Parameter Name="IDOcorre" Type="Int32" /></UpdateParameters> Thx.
Could some help me out an tell me why this wont run.
I think I got an error at the bottom
USE InfoPathBudget GO UPDATE TOSS SET ytdexpenses = SUM(monthlyExpenses) SET ytdBudgeted = SUM(monthlyBudgeted) SET ytdCapitalExpenses = SUM(monthlyCapitalExpenses) SET ytdCapitalBudgeted = SUM(monthlyCapitalBudgeted)
I got this when I ran it Server: Msg 157, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 An aggregate may not appear in the set list of an UPDATE statement.
Hi - I'm in a situation with a very large table, and trying to run an update that, any way I've approached it so far, seems to be taking unnacceptably long to run. Table has about 20 million rows, looks something like this:
ID - int, identity Type - varchar(50) PurchaseNumber - varchar(50) SalesAmount - Money
ID Type PurchaseNumber SalesAmount 1 A 3834AA38384 20.32$ 2 B 3834AA38384 11837.32$ 3 C 3834AA38384 666.32$ 4 C 887DF88U01H 23423.32$ 5 A 887DF88U01H 12.32$ 6 B OI83999FH28 4747.1$ 7 D 38438495985 9384.6 8 E 02939DDJJWI 22.22$ 9 F 07939SDFDF2 33.33$
The goal of the update is to make the [Type] uniform across [PurchaseNumbers], according to the max sales amount. For each PurchaseNumber a, set the type = the type of the row that has the MAX salesAmount. If there is only one entry for PurchaseNumber, leave the type alone. Expected update after completion would look like this:
ID Type PurchaseNumber SalesAmount 1 B 3834AA38384 20.32$ 2 B 3834AA38384 11837.32$ 3 B 3834AA38384 666.32$ 4 C 887DF88U01H 23423.32$ 5 C 887DF88U01H 12.32$ 6 B OI83999FH28 4747.1$ 7 D 38438495985 9384.6 8 E 02939DDJJWI 22.22$ 9 F 07939SDFDF2 33.33$
I got this out of a warehouse, and it definitely isn't normalized well. Was considering breaking down into a better model, but I'm not yet sure if that would make the update easier.
I've been approaching this with sub-queries (finding all the PurchaseNumbers with more then one entry, then the max sales purchase of that purchase Number, then the type of that purchase number and sales amount to update all of that purchase number) but this not only ends up a little messy, but also very slow.
The only other detail that may be important is that out of the 20 million total rows, about 19.5 million purchaseNumbers are unique. So, really, there are only about 500k rows I actually have to update.
I've thought of a few ways to make this work, but none of them seem fast and wanted to see if anyone had a pointer. Thanks!
Hi all: I have a list of items (actually a relation in which a user has selected an item, along with a rating for the item) in an Access database table, connected to my app with a SqlDataSource and bound to a repeater. The repeater displays the items to the user along with a dropdown box to show the rating, and allow the user to update it. The page connects and displays correctly. My problem is that when the user submits the page and I iterate through the repeater items to update each rating, the updates are not being completed in the database. The update works if I hard-code a value for the rating into the query itself, but not when using an updateparameter (pTaskRating below). In other words if I replace pTaskRating with '5', all the correct records will be found and have their ratings updated to 5. That means that the mySurveyId and pTaskId(DefaultValue) parameters have to be working, because the right records are found, but I can't seem to update records based on the DefaultValue of the pTaskRating parameter, even though I can verify that the DefaultValue is correct by placing a watch on it. It seems that my problem must be in my use of that particular parameter in the query, either in properties of the parameter or in the value assigned to it. I am extremely frustrated - any ideas would be greatly, greatly appreciated. Thanks! Bruck The table I'm pulling from and updating looks like this: SURVEY_ID (Text 50), TASK_ID (Long Int), RATING_ID (Long Int) Here's my ASPX for the main data source: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="sqlTaskSelections" runat="server" ConnectionString='Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source="abc.mdb";Persist Security Info=True;Jet OLEDB:Database Password=xyz' ProviderName="System.Data.OleDb" SelectCommand="SELECT [SURVEY_ID], [TASK_ID], [RATING_ID] FROM [TBL_TASK_SELECTION] WHERE [SURVEY_ID] = mySurveyId" UpdateCommand="UPDATE [TBL_TASK_SELECTION] SET [RATING_ID] = pTaskRating WHERE ([SURVEY_ID] = mySurveyId) AND ([TASK_ID] = pTaskId)"> <UpdateParameters>
