In one of my tables I hold information on users. The unique identifier for each user is their email address. If someone wished to update there email address, how would I go about changing the email address in the database??
Since other tables also use the email address as a foreign key, how would I go about updating all instances of the email address??
The table has 4 primary keys. I have to update it. Thank you in advance
View 2 Replies View RelatedI discovered the cause:
in SQL Server Enterprise Manager, open up db tree, right click the table, go - 'design' and set 'Identity' to yes.
I am working on a project to consolidate 3 distinct buildings name code(6 digit character called BUILDING_CODE Primary Key) into one building code. This is an effort to merge/move everyone who is currently coded under the three building codes into one building code. We currently have this column defined on 5 tables as primary key (none identity) in SQL Server 2005.
Out of the five tables one has two store procedure dependencies.
What would be the best practice to update the six digit BULDING_CODE column Primary Key value without causing any issues?
i have 2 tables. Table a and Table b. i need to insert only the new records from Table a to Table B
how do you update table B where the primary key is 4 columns.
solved.!
since ten years perhpas the society has a database with some table (person, country, and so on)since last years , the project manager decides to create a new database with some new design because before some information was save in one table well, the problem is when we pass all application to the new model we've notice that some id are not the same !
sample :
table Language old model
-------------------------
id frenchDescription english description
----------------------------------------
3 Anglais English
.....
......
table Language new model
id frenchDescription english description
-----------------------------------------
5 Anglais English
.....
.....
Alright , you can understand that the new model must be the same id => 3
my question is how to modify id on the table ?
I have two tables:
tbl_Vehicles (primary table)
tbl_DealerFeed_temp (temporary table)
I load values from a TXT file into the temporary table. From there, I figure out which records are new and need to be added to the primary table, and which records are duplicates, and need to a) update the primary table and b) be deleted from the temporary table.Basically, I need to write a SQL statement to grab the records that exist in BOTH tables based upon two primary criteria:
d_id in temporary table = d_id in primary table
df_t_v_stock_number in temporary table = v_stock_number in primary table
There are several fields that must be updated if the d_id and v_stock_number match:
v_price
v_internet_price
v_other_price
v_mileage
Hi ,
We have scenario like this .the source table have composite primary key columns c1,c2,c3,c4.c5,c6 .when we move the records to destination .we have to check columns (c1+ c2 + c3 + c4 + c5 + c6) combination exist in the destination. if the combination exist then we should do a update else we need to do a Insert . how to achive this .we have tryed useing conditional split which is working only for a single Primary key . can any one help us .
Jegan.T
Hi guys,I followed the ASP.net official tutorial to create a DAL & Business Logic Layer (http://www.asp.net/learn/dataaccess/tutorial02cs.aspx). I have a table with a int ID field. I wish to write a function to add a new entry into this table but have the ID field auto-increment.The ID field is set as the Identity Column and has a Identity Increment & Seed of "1". If I manually go to the table and insert a new record leaving the ID value null it automatically increments. But if I create a C# function to add a new entry I get an error saying that the ID field can't be Null. Is there any way to use the Update method as shown on line 14 below to add a new entry but with it automatically incrementing? I did create a function called InsertDevice that simply inserts the other fields using a SQL INSERT and it auto-increments fine, just wondering if there is a way to do it using the DataTable and the Update method? Thanks for any help!!! 1 public bool AddDevice(string make, string model)
2 {
3 //cannot have the same device entered twice!
4 if (Adapter.FillDeviceCountByMakeModel(make, model) == 1)
5 return false;
6
7 RepositoryDataSet.DevicesDataTable devices = new RepositoryDataSet.DevicesDataTable();
8 RepositoryDataSet.DevicesRow device = devices.NewDevicesRow();
9
10 device.make = make;
11 device.model = model;
12
13 devices.AddDevicesRow(device); << Error thrown Here!
14 int rows_affected = Adapter.Update(devices);
15
16 return rows_affected == 1;
17 }
Heys
a while back i had to do a project with an access database, one of the biggest problems i had back then was gettting the primary key
of a datarow you had just inserted into the database.
