I have two tables with the following relevant fields:
Apps appID appName
PBC pbcID appID appCT
These are joined on appID. appCT can be 1 of 2 values, either "PC" or "LA". So an example of a few records in PBC would be:
1 1 PC 2 1 LA 3 2 PC 4 2 LA 5 3 PC 6 4 LA ... ...
You can see that for each App, in PBC there can be two related records - PC and LA. But for example, record number 5 is App 3 PC, but there is no App 3 LA. I am trying to build a select to tell me which Apps are not in PBC at all, AND which Apps only have either LA or PC, not both.
I'm working on a purchasing website for a store. A request has many line items, and a line item can have many products. One of the characteristics of the line item data table is a total price, calculated from multiplying lineitems.quantity and product.price.
INSERT INTO lineitems (request_id, quantity, product_id, total_price)VALUES (@rid,@quant,@pid,@totalprice)WHERE @totalprice = (SELECT products.price * @quant FROM lineitems, products WHERE lineitems.product_id = products.id) Visual Studio isnt accepting this. Is there a way to do this better?
I have the following table: CREATE TABLE ITEMS ([ITEMID] int, [itRULE] varchar(1)) INSERT INTO ITEMS (ITEMID, itRULE) VALUES (11, 3) INSERT INTO ITEMS (ITEMID, itRULE) VALUES (12, 3) INSERT INTO ITEMS (ITEMID, itRULE) VALUES (21, 2) INSERT INTO ITEMS (ITEMID, itRULE) VALUES (22, 2) INSERT INTO ITEMS (ITEMID, itRULE) VALUES (31, 1) INSERT INTO ITEMS (ITEMID, itRULE) VALUES (32, 1) INSERT INTO ITEMS (ITEMID, itRULE) VALUES (41, 0) INSERT INTO ITEMS (ITEMID, itRULE) VALUES (42, 0)
-- Those works and gives me 11,12,21,22 SELECT ITEMID FROM ITEMS WHERE itRULE IN (2,3) SELECT ITEMID FROM ITEMS WHERE itRULE IN ('2','3')
-- This doesn't works declare @Rule varchar(10) set @Rule='2,3' SELECT ITEMID FROM ITEMS WHERE itRULE IN (@Rule) Any idea? I don't mind to change the data type if it works.
I have two tables in which I need to select data from and I don't know what construct to use. The two tables are SY and MV. SY contains stocks and MV contains a log of all price changes of these stocks. I need to produce a report of price changes between the latest price and the previous price and take the difference between the two. I'm using MSSQL. Here are the important fields in my tables:
SELECT sy.syid, sy.sycode, mv.price, (SELECT TOP 1(mv.price) FROM MV, SY WHERE mv.syid = sy.syid AND mv.date < '8/27/2007' AND sy.ACTIVE = '1' ORDER BY mv.date DESC) AS lastprice, (mv.price - (SELECT TOP 1(mv.price) FROM MV, SY WHERE mv.syid = sy.syid AND mv.date < '8/27/2007' AND sy.ACTIVE = '1' ORDER BY mv.date DESC)) AS diff, (mv.price - (SELECT TOP 1(mv.price) FROM MV, SY WHERE mv.syid = sy.syid AND mv.date < '8/27/2007' AND sy.ACTIVE = '1' ORDER BY mv.date DESC)) / (SELECT TOP 1(mv.price) FROM MV, SY WHERE mv.syid = sy.syid AND mv.date < '8/27/2007' AND sy.ACTIVE = '1' ORDER BY mv.date DESC) * 100 AS percentdiff, mv.date FROM mv, sy WHERE mv.syid = sy.syid AND mv.date = '8/27/2007' AND sy.ACTIVE = '1' ORDER BY sy.syid, mv.date DESC
I have a query which contains 2 subselects joined with a union all. The select for each is just a count, so I'm only returning 2 rows. I then want to be able to perform a calculation between these 2 results... ie divide one by the other to get the percentage.