<asp:SessionParameter Name="mySurveyId" SessionField="SurveyId" DefaultValue="" /><asp:Parameter Name="pTaskId" DefaultValue="" /><asp:Parameter Name="pTaskRating" DefaultValue="" /> </UpdateParameters> And here's the repeater (the Task ID and Rating are stored in hidden fields for easy access later): <asp:Repeater ID="rptTaskSelections" runat="server">
<FooterTemplate></td></tr></table></FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> And here's the page load and submit VB: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load
If Not Page.IsPostBack Then
'BIND / LOAD RATINGS TO DROPDOWN BOXES HEREDim i As IntegerDim cbCurrentRating As DropDownListDim hCurrentRating As HiddenFieldrptTaskSelections.DataSource = sqlTaskSelectionsrptTaskSelections.DataBind()
Hello, I am trying to use the forms view control to do a simple web app. My issue is, I cant get the connection to automatically generate insert, update and delete statements. I tried to do this manually but I always get an error. I have read that I need all the keys selected--this still didnt work. I have about 6 tables picked in my view, and if I pick one of them then this advanced feature works. I have the primary keys selected. here is my saved view. this is in SQL 2000. SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT dbo.ADDRESS.EMAIL, dbo.ADDRESS.FIRST_NAME AS [first name], dbo.ADDRESS.LAST_NAME AS [last name], dbo.ADDRESS.STATE, dbo.ADDRESS.TEL1 AS phone, dbo.INVOICES.QUOTE_NO AS [SALES QUOTE], dbo.CUST.NAME AS Company, dbo.ITEMS.ITEMNO AS [Course Number], dbo.ITEMS.DESCRIPT AS S_Descript, dbo.ADDRESS.JOB_TITLE AS [Job Title], dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.[MONTH], dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.S_DATE, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.END_DATE, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.IS_CONFIRMED, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.IS_PAID, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.CUST_CODE AS Account, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.SCHEDULE_ID, dbo.CUST.CUST_CODE, dbo.INVOICES.INVOICES_ID, dbo.X_INVOIC.X_INVOICE_ID, dbo.ADDRESS.ADDR_CODEFROM dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE INNER JOIN dbo.CUST ON dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.CUST_CODE = dbo.CUST.CUST_CODE RIGHT OUTER JOIN dbo.X_INVOIC RIGHT OUTER JOIN dbo.INVOICES ON dbo.X_INVOIC.ORDER_NO = dbo.INVOICES.DOC_NO LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.ADDRESS ON dbo.INVOICES.CUST_CODE = dbo.ADDRESS.CUST_CODE LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.ITEMS ON dbo.ITEMS.ITEMNO = dbo.X_INVOIC.ITEM_CODE ON dbo.CUST.CUST_CODE = dbo.ADDRESS.CUST_CODEWHERE (dbo.X_INVOIC.ITEM_CODE LIKE 'FOT-%') AND (dbo.X_INVOIC.STATUS = 7) AND (dbo.ADDRESS.TYPE IN (4, 5, 6)) AND (dbo.ADDRESS.EMAIL <> '') AND (dbo.ADDRESS.COUNTRY = 'UNITED STATES') AND (dbo.ITEMS.CATEGORY = 'TRAININGCLASSES') AND (dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.CUST_CODE = 'joe')ORDER BY dbo.ADDRESS.STATE I am new to this so I am not sure what to include. thanks, yellier
hi there, i have been wrestling with this for quite a while, as in my other post http://forums.asp.net/t/1194975.aspx, what someone advised me was to put in try catch blocks ot see whats going on, problem is i have never really done it whit this kinda thing before, and i was wondering if someone could point me in the right direction.