After a long set of trial and error i came up with the following:
- add the tablemappings of a table
- call the dataadapte.fillschema method
then after inserting a new row into the database the primary key gets filled in automatically!
now thing is
i was hoping to duplicate this in sql server
but it doesn't seem to work at all
so after i insert a row into my datatable
and update it
the row is in the database
but in vb the datarow primary key is not filled in!
anyone have an idea?
prefereabely one that does not resort to stored procedures with return parameters etc
thx a million in advance!
Hello,
Anyone know how to create an update trigger where the primary key isn't fixed.
If the primary key change how can I tie together the Deleted and Inserted tables if more than one row is updated?
/Patrik
I am writing a trigger for getting values to auditlog table when the values gets updated. Below is the code of my trigger.
CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[Update_Temp] ON [dbo].[Temptable1] FOR UPDATE
AS
DECLARE @bit INT ,
@field INT ,
@maxfield INT ,
@char INT ,
@fieldname VARCHAR(128) ,
@TableName VARCHAR(128) ,
[Code] ....
The code is working fine when the table has primary key associated. However due to some restrictions I will not be able to have a primary key for some tables. I want to implement the same trigger in those tables too. When there is primary key, that primary key needs to get inserted into the audit table and if there is no primary key, i want a specific column value to get inserted instead of the primary key value into the audit table.
For example, i have a student table in which there is a student id, name, dob. there is no primary key defined for the table. So when i update the name or dob, i need the student id to get inserted into the Pk column of the audit table.
I tried modifying the code by checking the @pkcols for Null and if its null to get the old value as the primary key however I was not able to do it .
I am getting the below error message while performing Bulk Insert/Update operation.
Could not allocate space for object 'dbo.pros_mas_det'.'PK__pros_mas__3213E83F22401542' in database 'admin_mbjobslive' because the 'PRIMARY' filegroup is full. Create disk space by deleting unneeded files, dropping objects in the filegroup, adding additional files to the filegroup, or setting autogrowth on for existing files in the filegroup.
My Current SQL Server version :
Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 (RTM) - 10.50.1600.1 (X64) Apr 2 2010 15:48:46 Copyright (c) Microsoft Corporation Express Edition with Advanced Services (64-bit) on Windows NT 6.1 <X64> (Build 7601: Service Pack 1) (Hypervisor)
My current database size crossed the limit size of 10 GB.
I need to search for such SPs in my database in which the queries for update a table contains where clause which uses non primary key while updating rows in table.
If employee table have empId as primary key and an Update query is using empName in where clause to update employee record then such SP should be listed. so there would be hundreds of tables with their primary key and thousands of SPs in a database. How can I find them where the "where" clause is using some other column than its primary key.
If there is any other hint or query to identify such queries that lock tables, I only found the above few queries that are not using primary key in where clause.
Hi All,I have a database that is serving a web site with reasonably hightraffiic.We're getting errors at certain points where processes are beinglocked. In particular, one of our people has suggested that an updatestatement contained within a stored procedure that uses a wherecondition that only touches on a column that has a clustered primaryindex on it will still cause a table lock.So, for example:UPDATE ORDERS SETprod = @product,val = @valWHERE ordid = @ordidIn this case ordid has a clustered primary index on it.Can anyone tell me if this would be the case, and if there's a way ofensuring that we are only doing a row lock on the record specified inthe where condition?Many, many thanks in advance!Much warmth,Murray
View 1 Replies View RelatedUma writes "Hi Dear,
I have A Table , Which Primary key consists of 6 columns.
total Number of Columns in the table are 16. Now i Want to Convert my Composite Primary key into simple primary key.there are already 2200 records in the table and no referential integrity (foriegn key ) exist.
may i convert Composite Primary key into simple primary key in thr table like this.
Thanks,
Uma"
Hi all,
Can anyone suggest me on Adding primary key to a table which has already a primary key.
Thanks,
Jeyam
Hi,
I have recently been looking at a database and wondered if anyone can tell me what the advantages are supporting a unique collumn, which can essentially be seen as the primary key, with an identity seed integer primary key.
For example:
id [unique integer auto incremented primary key - not null],
ClientCode [unique index varchar - not null],
name [varchar null],
surname [varchar null]
isn't it just better to use ClientCode as the primary key straight of because when one references the above table, it can be done easier with the ClientCode since you dont have to do a lookup on the ClientCode everytime.