The only way I could think of doing that was make the whole query a subselect of another query where I could then perform the calculation in the new select statement, however it doesn't like this. I just get incorrect syntax near the closing bracket of the from section.
Any ideas? Thanks!
SELECT * FROM
(SELECT count(t0.product) FROM (SELECT t0.packslip , t1.date_upld , t0.product AS product , t0.qty_topick as topick , t0.qty_picked as picked , t0.qty_topick - t0.qty_picked as shorted, (t0.qty_picked / t0.qty_topick) * 100 as linefill FROM rbeacon.dbo.shipline2 t0 INNER JOIN rbeacon.dbo.shiphist t1 ON t0.packslip = t1.packslip WHERE t1.date_upld = CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE()-3, 101)) t0
UNION ALL
SELECT count(t1.product) FROM (SELECT t0.packslip , t1.date_upld , t0.product AS product , t0.qty_topick as topick , t0.qty_picked as picked , t0.qty_topick - t0.qty_picked as shorted, (t0.qty_picked / t0.qty_topick) * 100 as linefill FROM rbeacon.dbo.shipline2 t0 INNER JOIN rbeacon.dbo.shiphist t1 ON t0.packslip = t1.packslip WHERE t1.date_upld = CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE()-3, 101) AND t0.qty_picked <> t0.qty_topick) t1) t2
Hello,I have a problem with a subselect I use in a stored procedure:UPDATE #TEMP_TABLESET P_ID_1=(SELECT top 1 b.P_ID_1 from #TEMP_TABLE b whereb.ID=PARENT_ID),P_ID_2=PARENT_ID,P_ID_3=IDWHERE PARENT_ID IN (SELECT P_ID_2FROM #TEMP_TABLE b)So the subselect is (SELECT top 1 b.P_ID_1 from #TEMP_TABLE b whereb.ID=PARENT_ID), and it returns NULL. The cause of that is mostprobably the fact that I try to link ID from inner table b withPARENT_ID from the outer table. I thought it had to be done this way,but obviously not. Can somebody help me with this syntax problem?Thx,Bart
Not sure if this is the right group to post this to but.This is the current query that I have.select tableA.id,tableB.artist,tableB.image,from tableA,tableB wheretableA.image = tableB.image AND tableB.price >0 AND tableB.price < 20order by tableB.price DESC'What I need is, for each row returned I need information from a thirdand fourth table. tableC, and tableD.tableC has information ( the tableA.id = tableC.eventId) that I need toobtain tableC.accountId = tableD.accountId in order do select thethe binding information in tableD between a Vendor(name,address..etc..)and tableB.imageAny help would be greatly appreciated.
Is possible to use like hint with subselect? , i mean i want to find all rows in table A that contains a word in a field(CALLED CONTENT) in table B, concretely in a field called content too, i show you the idea although the syntax is incorrect.
select ' + char (39) + @country + char (39) + ' as PAIS, A.ID, A.IDUSUARIO MSISDN, NULL AS MSISDN_COD, convert(char(19),A.FECHA_ALVENTO, 121) AS FECHA_MO_LOCAL, NULL AS FECHA_MO_LOCAL_D,
Hope someone could help me in revising a long running query. Here is the query
select * from table1 where classid is null and productid not in ( select productid from table1 where classid = 67)
In here table1 could have several occurance of productid in which productid could have different classid. The possible values of classid are: NULL,1,2,3,67. Basically I am looking for all records whose classid is null but should never had an instance in table1 where its classid is 67.
Do you have something like a "join" statment that will only include all records in the left table that is not in the right table?
Hope someone could help me with this. Thanks in advance.
Hope someone could help me in revising a long running query. Here is the query
select * from table1 where classid is null and productid not in ( select productid from table1 where classid = 67)
In here table1 could have several occurance of productid in which productid could have different classid. The possible values of classid are: NULL,1,2,3,67. Basically I am looking for all records whose classid is null but should never had an instance in table1 where its classid is 67.
