Pls. help me,
How can I kill the LOCK after update is completed in the table?
My application is complaining that other user still using the system.
This is a part of my trigger to do un update on CallLog table
.......
begin transaction
Update Heat.CallLog
set ModTime=@Vancovertime Where CallID=@strCallID
Commit Transaction
i am using visual web developer 2005 and SQL Express 2005 with VB as the code behindi am using the following code to update the database table Dim update As New SqlDataSource() update.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("DatabaseConnectionString").ToString() update.UpdateCommandType = SqlDataSourceCommandType.Text update.UpdateCommand = "UPDATE orderdetail SET fromdesignstatus = 2 ,progresspercentage = 15 , fromdesignlink = '" + designlink + "' WHERE order_id =" + ordersid.ToString() update.Update() update.Dispose() update = Nothing i am using update.Dispose() and update = nothing to release the memoryis it really necessary to use both the commandsif not , in my case which one is enough and what is the reasonplease help me
View 3 Replies View Relatedcan anybody explain following query.
SELECT * FROM TABLE1 e WITH (UPDLOCK)
JOIN TABLE@ i ON Id=Id
Hi,
I am working on a project which need to produce a sequential certificate number, Everytime I need a new certificate number, I need to find out what is the max number in the database and then the new certificate number just max+1.
But how can I block another
transaction to check what is max certi. number while this transaction is in the middle of writing the new certificate number(max+1) into database . Does ADLockOptimistic work in this case? Here is the code:
My database sql 2000.
cmdTemp.CommandText="Select max(certificateNumber) from product_table where certificateNumber<> 8888888"
set cert_info=Server.CreateObject("ADODB.RecordSet")
cert_info.Open cmdTemp, , AdOpenKeySet, adLockOptimistic
If Not cert_info.EOF then
certnumber=cert_info(0)+1
End if
cert_info.close
set cert_info=nothing
Hi,I need to lock a database (prevent users from connecting) in order toupdate it. I already know how to kick everyone out with their spid buti can't figure how to prevent them from reconnecting.Thanks !
View 5 Replies View RelatedHi,
I'm taking an Excel spreadsheet (that could have around 30k rows) and processing it in SSIS. I essentially have a flag in one of the spreadsheet cols that indicates whether the record is already in the database or not.
I'm splitting the data using a conditional split on this column and using a OLE DB Destination (Fast Load) to perform the inserts and a OLE DB Command to fire a stored procedure to perform any updates. Both the OLE DB Destination and the stored procedure are hitting the same table and the two operations could be executing at the same time as they both appear directly after the Conditional Split, so the OLE DB Destination is set NOT to lock the table.
This seemed to work OK until recently. I've just added 2 triggers onto the table in question which I don't want to fire 30,000 times during the import. As the OLE DB Destination is set to use Fast Load, it doesn't fire the triggers - cool. In the update stored procedure it disables the trigger before performing it's update and re-enables the trigger when finished. Currently this does mean that if you only had updates, the trigger could be enables/disabled 30,000 times. That sounds kinda bad, but I don't really know if this carries a large overhead or not?
If, when importing now you have both updates and inserts the whole process locks up. From looking at activity monitor, it seems as though the INSERT gets suspended.
Do I have a fundamental problem with how I've structured the Data Flow or am I just being really stupid in Enabling/Disabling a trigger that many times, which is probably causing the problem?
Thanks in advance.
I open query analyser and on one tab I update a record in a transaction and hold it.
begin tran
update customers set territory = 'x' where customer = 'A00001'
--rollback tran
In a second tab I attempt to update all records in the table
update customers set carrier = ''
Clear this fails because of the lock placed during the first script and this is fine.
However, is there a way to get the 2nd script to ignore the locked rows and just update as many as it can? The obvious answer seemed to be the READPAST hint like follows…
update customers with (READPAST) set carrier = ''
…but this is still blocked by the original lock. I’ve tried combining it with all sorts of other table hints but all seem to get blocked.