For example where would i put the try catch block in here, to show me if its not working public int getLocationID(int ProductID, int StockLoc) { // Gets the LocationID (Shelf ID?) for the stock column and product id // passed // The SQL will look Something like: string strSQL; strSQL = "SELECT " + " location" + StockLoc + " " + "FROM " + " tbl_stock_part_multi_location " + "WHERE " + " stock_id = " + ProductID;string sConnectionString = "Data Source=xxxxx;Initial Catalog=xxxx;User ID=xxxx;Password=xxxxx"; SqlConnection objConnGetLocationID = new SqlConnection(sConnectionString);SqlCommand sqlCmdGetLocationID = new SqlCommand(strSQL, objConnGetLocationID); objConnGetLocationID.Open();int intLocation = Convert.ToInt32(sqlCmdGetLocationID.ExecuteScalar()); return intLocation; }
Hello everybody, I can't perform an operation apparently very easy: set a field to a NULL value.
This is the db: Microsoft SQL Server 2000 - 8.00.760 (Intel X86) Dec 17 2002 14:22:05 Copyright (c) 1988-2003 Microsoft Corporation Standard Edition on Windows NT 4.0 (Build 1381: Service Pack 6)
This is the table: CREATE TABLE [ProgettoTracce] ( [ID_Progetto] [int] NOT NULL , [MisDifDef] [real] NULL , [MisDifMeas] [real] NULL , [MisDifAna] [real] NULL , [MisDifID] [real] NULL , [MisDifCV] [real] NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO
This is qry: UPDATE ProgettoTracce SET MisDifDef = NULL WHERE ID_Progetto = 3444
The qry has been performed with no error. Then I execute SELECT * FROM ProgettoTracce WHERE ID_Progetto = 3444 and I find the value I tried to overwrite with NULL. If I update with 0 (for example) it works. Obviously this happens on the production db, because on the development db the update with NULL works fine. No transaction is called, db options are the same on dbs...
In the following t-sql 2012 merge statement, the insert statement works but the update statement does not work. I know that is true since I looked at the results of the update statement:
Merge TST.dbo.LockCombination AS LKC1 USING (select LKC.comboID,LKC.lockID,LKC.seq,A.lockCombo2,A.schoolnumber,LKR.lockerId from [LockerPopulation] A JOIN TST.dbo.School SCH ON A.schoolnumber = SCH.type
[Code] ...
Thus can you show me some t-sql 2012 that I can use to make update statement work in the merge function?
I tryed to update tables part of my MSDE database, using the SqlDataAdapter.Update() method. It worked fine untill I tryed to update a table that has a Column with the Text SQL DataType. It didn't work. The error was :
"The text, ntext, and image data types cannot be compared or sorted, except when using IS NULL or LIKE operator."
I have this script in my database, but it always gives 2054 rows back and if I actually DO change something it doesn't even notice...
UPDATE a SET a.[omschrijving]=SP.[omschrijving] ,a.[verkoopprijs]=SP.[verkoopprijs] ,a.[gewijzigd]=getDate() FROM [artikelen] a LEFT OUTER JOIN [Hofstede].[dbo].[sparepartsupdate] SP ON a.PartNrFabrikant = sp.PartNrFabrikant WHERE ((A.omschrijving != SP.[omschrijving]) OR (A.[verkoopprijs] != SP.[verkoopprijs]))
INSERT INTO #TEMP VALUES(1,'James',NULL) INSERT INTO #TEMP VALUES(1,'James','George') INSERT INTO #TEMP VALUES(1,'James','Vikas')
INSERT INTO #TEMP2(ID) VALUES(1) INSERT INTO #TEMP2(ID) VALUES(1) INSERT INTO #TEMP2(ID) VALUES(1)
Now i want to get the result as
;WITH CTE AS( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY Id ORDER BY ID ASC) AS RowNum ,* FROM #TEMP ) SELECT CASE WHEN RowNum=1 THEN CREATEDBY WHEN RowNum > 1 THEN ModfiedBy END FROM CTE
But when i convert this select to update, i am missing something...