Do you have something like a "join" statment that will only include all records in the left table that is not in the right table?
Hope someone could help me with this. Thanks in advance.
I have a stored procedure what produces N number of rows.The rows are ordered by a cataegoryType as followscatAcatBcatCWhat is needed to do on the C++ code side is break these out intotheir respective categories by iterating through the rows and checkingthe category type. Is there a way to let the DB do this via some sort ofsubselect on the rows returned via the stored procedure.Thanks in advance.
I have a sqldatasource, and on the selectcommand I'm trying to use a case statement with a subselect. The case statement works fine without the subselect, but I'm trouble getting it to work with the case statement. Could you help me with the syntax? ThanksSelectCommand=" SELECT DISTINCT RecipeID, Title FROM [Recipes] WHERE (CASE WHEN @Type='Appetizer' THEN Appetizer WHEN @Type='Pies' THEN (Select Distinct RecipeID, Title From Recipes WHERE Title like '%Pie%') WHEN @Type='Beverages' THEN Beverage WHEN @Type='Dessert' THEN Dessert WHEN @Type='Kids' THEN Kids WHEN @Type='Side' THEN Side WHEN @Type='Soup' THEN Salad WHEN @Type='Main' THEN Main WHEN @Type='Breakfast' THEN Breakfast END) = 1"
Help!I'm trying to understand the new ANSI join syntax (after many years ofcoding using the old style). I am now working with an application that onlyunderstands ANSI syntax so I am struggling.My first (old style syntax) SQL statement below produces 60 rows:SELECT A1.CONTACTID, A1.LASTNAME, A1.FIRSTNAME, A1.ACCOUNT,A6.CITY, A6.STATE, A1.WORKPHONE, A1.FAX, A1.EMAILFROM CONTACT A1,ADDRESS A6WHERE A1.ADDRESSID=A6.ADDRESSIDAND A1.CONTACTID IN(SELECT A4.CONTACTIDFROM CONTACT_LEADSOURCE A4,LEADSOURCE A5WHERE A4.LEADSOURCEID = A5.LEADSOURCEIDAND A5.DESCRIPTION = 'some_description' )AND A1.CONTACTID IN(SELECT A2.CONTACTIDFROM TICKET A2,ENROLLHX A3,EVENT A7WHERE A3.STATUS IN ('R', 'Confirmed')AND A2.TICKETID = A3.EVXEVTICKETIDAND A3.EVENTID = A7.EVENTIDAND A7.CODE IN('AHS00','AHS01','AHS02','AHS03','AHS04','AHS98',' AHS99'))ORDER BY A1.LASTNAME ASCI am trying to convert this to the newer ANSI sytax. My second SQL statementbelow produces 67 rows (duplicates):SELECT A1.CONTACTID, A1.LASTNAME, A1.FIRSTNAME, A1.ACCOUNT,A6.CITY, A6.STATE, A1.WORKPHONE, A1.FAX, A1.EMAILFROM CONTACT A1JOIN ADDRESS A6 ON (A1.ADDRESSID=A6.ADDRESSID)JOIN( SELECT C.CONTACTIDFROM CONTACT CJOIN CONTACT_LEADSOURCE A4 ON (C.CONTACTID= A4.CONTACTID)JOIN LEADSOURCE A5 ON (A4.LEADSOURCEID =A5.LEADSOURCEIDAND A5.DESCRIPTION ='some_description' )) AS C1 ON C1.CONTACTID = A1.CONTACTIDJOIN(SELECT C2.CONTACTIDFROM CONTACT C2JOIN TICKET A2 ON (C2.CONTACTID =A2.CONTACTID)JOIN ENROLLHX A3 ON (A2.TICKETID =A3.TICKETID AND A3.STATUS in ('R', 'Confirmed'))JOIN EVENT A7 ON (A3.EVENTID = A7.EVENTIDAND A7.CODE IN ('AHS00','AHS01','AHS02','AHS03','AHS04','AHS98',' AHS99')))AS C3 ON C3.CONTACTID = A1.CONTACTIDCan anyone shed some light on what I am missing?cheers,Norm
I'm running the following test query on a single table:
SELECT sph.datestamp, sph.stocksymbol, sph.closing, DATENAME(dw, sph.datestamp), CASE DATENAME(dw, sph.datestamp) WHEN 'Monday' then 'Monday' ELSE (SELECT CAST(sph2.datestamp AS nvarchar) FROM BI_Test.dbo.StockDB AS sph2 WHERE sph2.DateStamp = DATEADD(d, -1, sph.datestamp) AND sph2.StockSymbol = 'NYA') END AS TestCase,
[Code] ....