The following does work, ignoring the lock and not returning the data
Select * from customers with (READPAST) where customer = 'A00001'
I’ve tried combining this with the update like so…
update customers
set carrier = ''
from customers with (READPAST)
where customer = 'A00001'
..but this is blocked too.
I’m so desperate I tried moving the update into a cursor and update one row at a time. Nothing worked. I thought I might be able to do something like this
If (Select count(*)
from customers with (READPAST)
where customer = 'A00001') > 0
--then perform update
..but this returns a value of 1 even though the following returns no rows.
Select * from customers with (READPAST) where customer = 'A00001'
Hi
I am using conditional split Checking to see if a record exists and if so update else insert. But this cause database dead lock any one has suggestion?
Thanks
I need to search for such SPs in my database in which the queries for update a table contains where clause which uses non primary key while updating rows in table.
If employee table have empId as primary key and an Update query is using empName in where clause to update employee record then such SP should be listed. so there would be hundreds of tables with their primary key and thousands of SPs in a database. How can I find them where the "where" clause is using some other column than its primary key.
If there is any other hint or query to identify such queries that lock tables, I only found the above few queries that are not using primary key in where clause.
Hi All,I have a database that is serving a web site with reasonably hightraffiic.We're getting errors at certain points where processes are beinglocked. In particular, one of our people has suggested that an updatestatement contained within a stored procedure that uses a wherecondition that only touches on a column that has a clustered primaryindex on it will still cause a table lock.So, for example:UPDATE ORDERS SETprod = @product,val = @valWHERE ordid = @ordidIn this case ordid has a clustered primary index on it.Can anyone tell me if this would be the case, and if there's a way ofensuring that we are only doing a row lock on the record specified inthe where condition?Many, many thanks in advance!Much warmth,Murray
View 1 Replies View Related
We recently implemented merge replication.We were expereincing. The replication is between 2 SQL Servers (2005) over same network box, and since we have introduced the replication, the performance has degraded considerably on subscriber end.
1) One thing that should be mention is that its a "unidirectional Direction" flow of changes is from publisher towards subscriber (only one publisher and distributor as well and one subscriber ).
2) Updates are high than inserts and only one article let say "Article1" ave update up to 2000 per day and i am experiecing that dbo.MSmerge_upd_sp_Article1_GUID taking more cpu time.what should be do..
on subscriber database response time is going to slow and i am experiencing a lot of number of LOCK time outs on application end.
can any one can also suggest me server level settings for aviding locking time out.
looking for any experieced solution/suggestion.
Thanks in advance.
What's up with this?
This takes like 0 secs to complete:
update xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:
update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?
Edit:
Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.
2nd Edit:
Could it be to do with this linked server setting?
Collation Compatible
right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine.
However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane...
(0 row(s) affected)
(1 row(s) affected)
How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect)
(1 row(s) affected)
If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it.
Thanks
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
View 8 Replies View RelatedThe Folowing code is not working anymore. (500 error)
Set objRS = strSQL1.Execute
strSQL1 = "SELECT * FROM BannerRotor where BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID)
objRS.Open strSQL1, objConn , 2 , 3 , adCmdText
If not (objRS.BOF and objRS.EOF) Then
objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value =objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value + 1
objRS.update
End If
objRS.Close
The .execute Method works fine
strSQL1 = "UPDATE BannerRotor SET Exposures=Exposures+1 WHERE BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID)
objConn.Execute strSQL1
W2003 + IIS6.0
Pls advice?
