I'm looking to update a field in a table variable with the results from a SQL query. The SQL query howver needs to use the ID filed of the table variable which has already beeen populated.
Effectively, for each ID in the table variable run the query using that ID field and then pass the scalar result into another column.
I'm having a bit of trouble doing this. Can anyone help?
I am trying to use a stored procedure to update a column in a sql table using the value from a variable table I getting errors because my syntax is not correct. I think table aliases are not allowed in UPDATE statements.
This is my statement:
UPDATE [dbo].[sessions_teams] stc SET stc.[Talks] = fmt.found_talks_type FROM @Find_Missing_Talks fmt WHERE stc.sessionid IN (SELECT sessionid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks) AND stc.coupleid IN (SELECT coupleid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks)
I am writing a query to update table variable. It is throwing me some error.
I have a table variable declared and inserted the data with three columns. I want to update col1 of that table variable when the second column of that table variable= one column from a physical table
update @MYtabvar set @Mytabvar.LatestDate=B.LatestDate from TableB B where @Mytabvar.id=B.ID
insert into #t(branchnumber) values (005) insert into #t(branchnumber) values (090) insert into #t(branchnumber) values (115) insert into #t(branchnumber) values (210) insert into #t(branchnumber) values (216)
[code]....
I have a parameter which should take multiple values into it and pass that to the code that i use. For, this i created a parameter and temporarily for testing i am passing some values into it.Using a dynamic SQL i am converting multiple values into multiple records as rows into another variable (called @QUERY). My question is, how to insert the values from variable into a table (table variable or temp table or CTE).OR Is there any way to parse the multiple values into a table. like if we pass multiple values into a parameter. those should go into a table as rows.
Hi,I have table with three columns as belowtable name:expNo(int) name(char) refno(int)I have data as belowNo name refno1 a2 b3 cI need to update the refno with no values I write a query as belowupdate exp set refno=(select no from exp)when i run the query i got error asSubquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when thesubquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used asan expression.I need to update one colum with other column value.What is the correct query for this ?Thanks,Mani
Hy, i have this problem in vb.net: I must use a variable in SQL UPDATE statement, after SET statement, and i'm getting error. This is that line of code: Dim variable_name As StringDim variable As Integer Dim sqlString As String = ("UPDATE table_name SET " variable_name " = " & variable & " WHERE UserID = '" & UserID & "'")Dim cmdSqlCommand As New SqlCommand(sqlString, conConnetion) cmdSqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery()
When I don't use a variable after SET statement, everything work fine. This code works fine: Dim variable As Integer Dim sqlString As String = ("UPDATE table_name SET column_name = " & variable & " WHERE UserID = '" & UserID & "'")Dim cmdSqlCommand As New SqlCommand(sqlString, conConnetion) cmdSqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery()
I am having difficulties with some sql syntax with sql server 2000. I am trying to write code to update a column in which the name of it is unknown. At run time, I am able to set a variable equal to the correct column name but in doing so, treats the value as a String. Ex. Declare @varA varchar(12) select @varA = (select top 1 Value from #temp)
Update TableX set @varA = y.ColTest from TableX x, TableY y where x.Colid = y.Colid
It sets the variable = to the last value from TableX.ColTest I want the Update statement to update the value for the Variable which represents the correct column to update.
Yesterday I was working to try to resolve a issue with not Using a cursor for a unique type of update.
TG was able to resolve my issue using this query
Declare @Stage Table(StartDate datetime,BenefitInterestID INT PRIMARY KEY Clustered, Amount MONEY, InterestAmount MONEY, Interest DECIMAL(10, 4), ai DECIMAL(10, 4)) Insert Into @Stage(StartDate ,BenefitInterestID, Amount, InterestAmount, Interest , ai ) Select convert(datetime,'2006-12-01 00:00:00.000',101) as StartDate,1 as BenefitInterestID,1701.00 as amount,79.605 as InterestAmount ,0.1000 as Interest,0.0000 as ai Union all select '2007-12-01 00:00:00.000',2,172.80,7.92,0.0500,0 Union all select '2008-12-01 00:00:00.000',4,0.00,0.00,0.0700,0 Union all select '2009-12-01 00:00:00.000',5,0.00,0.00,0.0900,0 Union all select '2010-12-01 00:00:00.000',6,0.00,0.00,0.0200,0
update s set @ai = ai = s.interest * (isNull(@aiTot,0) + @a + @ia) ,@a = isNull(@a, 0) + s.amount ,@ia = isNull(@ia, 0) + s.interestamount ,@aiTot = isNull(@aiTot, 0) + @ai from @stage s
TG pointed out that although this query should always work, there is a underlying issue in this type of update method, due to it is dependent on the order in which sql updates (Currently the clustered index is the only way I know of to secure the order is in tact).
