Hi Iam trying to do a trigger that everytime I Update a record de date get update too I finally find a trigger close to that, but this trigger update all the dates from all the record of the same table I wonder is there are a way that I can do it by the date of the record, if somebody could help I will really appreciate.
Thi is the trigger that I have so far
Create Trigger Update_Date
on DBO.Company After Update as
Update dbo.Company
Set ActualiizationDate=Getdate()
go
I have a trigger for column eISBNEnteredDate on update or insert changes of eISBN of the table Products2 ( both belong to the same table). The column eISBNEnteredDate can either be added manually along with eISBN value or when only eISBN value is entered it is updated with present date.
The problem I am facing is when I send eISBN along with eISBNEnteredDate the present date is what is getting saved. Upon the same record when a new date is updated the new date is getting saved. Can someone tell me where I am going wrong?
Here is my trigger:
Code Block ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[Products2_eISBNEnteredDate] ON [dbo].[Products2] For Insert, Update As Begin Declare @ProductId int Declare @eISBN Varchar(17) Set @eISBN = '0' If ( Update(eISBN) ) Begin Select @Productid = I.Productid,@eISBN = I.eISBN From Inserted I Left Join Deleted d on I.Productid = D.Productid Left join Products2 P on P.Productid = I.Productid Where (ISNULL(I.eISBN,'') <> ISNULL(D.eISBN,''))
If (IsNull(@eISBN,'') <> '' and IsNull(@eISBN,'') <> '0') Begin Update Products2 Set eISBNEnteredDate = getdate() Where ProductID in (select i.ProductID From Inserted i Left join Deleted d on d.ProductID = i.ProductID Where (i.eISBN is not null or replace(i.eISBN,' ','') != '') --where the new eISBN is not null or blank and (d.eISBN is null or replace(d.eISBN,' ','') = '') --where the old eISBN is null or blank and isnull(i.eISBN,'') != isnull(d.eISBN,'') --where the new eISBN is not equal to the old ISBN13 and d.eISBNEnteredDate is null) End If IsNull(@eISBN,'') = '' and IsNull(@eISBN,'') = '' Begin Update Products2 set eISBNEnteredDate = NULL Where ProductID = @Productid End End End
Database Layout: Database 1 Contains table called “dbo.Users� Users table contains field/column “Username�. Database 2 Contains table called “dbo.aspnet_Users� Aspnet_Users contains field/column “UserName� Problem: Whenever a record’s “Username� field is updated in dbo.Users (Database 1), I need to update the “UserName� field in aspnet_Users (Database 2). How should I write the trigger to accomplish this task? The following trigger is currently_not_ working. :(ALTER TRIGGER [trig_updateUserNameForForum] ON [dbo].[Users] FOR UPDATE AS DECLARE @oldUserName NVARCHAR(256) DECLARE @newUserName NVARCHAR(256) IF UPDATE(Username) BEGIN SELECT @oldUserName = (SELECT Username FROM Deleted) SELECT @newUserName = (SELECT Username FROM Inserted) UPDATE Database2.dbo.aspnet_Users SET Username = @newUsername WHERE UserName = @oldUserName RETURN END Thanks!!! -Cody
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine. However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane... (0 row(s) affected) (1 row(s) affected) How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect) (1 row(s) affected) If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it. Thanks
Hi for all on this...I'm using MS SQL Server 7.0 SP4 in some customers to store some datafrom an aplication developed by me.I created an trigger to run on update.When I run an update command on it's table and the where conditionreturns only one row, the trigger is executed ok, but if wherecondition returns more than one rows, the trigger don't run.I don't know what happens there...If any can help on this, I will be thankfull!Regards!Lucio
I have 2 database servers ( 2 hardware-servers : A and B ) and I ve written a trigger for update in server A to execute insert statement in server B through linked servers, is there other way to achieve this without linked servers?? All using T-SQL.
Are there any limitations or gotchas to updating the same table whichfired a trigger from within the trigger?Some example code below. Hmmm.... This example seems to be workingfine so it must be something with my specific schema/code. We'reworking on running a SQL trace but if anybody has any input, fireaway.Thanks!create table x(Id int,Account varchar(25),Info int)GOinsert into x values ( 1, 'Smith', 15);insert into x values ( 2, 'SmithX', 25);/* Update trigger tu_x for table x */create trigger tu_xon xfor updateasbegindeclare @TriggerRowCount intset @TriggerRowCount = @@ROWCOUNTif ( @TriggerRowCount = 0 )returnif ( @TriggerRowCount > 1 )beginraiserror( 'tu_x: @@ROWCOUNT[%d] Trigger does not handle @@ROWCOUNT[color=blue]> 1 !', 17, 127, @TriggerRowCount) with seterror, nowait[/color]returnendupdate xsetAccount = left( i.Account, 24) + 'X',Info = i.Infofrom deleted, inserted iwhere x.Account = left( deleted.Account, 24) + 'X'endupdate x set Account = 'Blair', Info = 999 where Account = 'Smith'
We have an UPDATE trigger that is failing. This seems like a basic task - we want to write a record to a separate tracking table when our main transaction table is updated for any reason. Our assumption is that we have a reference to the data from the "inserted" record that was just updated. The scenario here is that we are running a batch process which READS several thousand records in our transaction table each evening.
