I'm in need of a little assitance using MS
Access with an SQL Server 2000 database backend.
I currently have an application populates an Access database,
but I would like to be able to send this data directly to the SQL
Server also. Potential solution include the use of ADO/ADOX to make a
connection, a Pass-through/Update query to send the data
to an identical database schema on the SQL Server, and
stored procedures to make everything efficient. I don't have much
experience with any of these technologies, but would greatly
appreciate any help and /or code snippets to get things moving.
Can someome please advise what the equivalent query would be inMicrosoft SQL Server ... I've tried a number of combinations with nosuccess ... Thanks, Ralph Noble (ralph_noble@hotmail.com)================UPDATE INVENTORYINNER JOIN SALES ON (INVENTORY.BAR_CODE = SALES.BAR_CODE)AND (INVENTORY.PRODUCT_NBR = SALES.PRODUCT_NBR)SET INVENTORY.DATE_PURCHASED = "20050127"WHERE (((SALES.SOLD)="20050127"));
a while back i had to do a project with an access database, one of the biggest problems i had back then was gettting the primary key of a datarow you had just inserted into the database.
After a long set of trial and error i came up with the following:
- add the tablemappings of a table - call the dataadapte.fillschema method
then after inserting a new row into the database the primary key gets filled in automatically!
now thing is
i was hoping to duplicate this in sql server
but it doesn't seem to work at all
so after i insert a row into my datatable and update it the row is in the database but in vb the datarow primary key is not filled in! anyone have an idea?
prefereabely one that does not resort to stored procedures with return parameters etc
I am converting old MS Access queries to T-SQL and ran into a problem. The results of the same update queries returned different results. The idea is to subtract each of the amounts of Table2 from Table1:
Source sample tables and content: Table1 ID Amount 1 100
Table2 ID Amount 1 10 1 20 1 30
In Access (Orginal source): UPDATE Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ON Table1.ID = Table2.ID SET Table1.Amount = Table1.Amount - Table2.Amount
In T-SQL (Converted): UPDATE Table1 SET Table1.Amount = Table1.Amount - Table2.Amount FROM Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ON Table1.ID = Table2.ID
Syntax for T-SQL is different from Access. When both queries are ran on their respective database, Table1.Amount in access became 40 (100 - 10 - 20 - 30), but Table1.Amount in SQL became 90 (100 - 10).
It looks as if in T-SQL it only ran one row? Or it could be that in T-SQL, updates written to the database in batches, hence why Table1.Amount was not updated for all update instances? Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Hello,I am trying to update records in my database from excel data using vbaeditor within excel.In order to launch a query, I use SQL langage in ADO as follwing:------------------------------------------------------------Dim adoConn As ADODB.ConnectionDim adoRs As ADODB.RecordsetDim sConn As StringDim sSql As StringDim sOutput As StringsConn = "DSN=MS Access Database;" & _"DBQ=MyDatabasePath;" & _"DefaultDir=MyPathDirectory;" & _"DriverId=25;FIL=MS Access;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;" &_"PWD=xxxxxx;UID=admin;"ID, A, B C.. are my table fieldssSql = "SELECT ID, `A`, B, `C being a date`, D, E, `F`, `H`, I, J,`K`, L" & _" FROM MyTblName" & _" WHERE (`A`='MyA')" & _" AND (`C`>{ts '" & Format(Date, "yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss") & "'})"& _" ORDER BY `C` DESC"Set adoConn = New ADODB.ConnectionadoConn.Open sConnSet adoRs = New ADODB.RecordsetadoRs.Open Source:=sSql, _ActiveConnection:=adoConnadoRs.MoveFirstSheets("Sheet1").Range("a2").CopyFromRecordset adoRsSet adoRs = NothingSet adoConn = Nothing---------------------------------------------------------------Does Anyone know How I can use the UPDATE, DELETE INSERT SQL statementsin this environement? Copying SQL statements from access does not workas I would have to reference Access Object in my project which I do notwant if I can avoid. Ideally I would like to use only ADO system andSQL approach.Thank you very muchNono
using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; using System.Data; using System.Data.OleDb; using System.Collections;
namespace TimeTracking.DB { public class sql { OleDbConnection conn;
// //the constructor for this class, set the connectionstring // public sql() { DBConnectionstring ConnectToDB = new DBConnectionstring(); conn = ConnectToDB.MyConnection(); }