Although it is unlikely, TG pointed out that do to this inherent flaw in the methodology, if future releases of SQL were to be modified to improve performance in updates, this method COULD possibly not work, and there is no 100% guarentee that the index would be used.
My questions are
1. Is there any way to Ensure that the style of update I am using uses the clustered index (i.e. "from @stage s WITH (INDEX = ...)") but I do not know the ID of the index since it is a TMP table?
2. Force the order of the update to be the order of the index (Just because there is a index, that doesn't ensure that a future release of sql will reference the index from top to bottom (I know this is unlikely, but I still would like to know if there was a way to ensure the update did always occur from top to bottom of the index).
I wonder why this script IS NOT UPDATING the user-def variable varFileName (package-scoped) and I do not get any errors when running the package at all.
Hello All I m trying to update a table whose col name will be read from another table. For e.g. Table1 gives the result: 'emp1', 1, 'John' 'emp2', 2, 'Mike' Now in the second table, i need to update the table with Col name = 'Emp1' and then from the second row (above), I need to update Col name= 'Emp2' I need to write one Update Statement which will handle all the cases. I tried Update Table2 set @VariableName = ....... but didnt work... How can i do that ?
I am trying to create an Update Form. There is only one Field that can be edited on this form – agencydesc (Agency Description). I’m trying to perform the update to the Database the .Net way and I am definitely having some trouble. The form is loaded from the file AgencyEdit.aspx. An Image Button does a Server.Transfer to AgencyUPD.aspx where the update is completed. When AgencyEdit.aspx is loaded the Agency Description is pre-populated in TextBox1. When the value of TextBox1 is changed, the change does not show when the variable is passed to AgencyUPD.aspx, the value remains the initial populated value from the Database. Any help would greatly be appreciated.
Relevant CS Code from AgencyEdit.aspx
public string myBase; public int eSernum; public string eAgency; public string eDesc; protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.ImageButton ImageButton3; protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.TextBox TextBox1;
public string myTest { get {return this.TextBox1.Text;} }
I have a Variable called - UpdateIDs. I would like to create a conditional split on id's that have no responses and id's that have responses. The idea is. There is a whole bunch of tables that can be updated if the foreign key is in the no responses id's.
So I have created a data flow. The conditional split is there, but I do not have a "Update Global Variable" Destination source.
Is there away to achieve this.
Basically this is the logic that I am trying to use
Dataflow --> Store Id's into Global Variable --> Data Flow update/insert Tables and Rows where Id in Gloabl Variable.
Is there another way this can be done? Sorry I am very new to this, and would appreciate any help
Hi, I need to update a number of columns in a number of tables - I just don't know how many. In this case, I am updating all varchar fields and nvarchar fields to be converted to lower case. The problem is that the table structure is amended over time as columns are added programmatically, so I do not know which tables have which columns and if so which of them are varchars.
I can get a table of which fields I need to update using:
SELECT TABLE_NAME, COLUMN_NAME, ORDINAL_POSITION, DATA_TYPE INTO tblTempLCase FROM information_schema.columns WHERE DATA_TYPE LIKE '%varchar'
and I can do the update with UPDATE tblxxx SET column = LOWER(column)
But what I don't know is how to step through my temporary table and do the updates. I can do it in ASP.NET, but that involves pushing commands and data between ASP and SQL, and will be too slow. How do I do it in SQL?
We are using SSIS 2008 . A variable abc has been defined with sql script Select firstName,LastName from Employee.I need to edit the variable and add a where condition like SELECT firstName,lastName FROM employee where Name like '%Fr%' I tried to replace it with new script and saved also but when i ran the package it was still using the old sql script .
I need to update a number of columns within a number of tables - I just don't know how many. In this case, I want to convert all varchar and nvarchar columns to lower-case versions of themselves. The problem is that the table structure is changed programatically, and so at any point in time I cannot be certain what fields are in which table, and what data type they are.
I know that I can get a lit of columns using:
SELECT TABLE_NAME, COLUMN_NAME, ORDINAL_POSITION, DATA_TYPE INTO tblTempLCase FROM information_schema.columns WHERE DATA_TYPE LIKE '%varchar'
and do the update using:
UPDATE tblABCDE SET column = LOWER(column).