My update is
;WITH CTE AS( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY Id ORDER BY ID ASC) AS RowNum ,* FROM #TEMP ) UPDATE #TEMP2 SET SearchedBy =CASEWHEN RowNum=1 THEN CREATEDBY WHEN RowNum > 1 THEN ModfiedBy END FROM CTE WHERE #TEMP2.ID=CTE.ID
We recently migrated from SQL Server 7 to SQL Server 2005. Now there's a curious thing with some legacy applications. I have pasted some code below. Don't judge me, because like I said, it's legacy.
You can see, that I have two connection strings. One is commented and accessing via SQL Native Client. The other one is doing this through the old SQL Server driver. Funnily enough, when I use the new Native Client driver, the exception "Run-time error '-2147467259 (80004005)' [Microsoft][SQL Native Client]Invalid attribute value" is thrown in the rsPorder2.Update line. With the old driver, this works just alright.
Is this a bug? Is there a way, to make the code run, because we don't want to search the whole application for other occurances, if not necessary.
Any insights would be greatly appreciated.
Best regards, DD
Dim ilinx As New ADODB.Connection Dim rsPorder As New ADODB.Recordset Dim rsPorder2 As New ADODB.Recordset Dim cmdLinx As New ADODB.Command Dim strConn As String
All: I have created a stored procedure on SQL server that does an Insert else Update to a table. The SP starts be doing "IF NOT EXISTS" check at the top to determine if it should be an insert or an update. When i run the stored procedure directly on SQL server (Query Analyzer) it works fine. It updates when I pass in an existing ID#, and does an insert when I pass in a NULL to the ID#. When i run the exact same logic from my aspx.vb code it keeps inserting the data everytime! I have debugged the code several times and all the parameters are getting passed in as they should be? Can anyone help, or have any ideas what could be happening? Here is the basic shell of my SP: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[spHeader_InsertUpdate] @FID int = null OUTPUT,@FLD1 varchar(50),@FLD2 smalldatetime,@FLD3 smalldatetime,@FLD4 smalldatetime AS Declare @rtncode int IF NOT EXISTS(select * from HeaderTable where FormID=@FID) Begin begin transaction --Insert record Insert into HeaderTable (FLD1, FLD2, FLD3, FLD4) Values (@FLD1, @FLD2, @FLD3,@FLD4) SET @FID = SCOPE_IDENTITY(); --Check for error if @@error <> 0 begin rollback transaction select @rtncode = 0 return @rtncode end else begin commit transaction select @rtncode = 1 return @rtncode end endELSE Begin begin transaction --Update record Update HeaderTable SET FLD2=@FLD2, FLD3=@FLD3, FLD4=@FLD4 where FormID=@FID; --Check for error if @@error <> 0 begin rollback transaction select @rtncode = 0 return @rtncode end else begin commit transaction select @rtncode = 2 return @rtncode end End---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I have this sql stored procedure in SQL Server 2012:
ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[CreateBatchAndSaveExternalCodes] @newBatches as dbo.CreateBatchList READONLY , @productId int , @cLevelRatio int , @nLevelRatio int AS set nocount on;
I am currently having this problem with gridview and detailview. When I drag either onto the page and set my select statement to pick from one table and then update that data through the gridview (lets say), the update works perfectly. My problem is that the table I am pulling data from is mainly foreign keys. So in order to hide the number values of the foreign keys, I select the string value columns from the tables that contain the primary keys. I then use INNER JOIN in my SELECT so that I only get the data that pertains to the user I am looking to list and edit. I run the "test query" and everything I need shows up as I want it. I then go back to the gridview and change the fields which are foreign keys to templates. When I edit the templates I bind the field that contains the string value of the given foreign key to the template. This works great, because now the user