Regards
Mike
We have a table, which has one clustered index and one non clustered index(primary key). I want to drop the existing clustered index and make the primary key as clustered. Is there any easy way to do that. Will Drop_Existing support on this matter?
View 2 Replies View RelatedHi all
I have the following table
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[property_instance] (
[property_instance_id] [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL ,
[application_id] [int] NOT NULL ,
[owner_id] [nvarchar] (100) NOT NULL ,
[property_id] [int] NOT NULL ,
[owner_type_id] [int] NOT NULL ,
[property_value] [ntext] NOT NULL ,
[date_created] [datetime] NOT NULL ,
[date_modified] [datetime] NULL
)
I have created an 'artificial' primary key, property_instance_id. The 'true' primary key is application_id, owner_id, property_id and owner_type_id
In this specific instance
- property_instance_id will never be a foreign key into another table
- queries will generally use application_id, owner_id, property_id and owner_type_id in the WHERE clause when searching for a particular row
- Once inserted, none of the application_id, owner_id, property_id or owner_type_id columns will ever be modified
I generally like to create artificial primary keys whenever the primary key would otherwise consist of more than 2 columns.
What do people think the advantages and disadvantages of each technique are? Do you recommend I go with the existing model, or should I remove the artificial primary key column and just go with a 4 column primary key for this table?
Thanks Matt
What's up with this?
This takes like 0 secs to complete:
update xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:
update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159
where enc_id in
('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',
'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',
'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')
What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?
Edit:
Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.
2nd Edit:
Could it be to do with this linked server setting?
Collation Compatible
right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.
I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000. I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process. Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue. In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine.
However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically). When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane...
(0 row(s) affected)
(1 row(s) affected)
How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense. There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect)
(1 row(s) affected)
If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it.
Thanks
Hi SQL fans,I realized that I often encounter the same situation in a relationdatabase context, where I really don't know what to do. Here is anexample, where I have 2 tables as follow:__________________________________________ | PortfolioTitle|| Portfolio |+----------------------------------------++-----------------------------+ | tfolio_id (int)|| folio_id (int) |<<-PK----FK--| tfolio_idfolio (int)|| folio_name (varchar) | | tfolio_idtitle (int)|--FK----PK->>[ Titles]+-----------------------------+ | tfolio_weight(decimal(6,5)) |+-----------------------------------------+Note that I also have a "Titles" tables (hence the tfolio_idtitlelink).My problem is : When I update a portfolio, I must update all theassociated titles in it. That means that titles can be either removedfrom the portfolio (a folio does not support the title anymore), addedto it (a new title is supported by the folio) or simply updated (atitle stays in the portfolio, but has its weight changed)For example, if the portfolio #2 would contain :[ PortfolioTitle ]id | idFolio | idTitre | poids1 2 1 102 2 2 203 2 3 30and I must update the PortfolioTitle based on these values :idFolio | idTitre | poids2 2 202 3 352 4 40then I should1 ) remove the title #1 from the folio by deleting its entry in thePortfolioTitle table2 ) update the title #2 (weight from 30 to 35)3 ) add the title #4 to the folioFor now, the only way I've found to do this is delete all the entriesof the related folio (e.g.: DELETE TitrePortefeuille WHERE idFolio =2), and then insert new values for each entry based on the new givenvalues.Is there a way to better manage this by detecting which value has to beinserted/updated/deleted?And this applies to many situation :(If you need other examples, I can give you.thanks a lot!ibiza
View 8 Replies View RelatedThe Folowing code is not working anymore. (500 error)
Set objRS = strSQL1.Execute
strSQL1 = "SELECT * FROM BannerRotor where BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID)
objRS.Open strSQL1, objConn , 2 , 3 , adCmdText
If not (objRS.BOF and objRS.EOF) Then
objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value =objRS.Fields("Exposures").Value + 1
objRS.update
End If
objRS.Close
The .execute Method works fine
strSQL1 = "UPDATE BannerRotor SET Exposures=Exposures+1 WHERE BannerID=" & cstr(BannerID)
objConn.Execute strSQL1
W2003 + IIS6.0
Pls advice?