In ASP.NET I can pull in this temporary table using a SQL Data Adapter, and then step through the records to formulate the UPDATE statements and execute them all. However, I hope that this is possible in SQL too, so that I do not have to keep firing data/commands between ASP and SQL, as it should be quicker, and is also neater.
I need to update a number of columns within a number of tables - I just don't know how many. In this case, I want to convert all varchar and nvarchar columns to lower-case versions of themselves. The problem is that the table structure is changed programatically, and so at any point in time I cannot be certain what fields are in which table, and what data type they are.
I know that I can get a lit of columns using:
SELECT TABLE_NAME, COLUMN_NAME, ORDINAL_POSITION, DATA_TYPE INTO tblTempLCase FROM information_schema.columns WHERE DATA_TYPE LIKE '%varchar'
and do the update using:
UPDATE tblABCDE SET column = LOWER(column).
In ASP.NET I can pull in this temporary table using a SQL Data Adapter, and then step through the records to formulate the UPDATE statements and execute them all. However, I hope that this is possible in SQL too, so that I do not have to keep firing data/commands between ASP and SQL, as it should be quicker, and is also neater.
Someone told me that I couldnt update the global variavel inside a dataflow... but i need to have some solution to do that... :-(
I crate my identity column manually based on a global variable... and it works perfect, but in one dataflow I have to insert 2 times in the some table... so... in the second time my identity will be GlobalVariavel + increment of the first time rows inserted...
how can I save this increment in the dataflow? How can I count the rows inserted in the first time do use it in the second time i save Data to the some table??
Hi, I'm trying to update a sqlserver database through vb.net in an asp.net 2.0 project. I'm using a sqldatasource and am trying to code an update parameter with a session variable. code snippet: <UpdateParameters><asp:Parameter Name="hrs_credited" /> <asp:Parameter Name="updater_id" DefaultValue="<%$ Session("User_ID")%>" Type="Int32"/> <asp:Parameter Name="activity_id" /> <asp:Parameter Name="attendee_id" /></UpdateParameters> The error message that I receive is: Error 2 Literal content ('<asp:Parameter Name="updater_id" DefaultValue="" Type="Int32"/>') is not allowed within a 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.ParameterCollection'. C:DevelopmentCMEdataentryattendance.aspx 29 Does anyone have an idea how to assign the session var value to the parameter? Thanks!
Hello,I am trying to update variable 'Type' (which is a pre-defined variablewithout any value in it). Is there a way to combine Step1 to Step3 intoone single Update? I tried the query at the bottom but it didn't work.Thanks a lot!--STEP1:Update TABLE1set type = casewhen name like '%Airline%' then 'Airlines'else 'Others'end--STEP2:update TABLE1set type = casewhen name like '%Brokerage%' then 'Brokerage'else 'Others'endwhere type = 'Others'--STEP3:update TABLE1set type = casewhen name like '%card%' then 'Credit Card'else 'Others'endwhere type = 'Others'--Failed query:Update TABLE1set type = casewhen name like '%Airline%' then 'Airlines'else when name like '%Brokerage%' then 'Brokerage'else when name like '%card%' then 'Credit Card'else 'Others'end
I'm getting a type mismatch error (currently string, when I think I need Int32 ?) with the code below. I'm having difficultly setting my session variable to type Int32 and having it take up the value of RawCoDeptRowID. When I "Watch" it, it's value remains as "snCoDeptRowID". Also, not sure if my Update command and it's snCoDeptRowID input parameter is well formed? Any advice would be greatly appreciated. Thank you. Web Page 1: Session["snCoDeptRowID"] = Convert.ToInt32 (RawCoDeptRowID);
I am trying to update a field in a pre-existing record in my database. This update is supposed to happen when the protected sub entitled "PictureUpload" is called by button click. I listed the code immediately below and then I listed the error that I am getting further below that. Does anybody know what I am doing wrong and why I am getting this error? Thanks in advance and forgive my newbie ignorance!
Here is a portion of the Protected Sub that I am using in an attempt to update a field in a pre-existing record... Protected Sub PictureUpload(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Dim ImageUploaded As Integer = 1 srcprofiles_BasicProperties.UpdateParameters("ImageUploaded").DefaultValue = ImageUploaded srcprofiles_BasicProperties.Update() End Sub Here is the SqlDataSource control I included on the page with (what I hope is) appropriate formatting... <asp:SqlDataSource ID="srcprofiles_BasicProperties" runat="server" ConnectionString="Data Source=.SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|UserProfilesDB.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient" SelectCommand="SELECT * FROM [profiles_BasicProperties] WHERE ([UserName] = @UserName)" UpdateCommand="UPDATE [profiles_BasicProperties] SET [ImageUploaded] = @ImageUploaded WHERE ([UserName] = @UserName)"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter DefaultValue="imageuploaded01" Name="UserName" Type="String" /> </SelectParameters> <UpdateParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="ImageUploaded" Type="Int32" /> </UpdateParameters></asp:SqlDataSource> ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^...and now the error...^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^ Server Error in '/PC_Dev' Application.