will see string representation instead of the ID numbers that coinside with the string value. So I run my webpage and everything show up as I want it to, all the data is correct and I get no errors. I then click edit (as I have checked the "enable editing" box) and the gridview changes to edit mode. I make my changes and then select "update." When the page refreshes, and the gridview returns, the data is not updated and the original data is shown. I am sorry for so much typing, but I want to be as clear as possible with what I am doing. The only thing I can see being the issue is that when I setup my SELECT and FROM to contain fields from multiple tables, the UPDATE then does not work. When I remove all of my JOIN's and go back to foreign keys and one table the update works again. Below is what I have for my SQL statements:------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SELECT:SELECT People.FirstName, People.LastName, People.FullName, People.PropertyID, People.InviteTypeID, People.RSVP, People.Wheelchair, Property.[House/Day Hab], InviteType.InviteTypeName FROM (InviteType INNER JOIN (Property INNER JOIN People ON Property.PropertyID = People.PropertyID) ON InviteType.InviteTypeID = People.InviteTypeID) WHERE (People.PersonID = ?)UPDATE:UPDATE [People] SET [FirstName] = ?, [LastName] = ?, [FullName] = ?, [PropertyID] = ?, [InviteTypeID] = ?, [RSVP] = ?, [Wheelchair] = ? WHERE [PersonID] = ? ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------The only fields I want to update are in [People]. My WHERE is based on a control that I use to select a person from a drop down list. If I run the test query for the update while setting up my data source the query will update the record in the database. It is when I try to make the update from the gridview that the data is not changed. If anything is not clear please let me know and I will clarify as much as I can. This is my first project using ASP and working with databases so I am completely learning as I go. I took some database courses in college but I have never interacted with them with a web based front end. Any help will be greatly appreciated.Thank you in advance for any time, help, and/or advice you can give.Brian
using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; using System.Data; using System.Data.OleDb; using System.Collections;
namespace TimeTracking.DB { public class sql { OleDbConnection conn;
// //the constructor for this class, set the connectionstring // public sql() { DBConnectionstring ConnectToDB = new DBConnectionstring(); conn = ConnectToDB.MyConnection(); }
// // // public void UpdateEntry(int ID, string Week, string Year, string Date, string Project, string Action, string Time, string Comment) { int m_ID = ID; int m_Week = (Convert.ToInt32(Week)); int m_Year = (Convert.ToInt32(Year)); string m_Date = Date; string m_Project = Project; int m_ProjectID = new int(); string m_Action = Action; int m_ActionID = new int(); Single m_Time = (Convert.ToSingle(Time)); string m_Comment = Comment;
// //get the project ID from the database and store it in m_ProjectID // OleDbCommand SelectProjectID = new OleDbCommand("SELECT tblProject.ProjectID FROM tblProject" + " WHERE (((tblProject.Project) LIKE @Project))", conn);
// //get the action ID from the database and store it in m_ActionID // OleDbCommand SelectActionID = new OleDbCommand("SELECT tblAction.ActionID FROM tblAction" + " WHERE (((tblAction.Action) LIKE @Action))", conn);
finally { //close the connection if (conn != null) { conn.Close(); } } } } }
Code Snippet
The update statement is not working in my application, no error in C# and no error in ms-access. When I paste the update query into the ms-access query tool and replace the parameter values (@....) with real values, is will update the record.
update xxx_TableName_xxx set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:
update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?
Edit: Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.