If I have a table with 1 or more Nullable fields and I want to make sure that when an INSERT or UPDATE occurs and one or more of these fields are left to NULL either explicitly or implicitly is there I can set these to non-null values without interfering with the INSERT or UPDATE in as far as the other fields in the table?
EXAMPLE:
CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE(
ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
[Code] ....
If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName)
VALUES('John','Smith')
INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL
FROM MYOTHERTABLE
hi need help how to send an email from database mail on row update
from stored PROCEDURE multi update
but i need to send a personal email evry employee get an email on row update
like send one after one email
i use FUNCTION i get on this forum to use split from multi update
how to loop for evry update send an single eamil to evry employee ID send one email
i update like this
Code Snippet
:
DECLARE @id nvarchar(1000)
set @id= '16703, 16704, 16757, 16924, 17041, 17077, 17084, 17103, 17129, 17134, 17186, 17190, 17203, 17205, 17289, 17294, 17295, 17296, 17309, 17316, 17317, 17322, 17325, 17337, 17338, 17339, 17348, 17349, 17350, 17357, 17360, 17361, 17362, 17366, 17367, 17370, 17372, 17373, 17374, 17377, 17380, 17382, 17383, 17385, 17386, 17391, 17392, 17393, 17394, 17395, 17396, 17397, 17398, 17400, 17401, 17402, 17407, 17408, 17409, 17410, 17411, 17412, 17413, 17414, 17415, 17417, 17418, 17419, 17420, 17422, 17423, 17424, 17425, 17426, 17427, 17428, 17430, 17431, 17432, 17442, 17443, 17444, 17447, 17448, 17449, 17450, 17451'
UPDATE s SET fld5 = 2
FROM Snha s
JOIN dbo.udf_SplitList(@id, ',') split
ON split.value = s.na
WHERE fld5 = 3
now
how to send an EMAIL for evry ROW update but "personal email" to the employee
Code Snippet
DECLARE @xml NVARCHAR(MAX)DECLARE @body NVARCHAR(MAX)
SET @xml =CAST(( SELECT
FirstName AS 'td','',
LastName AS 'td','' ,
SET @body = @body + @xml +'</table></body></html>'
EXEC msdb.dbo.sp_send_dbmail
@recipients =''
@copy_recipients='www@iec.com',
@body = @body,
@body_format ='HTML',
@subject ='test',
@profile_name ='bob'
END
ELSE
print 'no email today'
TNX
Hello,I am trying to update records in my database from excel data using vbaeditor within excel.In order to launch a query, I use SQL langage in ADO as follwing:------------------------------------------------------------Dim adoConn As ADODB.ConnectionDim adoRs As ADODB.RecordsetDim sConn As StringDim sSql As StringDim sOutput As StringsConn = "DSN=MS Access Database;" & _"DBQ=MyDatabasePath;" & _"DefaultDir=MyPathDirectory;" & _"DriverId=25;FIL=MS Access;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;" &_"PWD=xxxxxx;UID=admin;"ID, A, B C.. are my table fieldssSql = "SELECT ID, `A`, B, `C being a date`, D, E, `F`, `H`, I, J,`K`, L" & _" FROM MyTblName" & _" WHERE (`A`='MyA')" & _" AND (`C`>{ts '" & Format(Date, "yyyy-mm-dd hh:mm:ss") & "'})"& _" ORDER BY `C` DESC"Set adoConn = New ADODB.ConnectionadoConn.Open sConnSet adoRs = New ADODB.RecordsetadoRs.Open Source:=sSql, _ActiveConnection:=adoConnadoRs.MoveFirstSheets("Sheet1").Range("a2").CopyFromRecordset adoRsSet adoRs = NothingSet adoConn = Nothing---------------------------------------------------------------Does Anyone know How I can use the UPDATE, DELETE INSERT SQL statementsin this environement? Copying SQL statements from access does not workas I would have to reference Access Object in my project which I do notwant if I can avoid. Ideally I would like to use only ADO system andSQL approach.Thank you very muchNono
View 1 Replies View RelatedIt appears to update only the first qualifying row. The trace shows a row count of one when there are multiple qualifying rows in the table. This problem does not exist in JDBC 2000.