And here's an example of the output I'm getting:
Why the exact same subquery in the THEN of the second CASE statement is returning NULL when the first one completes as expected?
update xxx_TableName_xxx set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:
update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?
Edit: Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.
2nd Edit: Could it be to do with this linked server setting? Collation Compatible right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine. However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane... (0 row(s) affected) (1 row(s) affected) How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect) (1 row(s) affected) If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it. Thanks
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
The Folowing code is not working anymore. (500 error)
Set objRS = strSQL1.Execute strSQL1 = "SELECT * FROM BannerRotor where BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID) objRS.Open strSQL1, objConn , 2 , 3 , adCmdText If not (objRS.BOF and objRS.EOF) Then objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value =objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value + 1 objRS.update End If objRS.Close
The .execute Method works fine
strSQL1 = "UPDATE BannerRotor SET Exposures=Exposures+1 WHERE BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID) objConn.Execute strSQL1
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE( ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL, LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded) VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName) VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded) SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL FROM MYOTHERTABLE
hi need help how to send an email from database mail on row update from stored PROCEDURE multi update but i need to send a personal email evry employee get an email on row update like send one after one email
i use FUNCTION i get on this forum to use split from multi update
how to loop for evry update send an single eamil to evry employee ID send one email
Hello,I am trying to update records in my database from excel data using vbaeditor within excel.In order to launch a query, I use SQL langage in ADO as follwing:------------------------------------------------------------Dim adoConn As ADODB.ConnectionDim adoRs As ADODB.RecordsetDim sConn As StringDim sSql As StringDim sOutput As StringsConn = "DSN=MS Access Database;" & _"DBQ=MyDatabasePath;" & _"DefaultDir=MyPathDirectory;" & _"DriverId=25;FIL=MS Access;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;" &_"PWD=xxxxxx;UID=admin;"ID, A, B C.. are my table fieldssSql = "SELECT ID, `A`, B, `C being a date`, D, E, `F`, `H`, I, J,`K`, L" & _" FROM MyTblName" & _" WHERE (`A`='MyA')" & _" AND (`C`>{ts '" & Format(Date, "yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss") & "'})"& _" ORDER BY `C` DESC"Set adoConn = New ADODB.ConnectionadoConn.Open sConnSet adoRs = New ADODB.RecordsetadoRs.Open Source:=sSql, _ActiveConnection:=adoConnadoRs.MoveFirstSheets("Sheet1").Range("a2").CopyFromRecordset adoRsSet adoRs = NothingSet adoConn = Nothing---------------------------------------------------------------Does Anyone know How I can use the UPDATE, DELETE INSERT SQL statementsin this environement? Copying SQL statements from access does not workas I would have to reference Access Object in my project which I do notwant if I can avoid. Ideally I would like to use only ADO system andSQL approach.Thank you very muchNono
It appears to update only the first qualifying row. The trace shows a row count of one when there are multiple qualifying rows in the table. This problem does not exist in JDBC 2000.