2nd Edit: Could it be to do with this linked server setting? Collation Compatible right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine. However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane... (0 row(s) affected) (1 row(s) affected) How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect) (1 row(s) affected) If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it. Thanks
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
The Folowing code is not working anymore. (500 error)
Set objRS = strSQL1.Execute strSQL1 = "SELECT * FROM BannerRotor where BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID) objRS.Open strSQL1, objConn , 2 , 3 , adCmdText If not (objRS.BOF and objRS.EOF) Then objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value =objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value + 1 objRS.update End If objRS.Close
The .execute Method works fine
strSQL1 = "UPDATE BannerRotor SET Exposures=Exposures+1 WHERE BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID) objConn.Execute strSQL1
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE( ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL, LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded) VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName) VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded) SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL FROM MYOTHERTABLE
hi need help how to send an email from database mail on row update from stored PROCEDURE multi update but i need to send a personal email evry employee get an email on row update like send one after one email
i use FUNCTION i get on this forum to use split from multi update
how to loop for evry update send an single eamil to evry employee ID send one email
Hello,I am trying to update records in my database from excel data using vbaeditor within excel.In order to launch a query, I use SQL langage in ADO as follwing:------------------------------------------------------------Dim adoConn As ADODB.ConnectionDim adoRs As ADODB.RecordsetDim sConn As StringDim sSql As StringDim sOutput As StringsConn = "DSN=MS Access Database;" & _"DBQ=MyDatabasePath;" & _"DefaultDir=MyPathDirectory;" & _"DriverId=25;FIL=MS Access;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;" &_"PWD=xxxxxx;UID=admin;"ID, A, B C.. are my table fieldssSql = "SELECT ID, `A`, B, `C being a date`, D, E, `F`, `H`, I, J,`K`, L" & _" FROM MyTblName" & _" WHERE (`A`='MyA')" & _" AND (`C`>{ts '" & Format(Date, "yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss") & "'})"& _" ORDER BY `C` DESC"Set adoConn = New ADODB.ConnectionadoConn.Open sConnSet adoRs = New ADODB.RecordsetadoRs.Open Source:=sSql, _ActiveConnection:=adoConnadoRs.MoveFirstSheets("Sheet1").Range("a2").CopyFromRecordset adoRsSet adoRs = NothingSet adoConn = Nothing---------------------------------------------------------------Does Anyone know How I can use the UPDATE, DELETE INSERT SQL statementsin this environement? Copying SQL statements from access does not workas I would have to reference Access Object in my project which I do notwant if I can avoid. Ideally I would like to use only ADO system andSQL approach.Thank you very muchNono
It appears to update only the first qualifying row. The trace shows a row count of one when there are multiple qualifying rows in the table. This problem does not exist in JDBC 2000.
I'm having a strange problem that I can't figure out. I have an SQL stored procedure that updates a small database table. When testing the Stored Procedure from the Server Explorer, it works fine. However, when I run the C# code that's supposed to use it, the data doesn't get saved. The C# code seems to run correctly and the parameters that are passed to the SP seem to be okay. No exceptions are thrown. The C# code: SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["touristsConnectionString"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("fort_SaveRedirectURL", conn); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; Label accomIdLabel = (Label)DetailsView1.FindControl("lblID"); int accomId = Convert.ToInt32(accomIdLabel.Text); cmd.Parameters.Add("@accomId", SqlDbType.Int).Value = accomId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@path", SqlDbType.VarChar, 250).Value = GeneratePath(); try { conn.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch(Exception ex) { throw ex; } finally { conn.Close(); } The Stored Procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE developers.fort_SaveRedirectURL ( @accomId int, @path varchar(250) ) AS DECLARE @enabled bit, @oldpath varchar(250)
/* Ensure that the accommodation has been enabled */ SELECT @enabled = enabled FROM Experimental_Accommodation WHERE Experimental_Accommodation.id = @accomId
IF (@enabled = 1) BEGIN /* Now check if a path already exists */ SELECT @oldpath = oldpath FROM Experimental_Adpages_Redirect WHERE Experimental_Adpages_Redirect.accom_id = @accomId
IF @oldpath IS NULL BEGIN /* If Path already exists then we should keep the existing URL */ /* Otherwise, we need to insert a new one */ INSERT INTO Experimental_Adpages_Redirect (oldpath, accom_id) VALUES (@path,@accomId) END END RETURN
I'm new to this forum. This 'problem' has occured many times, but I've always found a way around it. I have pages with datagrids, in which a user can edit a certain fields and then update the tables with new data. Lets say when a user edit a Name field and a money field. If he/she left those two fields blank, the table is automatically updated with a <null> (for the name field) and a 0 (for the money field.) Both these columns were set up to allow Null values. Anyone has an idea why they were updated that way? And is there like a standard on how the data types are updated if a field is left blank? Thank you very much.