// // // public void UpdateEntry(int ID, string Week, string Year, string Date, string Project, string Action, string Time, string Comment) { int m_ID = ID; int m_Week = (Convert.ToInt32(Week)); int m_Year = (Convert.ToInt32(Year)); string m_Date = Date; string m_Project = Project; int m_ProjectID = new int(); string m_Action = Action; int m_ActionID = new int(); Single m_Time = (Convert.ToSingle(Time)); string m_Comment = Comment;
// //get the project ID from the database and store it in m_ProjectID // OleDbCommand SelectProjectID = new OleDbCommand("SELECT tblProject.ProjectID FROM tblProject" + " WHERE (((tblProject.Project) LIKE @Project))", conn);
// //get the action ID from the database and store it in m_ActionID // OleDbCommand SelectActionID = new OleDbCommand("SELECT tblAction.ActionID FROM tblAction" + " WHERE (((tblAction.Action) LIKE @Action))", conn);
finally { //close the connection if (conn != null) { conn.Close(); } } } } }
Code Snippet
The update statement is not working in my application, no error in C# and no error in ms-access. When I paste the update query into the ms-access query tool and replace the parameter values (@....) with real values, is will update the record.
Is there a way to link an Access 97 database to a SQL database which would update weekly as changes in the Access 97 database were made? In fact, the SQL database will be just a copy of an Access database. If there were tables added in the Access database these tables should also be added to the SQL database as well.
Hello, My problem is this. I did a dts of my old access database to a new sql 7 db. I used Access 97 as the frontened and connected the two databases using linked tables. I made sure all the indexes and such were correct in the SQL database before linking + made sure all the security was corret. When I open a table in the access frontend that is linked to the sql backend, I cannot update or change any data even though I am part of the NT administration group which is given full permissions to the database. Any reason why?
I need to be able to update a database in SQL Server Express from an Access database that a user will be uploading. Can anybody give me some suggestions about how to accomplish this besides reading in each record and updating the SQL server one record at a time. David
I am trying to convert code I have working for access to work with SQL. fldName, fldEmail, ID are the names in the database. recNum does have the value of the record that I want to edit. Here is the error I am getting. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Line 1: Incorrect syntax near '?'. And here is the stack trace (which I don’t know how to read except for the line the error is on) [SqlException: Line 1: Incorrect syntax near '?'.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream) +723 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() +194 goodellweb.adm_contact.editNow_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:Inetpubwwwrootwebrootgoodellwebadmadm_contacts.aspx.vb:306 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) +108 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +57 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) +18 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) +33 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain() +1315 here is my code.
Dim editSQL As String = "Update tbEmail Set fldName=?, fldEmail=? Where ID=?" Dim SqlConn As New SqlConnection(ConnStr) Dim Cmd As New SqlCommand(editSQL, SqlConn) Cmd.Parameters.Add(New SqlParameter("@fldName", nameEdit.Text)) Cmd.Parameters.Add(New SqlParameter("@fldEmail", emailEdit.Text)) Cmd.Parameters.Add(New SqlParameter("@recNum", recNum))
SqlConn.Open() Try Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() Finally SqlConn.Close() End Try Response.Write("recNum " & recNum & " <br>") Thanks Michael
I run the following statement from an update query in access but I can't find the way to run this same query in MSSQL. Please give me some ideas how to modify and run this in MSSQL.
Thank you
"UPDATE DISTINCTROW ZipToTerr, leadsUS SET leadsUS.Terr = [ZipToTerr]![TerrNum] WHERE ((([ZipToTerr].[BU]='W') AND (([ZipToTerr].[ZipFrom])<=[zip]) And (([ZipToTerr].[ZipTo])>=[zip])) And (([leadsUS].[terr]) = 1 ));"
Is there a way to link an Access 97 database to a SQL database which would get updated as changes in the Access 97 database take place? In fact, the SQL database will be just a copy of an Access database. If there were changes made to the fields in the Access database these changes should be made to the entries in the SQL database as well.