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE(
ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName)
VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL
FROM MYOTHERTABLE
hi need help how to send an email from database mail on row update
from stored PROCEDURE multi update
but i need to send a personal email evry employee get an email on row update
like send one after one email
i use FUNCTION i get on this forum to use split from multi update
how to loop for evry update send an single eamil to evry employee ID send one email
i update like this
Code Snippet
:
DECLARE @id nvarchar(1000)
set @id= '16703, 16704, 16757, 16924, 17041, 17077, 17084, 17103, 17129, 17134, 17186, 17190, 17203, 17205, 17289, 17294, 17295, 17296, 17309, 17316, 17317, 17322, 17325, 17337, 17338, 17339, 17348, 17349, 17350, 17357, 17360, 17361, 17362, 17366, 17367, 17370, 17372, 17373, 17374, 17377, 17380, 17382, 17383, 17385, 17386, 17391, 17392, 17393, 17394, 17395, 17396, 17397, 17398, 17400, 17401, 17402, 17407, 17408, 17409, 17410, 17411, 17412, 17413, 17414, 17415, 17417, 17418, 17419, 17420, 17422, 17423, 17424, 17425, 17426, 17427, 17428, 17430, 17431, 17432, 17442, 17443, 17444, 17447, 17448, 17449, 17450, 17451'
UPDATE s SET fld5 = 2
FROM Snha s
JOIN dbo.udf_SplitList(@id, ',') split
ON split.value = s.na
WHERE fld5 = 3
now
how to send an EMAIL for evry ROW update but "personal email" to the employee
Code Snippet
DECLARE @xml NVARCHAR(MAX)DECLARE @body NVARCHAR(MAX)
SET @xml =CAST(( SELECT
FirstName AS 'td','',
LastName AS 'td','' ,
SET @body = @body + @xml +'</table></body></html>'
EXEC msdb.dbo.sp_send_dbmail
@recipients =''
@copy_recipients='www@iec.com',
@body = @body,
@body_format ='HTML',
@subject ='test',
@profile_name ='bob'
END
ELSE
print 'no email today'
TNX
Hello,I am trying to update records in my database from excel data using vbaeditor within excel.In order to launch a query, I use SQL langage in ADO as follwing:------------------------------------------------------------Dim adoConn As ADODB.ConnectionDim adoRs As ADODB.RecordsetDim sConn As StringDim sSql As StringDim sOutput As StringsConn = "DSN=MS Access Database;" & _"DBQ=MyDatabasePath;" & _"DefaultDir=MyPathDirectory;" & _"DriverId=25;FIL=MS Access;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;" &_"PWD=xxxxxx;UID=admin;"ID, A, B C.. are my table fieldssSql = "SELECT ID, `A`, B, `C being a date`, D, E, `F`, `H`, I, J,`K`, L" & _" FROM MyTblName" & _" WHERE (`A`='MyA')" & _" AND (`C`>{ts '" & Format(Date, "yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss") & "'})"& _" ORDER BY `C` DESC"Set adoConn = New ADODB.ConnectionadoConn.Open sConnSet adoRs = New ADODB.RecordsetadoRs.Open Source:=sSql, _ActiveConnection:=adoConnadoRs.MoveFirstSheets("Sheet1").Range("a2").CopyFromRecordset adoRsSet adoRs = NothingSet adoConn = Nothing---------------------------------------------------------------Does Anyone know How I can use the UPDATE, DELETE INSERT SQL statementsin this environement? Copying SQL statements from access does not workas I would have to reference Access Object in my project which I do notwant if I can avoid. Ideally I would like to use only ADO system andSQL approach.Thank you very muchNono
View 1 Replies View RelatedIt appears to update only the first qualifying row. The trace shows a row count of one when there are multiple qualifying rows in the table. This problem does not exist in JDBC 2000.
View 5 Replies View RelatedI'm having a strange problem that I can't figure out. I have an SQL stored procedure that updates a small database table. When testing the Stored Procedure from the Server Explorer, it works fine. However, when I run the C# code that's supposed to use it, the data doesn't get saved. The C# code seems to run correctly and the parameters that are passed to the SP seem to be okay. No exceptions are thrown.