View 5 Replies View RelatedI'm having a strange problem that I can't figure out. I have an SQL stored procedure that updates a small database table. When testing the Stored Procedure from the Server Explorer, it works fine. However, when I run the C# code that's supposed to use it, the data doesn't get saved. The C# code seems to run correctly and the parameters that are passed to the SP seem to be okay. No exceptions are thrown.
The C# code:
SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["touristsConnectionString"].ConnectionString);
SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("fort_SaveRedirectURL", conn);
cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure;
Label accomIdLabel = (Label)DetailsView1.FindControl("lblID");
int accomId = Convert.ToInt32(accomIdLabel.Text);
cmd.Parameters.Add("@accomId", SqlDbType.Int).Value = accomId;
cmd.Parameters.Add("@path", SqlDbType.VarChar, 250).Value = GeneratePath();
try
{
conn.Open();
cmd.ExecuteNonQuery();
}
catch(Exception ex)
{
throw ex;
}
finally
{
conn.Close();
}
The Stored Procedure:
ALTER PROCEDURE developers.fort_SaveRedirectURL
(
@accomId int,
@path varchar(250)
)
AS
DECLARE
@enabled bit,
@oldpath varchar(250)
/* Ensure that the accommodation has been enabled */
SELECT @enabled = enabled FROM Experimental_Accommodation
WHERE Experimental_Accommodation.id = @accomId
IF (@enabled = 1)
BEGIN
/* Now check if a path already exists */
SELECT @oldpath = oldpath FROM Experimental_Adpages_Redirect
WHERE Experimental_Adpages_Redirect.accom_id = @accomId
IF @oldpath IS NULL
BEGIN
/* If Path already exists then we should keep the existing URL */
/* Otherwise, we need to insert a new one */
INSERT INTO Experimental_Adpages_Redirect
(oldpath, accom_id)
VALUES (@path,@accomId)
END
END
RETURN
I'm new to this forum.
This 'problem' has occured many times, but I've always found a way around it.
I have pages with datagrids, in which a user can edit a certain fields and then update the tables with new data. Lets say when a user edit a Name field and a money field. If he/she left those two fields blank, the table is automatically updated with a <null> (for the name field) and a 0 (for the money field.) Both these columns were set up to allow Null values.
Anyone has an idea why they were updated that way? And is there like a standard on how the data types are updated if a field is left blank?
Thank you very much.
hi,friends
we show record from multiple table using single 'selectcommand'.
like....
---------
select *
from cust_detail,vend_detail
---------
i want to insert value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'insert command'.
is it possible?
give any idea or solution.
i want to update value in multiple database table(more than one) using single 'update command'
i want to delete value in multiple database table(more than one) using singl 'delete command'
it is possible?
give any idea or solution.
it's urgent.
thanks in advance.
I do realize that his could be posted in a few spots but I think the answer is in the SQL.
I have a ASP.NET page, with a SqlDataSource, Text Box and Calendar Controls. I have the textbox and calendar controls eval'ed to the same sql data source DateTime Field. The text box is formatted eval to small time and the calendars eval has no formatting.
ex:
<asp:TextBox ID="START_TIME" Text='<%# Eval("EVENT_START","{0:t}") %>' runat=server Width=200></asp:TextBox>
I want to merge the two controls; one has the date the other has the time when I update the pages data to the SqlDataSource field EVENT_START. I've tried a couple of methods, but I would like some other opinions. As Sql server only supports date and time together I am storing the two together.
I could merge the two together in the code behind on the update button's event handler or merge the two during the update query using parameters.
Not that I could get an illegal date for the calendar control, but I could get garbage from the textfield time. So I still would have to do validation on the text field before the SQL server could do the update.
There's a few ways to go about this, so I was wondering if anyone else has figured out an elegant way to handle it.
wbochar
I want to update two tables in one page. So I created two FormView bound on two SqlDataSource controls, and I create a Update button on the bottom of page. And I writen some codes as below:
btnUpate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e){
sqlDataSource1.Update();
sqlDateSource2.Update();}
But, the records haven't updated.
In SqlDataSource2_Updating() function, I found all the parameters is null.
So, how to modify my code to do it.
Zhang