We then mark each individual record as processed on the transaction table and expect that the UPDATE trigger will successfully fire (it is not). The version of our trigger listed below shows our attempt to deal with the fact that TransactionID does NOT exist from "inserted." We also have a version of this trigger that deals with INSERTS - it works flawlessly.
ON [dbo].[FPS_Transaction] AFTER UPDATE AS declare @trxId uniqueidentifier; BEGIN TRY SET NOCOUNT ON
Dear Experts,I'm an Oracle guy, who is being given more SQL Server assignmentslately.I've been looking for things on the web about this, but I can'tanything so far.In Oracle, I you can create a trigger on a table that -only- fires ifcertain fields are updated.create or replace trigger trg_some_triggerBEFORE insertOF some_field1, some_field2on tbl_some_tablefor each row....Is this also possible in SQL Server?What is the syntax please?Thanks a lot!
Hi there,I'm pretty new to SQL and am having some porblems with a linked server.I have a table on a SQL server which stores employee information.I also have a view on a linked server which stores the same information.What I would like to happen is, whenever the view changes on the linkedserver I want the information to be changed in the table on my server.I've been trying to write a trigger to do this, but have had noluck so far.Can anyone help me?ThanksSimon--Posted via http://dbforums.com
We have a database on a 2005 box, which we need to keep in sync with one on a 2014 box (until we can turn off the one on 2005). The 2005 database is still being updated with changes that must be applied to the 2014 database, given the nature of the data (medical documents) we need to ensure updates are applied to the 2014 database in very near real time (these changes are - for example - statuses, not the documents themselves).
Cunning plan #1, ulgy - not at all a fan of triggers - but use an after update trigger to run a sp on the remote box via a linked server in this format, with a SQL Server login for the linked server with permissions to EXEC the remote proc.
CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[SourceUpdate] ON [dbo].[SourceTable] AFTER UPDATE AS SET XACT_ABORT ON; SET NOCOUNT ON; IF UPDATE(ColumnName)
[Code] ....
However, while the sp can be run against the linked server as a standalone query OK, when running it in a trigger it's throwing
OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "WIBBLE" returned message "The transaction manager has disabled its support for remote/network transactions.".
Msg 7391, Level 16, State 2, Procedure TheAfterUpdateTrigger, Line 19
The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "WIBBLE" was unable to begin a distributed transaction.
Whether it actually possible to call a proc on a remote box via a trigger and if so what additional hoops need to be jumped through (like I said, it'll run OK called via SSMS)?
Hi,can someone tell how to write a Trigger; I am familiar with Sybase SqlAnywhere trigger syntax.Actually I have three tables MEMBER, CONTRACT and PAYMENTI need to update the MEMBER.BALANCE once the PAYMENT.AMOUNT is INSERTEDwhere PAYEMENT.CONTRAC_ID = CONTRACT.CONTRAC_IDand CONTRAT.MEMBER_ID = MEMBRE.MEMBER_IDI have more TRIGGERS to write, but with a good example it would be greatIn fact, send me as many examples as you canThanksFernandJoin Bytes!
I am writing a trigger for getting values to auditlog table when the values gets updated. Below is the code of my trigger.
CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[Update_Temp] ON [dbo].[Temptable1] FOR UPDATE AS DECLARE @bit INT , @field INT , @maxfield INT , @char INT , @fieldname VARCHAR(128) , @TableName VARCHAR(128) ,
[Code] ....
The code is working fine when the table has primary key associated. However due to some restrictions I will not be able to have a primary key for some tables. I want to implement the same trigger in those tables too. When there is primary key, that primary key needs to get inserted into the audit table and if there is no primary key, i want a specific column value to get inserted instead of the primary key value into the audit table.
For example, i have a student table in which there is a student id, name, dob. there is no primary key defined for the table. So when i update the name or dob, i need the student id to get inserted into the Pk column of the audit table.
I tried modifying the code by checking the @pkcols for Null and if its null to get the old value as the primary key however I was not able to do it .
Hi -We have two SQL 2000 Servers. We have the linked server setup and wecan perform updates and inserts between the databases. But when we adda trigger and insert something into a table, the database hangs. Thereare NO processes blocking or being block in either database. This ONLYoccurs when we have one OS as Windows 2000 Server and the other OS asWindows 2003 Server. This problem does not occur when both servers areWindows 2000. Has anyone ran into anything similar to this???*** Sent via Developersdex http://www.developersdex.com ***Don't just participate in USENET...get rewarded for it!