The C# code:
SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["touristsConnectionString"].ConnectionString);
SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("fort_SaveRedirectURL", conn);
cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure;
Label accomIdLabel = (Label)DetailsView1.FindControl("lblID");
int accomId = Convert.ToInt32(accomIdLabel.Text);
cmd.Parameters.Add("@accomId", SqlDbType.Int).Value = accomId;
cmd.Parameters.Add("@path", SqlDbType.VarChar, 250).Value = GeneratePath();
try
{
conn.Open();
cmd.ExecuteNonQuery();
}
catch(Exception ex)
{
throw ex;
}
finally
{
conn.Close();
}
The Stored Procedure:
ALTER PROCEDURE developers.fort_SaveRedirectURL
(
@accomId int,
@path varchar(250)
)
AS
DECLARE
@enabled bit,
@oldpath varchar(250)
/* Ensure that the accommodation has been enabled */
SELECT @enabled = enabled FROM Experimental_Accommodation
WHERE Experimental_Accommodation.id = @accomId
IF (@enabled = 1)
BEGIN
/* Now check if a path already exists */
SELECT @oldpath = oldpath FROM Experimental_Adpages_Redirect
WHERE Experimental_Adpages_Redirect.accom_id = @accomId
IF @oldpath IS NULL
BEGIN
/* If Path already exists then we should keep the existing URL */
/* Otherwise, we need to insert a new one */
INSERT INTO Experimental_Adpages_Redirect
(oldpath, accom_id)
VALUES (@path,@accomId)
END
END
RETURN
I'm new to this forum.
This 'problem' has occured many times, but I've always found a way around it.
I have pages with datagrids, in which a user can edit a certain fields and then update the tables with new data. Lets say when a user edit a Name field and a money field. If he/she left those two fields blank, the table is automatically updated with a <null> (for the name field) and a 0 (for the money field.) Both these columns were set up to allow Null values.
Anyone has an idea why they were updated that way? And is there like a standard on how the data types are updated if a field is left blank?
Thank you very much.
hi,friends
we show record from multiple table using single 'selectcommand'.
like....
---------
select *
from cust_detail,vend_detail
---------
i want to insert value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'insert command'.
is it possible?
give any idea or solution.
i want to update value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'update command'
i want to delete value in multiple database table(more than one) using singl 'delete command'
it is possible?
give any idea or solution.
it's urgent.
thanks in advance.
I do realize that his could be posted in a few spots but I think the answer is in the SQL.
I have a ASP.NET page, with a SqlDataSource, Text Box and Calendar Controls. I have the textbox and calendar controls eval'ed to the same sql data source DateTime Field. The text box is formatted eval to small time and the calendars eval has no formatting.
ex:
<asp:TextBox ID="START_TIME" Text='<%# Eval("EVENT_START","{0:t}") %>' runat=server Width=200></asp:TextBox>
I want to merge the two controls; one has the date the other has the time when I update the pages data to the SqlDataSource field EVENT_START. I've tried a couple of methods, but I would like some other opinions. As Sql server only supports date and time together I am storing the two together.
I could merge the two together in the code behind on the update button's event handler or merge the two during the update query using parameters.
Not that I could get an illegal date for the calendar control, but I could get garbage from the textfield time. So I still would have to do validation on the text field before the SQL server could do the update.
There's a few ways to go about this, so I was wondering if anyone else has figured out an elegant way to handle it.
wbochar
I want to update two tables in one page. So I created two FormView bound on two SqlDataSource controls, and I create a Update button on the bottom of page. And I writen some codes as below:
btnUpate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e){
sqlDataSource1.Update();
sqlDateSource2.Update();}
But, the records haven't updated.
In SqlDataSource2_Updating() function, I found all the parameters is null.
So, how to modify my code to do it.
Zhang
hi!
I have a big problem. If anyone can help.
I want to retrieve the last update time of database. Whenever any update or delete or insert happend to my database i want to store and retrieve that time.
I know one way is that i have to make a table that will store the datetime field and system trigger / trigger that can update this field record whenever any update insert or deletion occur in database.
But i don't know exactly how to do the coding for this?
Is there any other way to do this?
can DBCC help to retrieve this info?
Please advise me how to do this.
Thanks in advance.
Vaibhav
I have a table where table row gets updated multiple times(each column will be filled) based on telephone call in data.