Must declare the scalar variable "@UserName". Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Must declare the scalar variable "@UserName".Source Error:
Line 164: Dim ImageUploaded As Integer = 1 Line 165: srcprofiles_BasicProperties.UpdateParameters("ImageUploaded").DefaultValue = ImageUploaded Line 166: srcprofiles_BasicProperties.Update() Line 167: Line 168: Source File: C:UsersMDocumentsPC_DevProfiles_BuildProfile.aspx Line: 166 Stack Trace:
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
Simple example:    declare @tTable(col1 int)    insert into @tTable(col1) values (1)    select * from @tTable
Works perfectly in SQL Server Management Studio and the database connection is OK to as I may generate PP table using complex (or simple) queries without difficulty.
But when trying to get this same result in a PP table I get an error, idem when replacing table variable by a temporary table.
Message: OLE DB or ODBC error. .... The current operation was cancelled because another operation the the transaction failed.
I have a table where table row gets updated multiple times(each column will be filled) based on telephone call in data.  Initially, I have implemented after insert trigger on ROW level thinking that the whole row is inserted into table will all column values at a time. But the issue is all columns are values are not filled at once, but observed that while telephone call in data, there are multiple updates to the row (i.e multiple updates in the sense - column data in row is updated step by step),
I thought to implement after update trigger , but when it comes to the performance will be decreased for each and every hit while row update.
I need to implement after update trigger that should be fired on column level instead of Row level to improve the performance?
I have a SSIS package that has a SQL task which gets a result set and stores it in an SSIS object variable. The package then iterates through that result set in a foreach Loop Container. In the loop container I have a script task and a Send Mail Task. The script task sets the contents of the email message (through an SSIS String variable). In the dataset I have an EmployeeCode column. I need to select a single EmployeeCode and grab all the records associated with that code to create a single EmailMessage for that Employee that includes all their records. I've got that done, however the way I'm implementing it I then have to update the SSIS Object variable that holds the result set to remove those records I've already processed. Doing this causes an error at the next ForEach loop iteration stating it can't find a source.
Result Set from SQL Query (16 columns, 674 rows, 145 distinct Employeecodes) Employee Code EmailAddress Other columns 1 email1 set1 1 email1 set2 2 email2 set3 2 emial2 set4 2 email2 set5 etc etc etc
The first iteration should be sent to email1 where the body includes set1 and set2, the second iteration sends to email2 where the body includes set3, set4, and set5 and so forth.
The SSIS ForEachLoop Container is looping through the entire Result Set and passing into the .NET Script task the EmployeeCode (readonly) and the entire Result Set (readwrite) and setting the value of EmailMessage. So I create the value of EmailMessage based on the EmployeeCode and then use the value of Email1 and EmailMessage in the SendMail Task. I was trying to delete the rows I processed so I don€™t process them the next time the ForEachLoop Executes (otherwise I'll get duplicate emails).
Or if there's a different way to do this, I'm open to that as well.
See below for the code I'm using (colEmployeeCode is a ReadOnlyVariable and rsRecipients and EmailMessage are ReadWriteVariables in the Script Task).
Public Sub Main() Dim Header As String Dim Body As String Dim Footer As String Header = "blah"
Footer = "blah"
Try Dim olead As New Data.OleDb.OleDbDataAdapter Dim dt As New Data.DataTable olead.Fill(dt, Dts.Variables("rsRecipients").Value)
For Each row As Data.DataRow In dt.Rows If UCase(Trim(row("EmployeeCode").ToString())) = UCase(Trim(Dts.Variables("colEmployeeCode").Value.ToString())) Then Body = Body + "Label: " + Trim(row("colum").ToString()) + System.Environment.NewLine row.Delete() End If Next Dts.Variables("rsRecipients").Value = dt Dts.Variables("EmailMessage").Value = Header + Body + Footer Dts.TaskResult = Dts.Results.Success Catch ex As Exception Dts.TaskResult = Dts.Results.Failure End Try End Sub