Hi All,I'm a relatively newbie to SQL Server 2000, having come from a MySQLbackground.I'm creating my first Trigger statement on a table, and I'd like toknow how I go about performing an update on the row that was changedwhen the trigger was fired.To explain, I have 2 columns, one which contains a member number, theother which contains a flag that is supposed to indicate whether ornot the member number in the row has changed since the last time thetable was processed for updates.So, whenever the value in the member number field [memnum] is updated,I want to set the flag [igproc] to true.The best I've been able to do is:CREATE TRIGGER [updateignoreprocflag] ON [dbo].[dd_testtable]FOR UPDATEASdeclare @key as intIF UPDATE (memnum)select @key = recid from insertedUPDATE dd_testtable set igproc=1 where recid=@keyThis seems to work, but I'd like to know if there's a better way ofretrieving the recid value of the changed row to pass to the UPDATEstatement? Also, I read somewhere in passing that using SELECTstatements and variable assignments within triggers can cause problemswhen called from other applications; in this case it will either be aweb site using ASP.or an application developed in FOXPRO. I can't findwhere I read this originally, so it's entirely possible I imagined itor misunderstood it, but I'd very much appreciate it if someone couldconfirm whether or not this is the case?Many, many thanks in advance!Much warmth,Murray
1 . Can write more than one trigger for a single table(sql server 2000)?
2. how to create the editable gridview? While clicking particular cell it should be changed to Edit mode , and I want option for creating new row and delete option, search option
I want to retrieve the last update time of database. Whenever any update or delete or insert happend to my database i want to store and retrieve that time.
I know one way is that i have to make a table that will store the datetime field and system trigger / trigger that can update this field record whenever any update insert or deletion occur in database.
But i don't know exactly how to do the coding for this?
I have a table where table row gets updated multiple times(each column will be filled) based on telephone call in data.  Initially, I have implemented after insert trigger on ROW level thinking that the whole row is inserted into table will all column values at a time. But the issue is all columns are values are not filled at once, but observed that while telephone call in data, there are multiple updates to the row (i.e multiple updates in the sense - column data in row is updated step by step),
I thought to implement after update trigger , but when it comes to the performance will be decreased for each and every hit while row update.
I need to implement after update trigger that should be fired on column level instead of Row level to improve the performance?
I do not insert/update/delete on the view directly.
For every insert/update in table A /B the values should get insert/update in the view respectively. This insert/update on view should invoke the trigger.
And I am unable to see this trigger work on the view if any insert/update occurs on base table level.
Trigger is working only if any operation is done directly on the view.
Hi, I am not sure if this is the right forum to post this question. I run an update statement like "Update mytable set status='S' " on the SQL 2005 management Studio. When I run "select * from mytable" for a few seconds all status = "S". After a few seconds all status turn to "H". This is a behaviour when you have an update trigger for the table. But I don't see any triggers under this table. What else would cause the database automatically change my update? Could there be any other place I should look for an update trigger on this table? Thanks,
I am trying to update my table Members in my SQL server database "Portfolio".
When I click the button, It throws an exception with the following message: "String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated."
I have two tables in an inner join. I'm detailing the tables with some of their fields below. These tables are in a database I'm creating to manage backup tapes. Most importantly, this database will inform me when backup tapes which have already been used can be recycled (e.g. after all the jobs on the tape are over 28 days old). I want to write something which will look at each tape in turn and, if all related backup jobs on that tape are aged, the tape status will be changed from Active to Spare.
Tapes --TapeNo --Status (Spare / Assigned)
Jobs --JobNo --Name --Description --TapeNo --AgedJob (BIT field indicating whether or not the job has aged)
Each tape can have 0, 1 or many jobs and each job can be on more than one tape.
Anyway, I have the tables and relationsips set up and they're ok. Again, what I'm struggling with is how I take each tape and look at all its jobs and, if all have aged, change the Status for the tape to Spare. I'm using SQL Server 2000 (Access 2003 as front end) and am pretty new to SQL. I was thinking this could be done by using some kind of update query and subquery, but I'm stumped. Could someone please help ?