I finally added WinXP SP2 to my system yesterday (along with a lot of other security updates/patches through Automatic Updates) and now my backups and data exports are failing. Further, when I open my "Enterprise Manager" and try to export data ("All Tasks-Export-...") using the Import/Export Wizard, it won't let me select the "Export From" database.
hi guys, my prblem is that I cannot update sql query against MS ACCESS using C#. Everytime wen i do so, i got an exception (at runtime) as 'UPDATE syntax not correct'. I don find any error in my 'update' syntax.
I can successfully run other dbase operations like insertion, deletion & all.; except Updation.
But, i can successfully run the same update query in the 'sql query tab' of MS ACCESS, and is executed successfully.
Hi im new to SSIS even i did some basice things in SSIS. Now i run in to the problem, I hawe a access file with arount one milion records and i won to transfare this records in Ms SqlServer . But befora i transfare that i nead to check if that record exsist by ID if exsist i must do update else i must do insert. Can some one Help me how can i do it.. THX Sorry for my bad englisht
I just updated MDAC on one of my machines and I'm now having trouble accessing my SQL server. It's a local connection using SQLOLEDB in a VB dll. It was working fine before the update and now I get:
Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Server error '80004005'
[DBNETLIB][ConnectionOpen (Connect()).]SQL Server does not exist or access denied.
/cms25/CMS.asp, line 33
Most of the information I can find on this refers to TCP/IP connections but the SQL server is local. My connect function looks like this:
I have a system that has the tables on an SQL Server with the front-end on a Microsoft access database. They are connected via odbc and the tables are linked to the access front-end. The odbc connects to the sql server via a user created for the purpose that only has rights to this database. This user has rights set so that they can access/alter any data in the database.
When my users try to alter data on some of the linked tables they get "The Microsoft Jet database engine stopped the process because you and another user are attempting to change the same data at the same time." This does not happen to every table only on some of them.
This happens even when there is only one user accessing the system. If I log into the enterprise manager I can alter those tables/ records without any problem (as some articles I’ve read say if the problem is connected to a corrupt record its not possible to then alter that record and sql server should give me an error message instead).
I have tired. - Compact and repairing the access front-end. - Deleting the links in the access front-end then re-linking them. - Copying the objects from the access to a new blank access db. - I have tried altering the account the odbc uses to login to the SA account. - I have asked the server admin to do the 'compact and repair' on the s.q.l server, shrink I believe it is, as some articles suggest this could solve the problem. - The admin has also tried this on the transaction files (so he has told me).
None of this has worked.
I'm stuck. I don't have any training on SQL server (nor will I be able to have any as I gather the training budget may be needed to fill some finance holes). If anyone has any idea of the answer to my problem or could point me in a direction that I could try investigating I would be very grateful. I have asked the admin if it’s anything to do with transactions, he has told me he does not know how to see those but he will try to find out if we can. Am I shooting in the dark or does this sound like a transaction/process locking problem? Is there something I should be looking for?
I am trying to update some SQL-linked tables in my Access database by repoiting the existing linked tables to a new datasource. The problem is, when I go to select the machine data source where the table sits, I get an error message saying the MS Jet Database can't find the object. This is because when Access creates the linked table, it replaces the period in the <schema>.<table_name> with an underscore. So when I go to update the links, it is essentially looking for the new table with the wrong file name.
I have about 80 linked tables to update and I haven't been able to figure a work-around. HELP PLEASE!
I am unable to update a table (either by opening it and entering datadirectly or through a form). I have set the recordsettype property toupdateable snapshot and have set the permissions to update inside ofthe SQL Server 2000 to checked. Unfortunately, these items have notworked. Any advice is appreciated. Thanks.Dave Christman
First off, it has been a few years since I have done extensive work with SQL and that was using Oracle. But I am trying to develop a simple asset database for work, as we have nothing in place. I started out with Access, and decided to move to SQL express for many reasons.
What I have now is that I imported my data from my access 97 database to Excel, only my AssetTable did not import dates, I assume because Access and Sql Express handle dates differently... so a the time I just ignored that column.
Is it possible to insert the dates into the now populated SQL Express database AssetTbl where the AssetID's match? Here is what I have.