Initially, I have implemented after insert trigger on ROW level thinking that the whole row is inserted into table will all column values at a time. But the issue is all columns are values are not filled at once, but observed that while telephone call in data, there are multiple updates to the row (i.e multiple updates in the sense - column data in row is updated step by step),
I thought to implement after update trigger , but when it comes to the performance will be decreased for each and every hit while row update.
I need to implement after update trigger that should be fired on column level instead of Row level to improve the performance?
Hello,
I'm writing a fairly involved stored procedure. In this Stored Procedure, I have an update statement, followed by a select statement. The results of the select statement should be effected by the previous update statement, but its not. When the stored procedure is finish, the update statement seemed to have worked though, so it is working.
I suspect I need something, like a GO statement, but that doesnt seem to work for a stored procedure. Can anyone offer some assistance?
Hello
I have interesting situation with one of my update statement.
Update takes 2 min to run and usually updates 20000 rows.
However lately update executes for longest time - 10 hours.
After I reindex table the updates run fine again
Please advice what can cause this
I do not think reindexing table before every update is good idea
We are running SQL 2000 SP4, Windows 2003 Server
Thank you in advance for all your help
Armine
Hi! Select gets all records that contains illegal chars... Ok, to replace '[' { and some other chars I will make AND '% .. %' and place other intervals, that is not the problem.The problem is: How to replace not allowed chars ( ! @ # $ % ^ & * ( ) etc. ) with '_' ?I have seen that there is a function REPLACE, but can't figure out how to use it. 1 SELECT user_username
2 FROM users
3 WHERE user_username LIKE '%[!-)]%';
UPDATE #TempTableESR SET CTRLBudEng = (SELECT SUM(Salaries) from ProjectBudget WHERE Project = @Project)UPDATE #TempTableESR SET CTRLBudTravel = (SELECT SUM(Travels) from ProjectBudget WHERE Project = @Project)UPDATE #TempTableESR SET CTRLBudMaterials = (SELECT SUM(Materials) from ProjectBudget WHERE Project = @Project)UPDATE #TempTableESR SET CTRLBudOther = (SELECT SUM(Others) from ProjectBudget WHERE Project = @Project)UPDATE #TempTableESR SET CTRLBudContingency = (SELECT SUM(Contingency) from ProjectBudget WHERE Project = @Project)above is the UPDATE command i am using in one of my stored procedures. I have to SELECT from my ProjectBudget table 5 times to update my #TempTableESR table. is there an UPDATE command i can use which would let me update multiple fields in a table using one SELECT command?
View 1 Replies View RelatedOK,
This is an Update that I have working, But what do I do, if the customer does not exist already it doesn't add the customer? How should I remedy this? if the customer does exist works great.
UPDATE AC
SET CustId = Left (CustomerId,10),
CustName = Left (CustomerName,25),
Addr1 = Left (Address1,25),
Addr2 = Left (Address2,25),
City = Left (ca.City,15),
Region = Left (State,2),
PostalCode = Left (Zip,5)
FROM RIO.dbo.tblArCust AC INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerCode, MAX(LastUpdatedDate) MaxDate
FROM COFFEE.dbo.vueCustomerAddress
GROUP BY CustomerCode) V
ON V.CustomerCode = AC.CustId
INNER JOIN COFFEE.dbo.vueCustomerAddress CA
ON CA.CustomerCode=V.CustomerCode AND
MaxDate=LastUpdatedDate
WHERE CA.addresstypeid = 1
Hello
I've to write an trigger for the following action
When a entry is done in the table Adoscat79 having in the index field Statut_tiers the valeur 1 and a date in data_cloture for a customer xyz
all the entries in the same table where the no_tiers is the same as the one entered (many entriers) should have those both field updated
statut_tiers to 1
and date_cloture to the same date as entered
the same action has to be done when an update is done and the valeur is set to 1 for the statut_tiers and a date entered in the field date_clture
thank you for your help
I've never done a trigger before
I'm looking for a query that can "batch" update one table from another. For example, say there are fields on both tables like this:
KeyField
Value1
Value2
Value3
The two tables will match on "KeyField". I would like to write one SQL query that will update the "Value" fields in Table1 with the data from Table2 when there is a match.