I have two tables:T1 : Key as bigint, Data as char(20) - size: 61M recordsT2 : Key as bigint, Data as char(20) - size: 5M recordsT2 is the smaller, with 5 million records.They both have clustered indexes on Key.I want to do:update T1 set Data = T2.Datafrom T2where T2.Key = T1.KeyThe goal is to match Key values, and only update the data field of T1if they match. SQL server seems to optimize this query fairly well,doing an inner merge join on the Key fields, however, it then does aHash match to get the data fields and this is taking FOREVER. Ittakes something like 40 mins to do the above query, where it seems tome, the data could be updated much more efficiently. I would expectto see just a merge and update, like I would see in the followingquery:update T1 set Data = [someconstantdata]from T2where T2.Key = T1.Key and T2.Data = [someconstantdata]The above works VERY quickly, and if I were to perform the above query5 mil times(assuming that my data is completely unique in T2 and Iwould need to) it would finish very quickly, much sooner than theprevious query. Why won't SQL server just match these up while it ismerging the data and update in one step? Can I make it do this? If Iextracted the data in sorted order into a flat file, I could write aprogram in ten minutes to merge the two tables, and update in onestep, and it would fly through this, but I imagine that SQL server iscapable of doing it, and I am just missing it.Any advice would be GREATLY appreciated!
I have an update trigger which fires from a transactiion table to update a parent record in another table. I am getting no errors, but also no update. Any help appreciated (see script below)
create trigger tr_cmsUpdt_meds on dbo.medisp for UPDATE as
if update(pstat) begin update med set REC_FLAG = 2 from deleted dt where med.uniq_id = dt.uniq_id and dt.pstat = 2 and dt.spec_flag = 'kop' end
I am trying to update a fields with an UPDATE statement but I keep getting the error message when I run the query.
Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression.
I have this Update trigger that I know is causing the error message because I guess it's not built to manage multi-row updates.
Can someone help me re-write it. I also tried using the WHERE p.ID = p.ID but when I do that it modifies all rows in the modifieddate column instead of just the cells/rows that I'm updating
ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[MultitrigCA] ON [dbo].[ProdDesc] AFTER UPDATE AS
SET NOCOUNT ON
IF UPDATE (codeabbreviation) UPDATE p sET p.ModifiedDate = GETDATE() FROM ProdDesc AS p WHERE p.ID = (SELECT ID FROM inserted)
Hi there,I'm a little stuck and would like some helpI need to create an update trigger which will run an update query onanother table.However, What I need to do is update the other table with the changedrecord value from the table which has the trigger.Can someone please show me how this is done please??I can write both queries, but am unsure as to how to get the value ofthe changed record for use in my trigger???Please helpM3ckon*** Sent via Developersdex http://www.developersdex.com ***Don't just participate in USENET...get rewarded for it!
i have a database with about 20 tables. i appended to each table a column "UpdatedOn", and i want to write a trigger to set the date of the update date in that column, using a trigger.
i want to avoid the trigger launching for the last column (UpdatedOn).
how can i detect the rows that changed, and modify only the update date/time? i read something about TableName_Inserted and TableName_Deleted, but i would prefer to copy as generic as possible the data from there, meaning, not to write column names in my script.
another idea i thought about was to prevent the trigger executing if no other column except for UpdatedOn changed, but... i encounter some trouble, when i try to pass column name (as string) to UPDATE() function.(Error: Expecting ID or QUOTED_ID)
Hi,I have an application that's running fine on development servers (weband database-sql server 2000). I'm updating a record through a thirdparty component but I don't think the component is the problem. What'shappening is that I'm updating fields that are part of view. I'm onlyupdating fields in one table of the view and this works fine in thedevelopment environment.What happens in the production environment when I try to update(using the third party component) I get the following message:"Current recordset does not support updating. This may be a limitationof the provider or of the selected locktype."As an experiment I took the same code but removed the view, leavingonly the table I want to update as the record source. In that case theupdate worked. So it seems that something in the production databasedoesn't like me updating a view. However I can do that in the databasein the development environment.The third party component is dbnetgrid which works fine in thedevelopment environment. I can only conclude it's something about thedatabase that prevents me from updating this same table if it's in aview. I've talked to our DBA but he says there's no difference betweenthe databases. Any ideas would be appreciated.Neil
Hi allWe had a small problem when an ASP web page had a missing 'where' statementand updated all the records in the table. Luckily we could retrieve all thedata from the backups.How do you guys prevent this from happening in your large systems. Is theresome teqnique for controlling this, I would imagine if you had thousands ofrecords in a table and some one made a programming error, then theconsequences would be disastrous.is there a setting within SQL Server that could force SQL update commands tobe limited to a criteria and if no criteria is supplied then reject thecommandthanks in advanceAndy
Hi, How can i store the record insert/update timestamp in a SQL server 2000 db programacally. ? what are the date/time functions in ASP.NET 2.0 ? I know that this can be done by setting the default valut to getdate() function in SQL, but any other way on ASP page or code-behind page ???
I have current current sql server 2000 database containing some columns in big5. To display these cols correctly, my asp.net nust have directive with CodePage="1252" ContentType="text/html;charset=BIG5". I can not update, or insert big5 character into these columns via .aspx page. I'm using .net framework 2.0. Please help me, thanks a lot for any help.