I'm having a strange problem that I can't figure out. I have an SQL stored procedure that updates a small database table. When testing the Stored Procedure from the Server Explorer, it works fine. However, when I run the C# code that's supposed to use it, the data doesn't get saved. The C# code seems to run correctly and the parameters that are passed to the SP seem to be okay. No exceptions are thrown. The C# code: SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["touristsConnectionString"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("fort_SaveRedirectURL", conn); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; Label accomIdLabel = (Label)DetailsView1.FindControl("lblID"); int accomId = Convert.ToInt32(accomIdLabel.Text); cmd.Parameters.Add("@accomId", SqlDbType.Int).Value = accomId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@path", SqlDbType.VarChar, 250).Value = GeneratePath(); try { conn.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch(Exception ex) { throw ex; } finally { conn.Close(); } The Stored Procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE developers.fort_SaveRedirectURL ( @accomId int, @path varchar(250) ) AS DECLARE @enabled bit, @oldpath varchar(250)
/* Ensure that the accommodation has been enabled */ SELECT @enabled = enabled FROM Experimental_Accommodation WHERE Experimental_Accommodation.id = @accomId
IF (@enabled = 1) BEGIN /* Now check if a path already exists */ SELECT @oldpath = oldpath FROM Experimental_Adpages_Redirect WHERE Experimental_Adpages_Redirect.accom_id = @accomId
IF @oldpath IS NULL BEGIN /* If Path already exists then we should keep the existing URL */ /* Otherwise, we need to insert a new one */ INSERT INTO Experimental_Adpages_Redirect (oldpath, accom_id) VALUES (@path,@accomId) END END RETURN
I'm new to this forum. This 'problem' has occured many times, but I've always found a way around it. I have pages with datagrids, in which a user can edit a certain fields and then update the tables with new data. Lets say when a user edit a Name field and a money field. If he/she left those two fields blank, the table is automatically updated with a <null> (for the name field) and a 0 (for the money field.) Both these columns were set up to allow Null values. Anyone has an idea why they were updated that way? And is there like a standard on how the data types are updated if a field is left blank? Thank you very much.
I do realize that his could be posted in a few spots but I think the answer is in the SQL. I have a ASP.NET page, with a SqlDataSource, Text Box and Calendar Controls. I have the textbox and calendar controls eval'ed to the same sql data source DateTime Field. The text box is formatted eval to small time and the calendars eval has no formatting. ex: <asp:TextBox ID="START_TIME" Text='<%# Eval("EVENT_START","{0:t}") %>' runat=server Width=200></asp:TextBox> I want to merge the two controls; one has the date the other has the time when I update the pages data to the SqlDataSource field EVENT_START. I've tried a couple of methods, but I would like some other opinions. As Sql server only supports date and time together I am storing the two together. I could merge the two together in the code behind on the update button's event handler or merge the two during the update query using parameters. Not that I could get an illegal date for the calendar control, but I could get garbage from the textfield time. So I still would have to do validation on the text field before the SQL server could do the update. There's a few ways to go about this, so I was wondering if anyone else has figured out an elegant way to handle it. wbochar
I want to update two tables in one page. So I created two FormView bound on two SqlDataSource controls, and I create a Update button on the bottom of page. And I writen some codes as below: btnUpate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e){ sqlDataSource1.Update(); sqlDateSource2.Update();} But, the records haven't updated. In SqlDataSource2_Updating() function, I found all the parameters is null. So, how to modify my code to do it.
I want to retrieve the last update time of database. Whenever any update or delete or insert happend to my database i want to store and retrieve that time.
I know one way is that i have to make a table that will store the datetime field and system trigger / trigger that can update this field record whenever any update insert or deletion occur in database.
But i don't know exactly how to do the coding for this?
I have a table where table row gets updated multiple times(each column will be filled) based on telephone call in data.
Initially, I have implemented after insert trigger on ROW level thinking that the whole row is inserted into table will all column values at a time. But the issue is all columns are values are not filled at once, but observed that while telephone call in data, there are multiple updates to the row (i.e multiple updates in the sense - column data in row is updated step by step),
I thought to implement after update trigger , but when it comes to the performance will be decreased for each and every hit while row update.
I need to implement after update trigger that should be fired on column level instead of Row level to improve the performance?