Sql Express Database Name: BAMS Table Name: AssetTbl fields: AssetID, SerialNum ...(many other fields)... DateAcq <- currently Null
Excel file: AssetDateAcq.xls fields: AssetID, DateAcq (in format 07/12/2007)
To me it sounds like I need to do a short script/program to loop through the file read an AssetID from the excel file, and the DateAqcuired and then have it do an update on the DateAcq field, but it has been so long since I've done any work with SQL that I am finding there is a lot of "Dust" to blow off, and I don't know if I'm heading down the right track... or completely off course.
I'm having an issue with a CLR Stored procedure. Everything works great in a 32 bit environment, I have a CLR SP that updates an xml file stored on a local drive. When I execute the Stored proc it does go and update what I want it to in a 32 bit system. When I run the CLR SP on a 64 bit cluster, I seem to have give the "everyone" group write permissions to my G: drive (which is where the file is located that I'm updating). What security context is this SP running under? I thought it would be either under the SQL Service account (which is a domain user in the local administrators group) or what I'm logged in as when I run it from Management Studio (which is a domain admin, also in the local administrators group). If I have given the local administrators group "Full Control" access to the G: drive, why isn't this enough? Why do I have to give the Everyone group write access?
The security context seems odd to me, it seems like it's not running as either one of those 2 users I mentioned, because if it was, then it should be able to update the xml file.
Any help appreciated. Here's the error I'm getting:
Msg 6522, Level 16, State 1, Procedure usp_XMLWriter, Line 0
A .NET Framework error occurred during execution of user defined routine or aggregate 'usp_XMLWriter':
System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path 'g:ssisPackagesBuildCalendarandy.dtsConfig' is denied.
System.UnauthorizedAccessException:
at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath)
update xxx_TableName_xxx set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:
update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?
Edit: Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.
2nd Edit: Could it be to do with this linked server setting? Collation Compatible right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine. However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane... (0 row(s) affected) (1 row(s) affected) How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect) (1 row(s) affected) If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it. Thanks
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE( ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL, LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded) VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName) VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded) SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL FROM MYOTHERTABLE
I have recently upgraded to SQL2014 on Win2012. The Access front end program works fine.
But, previously created Excel reports with built in MS Queries now fail with the above error for users with MS 2013. The queries still work for users still using MS 2007.
I also cannot create any new queries and get the same error message. If I log on as myself on the domain to another PC with 2007 installed it works fine, so I don't think it is anything to do with AD groups or permissions.
I've been developing desktop client-server and web apps and have used Access and SQL Server Standard most of the time. I'm looking into using SQL CE, and had a few questions that I can't seem to get a clear picture on:
- The documentation for CE says that it supports 256 simultaneous connections and offers the Isolation levels, Transactions, Locking, etc with a 4GB DB. But most people say that CE is strictly a single-user DB and should not be used as a DB Server. Could CE be extended for use as a multi-user DB Server by creating a custom server such as a .NET Remoting Server hosted through a Windows Service (or any other custom host) on a machine whereby the CE DB would run in-process with this server on the machine which would then be accessed by multiple users from multiple machines?? Clients PCs -> Server PC hosting Remoting Service -> ADO.NET -> SQL CE
- and further more can we use Enterprise Services (Serviced Components) to connect to SQL CE and further extend this model to offer a pure high-quality DB Server? Clients PCs -> Server PC hosting Remoting Service -> Enterprise Services -> ADO.NET -> SQL CE
Seems quite doable to me, but I may be wrong..please let me know either ways
I am currently working with C and SQL Server 2012. My requirement is to Bulk fetch the records and Insert/Update the same in the other table with some business logic? How do i do this?
I'm new to this forum. This 'problem' has occured many times, but I've always found a way around it. I have pages with datagrids, in which a user can edit a certain fields and then update the tables with new data. Lets say when a user edit a Name field and a money field. If he/she left those two fields blank, the table is automatically updated with a <null> (for the name field) and a 0 (for the money field.) Both these columns were set up to allow Null values. Anyone has an idea why they were updated that way? And is there like a standard on how the data types are updated if a field is left blank? Thank you very much.
When i am trying to start our hospital software based on SQL server 2000, it shows Following Error.Search Condition is not valid, (DBNETLIB) Connection Open (connect()). SQL server does not exist or excess denied. Due to Fetch data.I run our software in Windows 8.1, while it smothly runs in previous version of Windows XP and 7.
