I have a sproc called usp_validTicker that will take 2 parameters: ticker and date. It will return the valid ticker for that date.
I like to have the sproc going through each ticker in the table and return the valid tickers.
For example
exec usp_validTicker 'AAB-Bank','2008-6-10' will return 'AAB' and my final table will be
This Table is updated as users rate forum threads.
Then I have Table_B which should display the some info in a Gridview Table_B has 3 fields: Name, ID and Score
I want the Rating from Table_A to update to Table_B's Score Field.
I suppose I should write a sproc to do this, but I am not quite sure how; This is what I would like the sproc to do...
Update Table_B SET Score = Table_A.Rating WHERE ID = Table_A.ThreadID
Any help on this...or is there a should I not use a sproc. Also...how do I get the sproc to update the table automatically (without me running the sproc manually)?
Hi,I have table with three columns as belowtable name:expNo(int) name(char) refno(int)I have data as belowNo name refno1 a2 b3 cI need to update the refno with no values I write a query as belowupdate exp set refno=(select no from exp)when i run the query i got error asSubquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when thesubquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used asan expression.I need to update one colum with other column value.What is the correct query for this ?Thanks,Mani
I am trying to use a stored procedure to update a column in a sql table using the value from a variable table I getting errors because my syntax is not correct. I think table aliases are not allowed in UPDATE statements.
This is my statement:
UPDATE [dbo].[sessions_teams] stc SET stc.[Talks] = fmt.found_talks_type FROM @Find_Missing_Talks fmt WHERE stc.sessionid IN (SELECT sessionid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks) AND stc.coupleid IN (SELECT coupleid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks)
Here is a query which updates certain values. GetAddress is another sproc which returns addrId. I have to pass certain values ie strAddress1 strCity .....intZip4 values in the sproc GetAddress and execute the update query. In doing so it says GetAddress in not a recognized function name. Is the syntax correct to exec sproc GetAddress.
update Persons set Persons.strLastName=H.strLastName, Persons.strNameSuffix=H.strNameSuffix, Persons.lngHomeID= GetAddress (H.strAddress1,strAddress2,H.strCity,H.strState,H. strZip,H.intZip4), Persons.lngMailID= GetAddress(H.strAddress1,strAddress2,H.strCity,H.s trState,H.strZip,H.intZip4) from ALSHeadr H where Persons.lngSSN=H.lngFedTaxID
FYI I can post GetAddress sproc but it is working properl. I just want to know how to pass the values in ALSHeadr table into the sproc.
Does anyone know the system tables I need to query to produce a report of stored procedures (SQL 2005) that had any changes made to them in a user-specified date range?
In SQL 2005, I saw the canned database reports, but this one didn't exist. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
Need to update one table with value of a column in another table plus a constant:
UPDATE TABLE_A SET TABLE_A.COLA=TABLE_B.COLB+'10' FROM TABLE_A INNER JOIN TABLE_B ON TABLE_A.COLA=TABLE_B.COLA WHERE TABLE_A.COLA=TABLE_B.COLA
The above statement works except the concatenated string has space between TABLE_B.COLB text and '10'. How to remove the space (4 characters) so that the string shows as one word 'TABLE_B.COLB10'?
Hi, I have two tables. I want to update two columns in my first table,[ADD_BSL_SALES] and [ADD_BSL_COST] with two values [Sales] and[Costs] held in my #temp table but based on a RUN_DATE from my firsttable.Can anyone point me in the right direction?Thanks in Advance ï?ŠBryanCREATE TABLE [GROSMARG_AUDIT_ADDITION] ([RUN_DATE] [datetime] NULL ,[SALES_DIFF] [numeric](19, 6) NULL ,[COST_DIFF] [numeric](19, 6) NULL ,[ADD_BSL_SALES] [numeric](18, 0) NULL ,[ADD_BSL_COST] [numeric](18, 0) NULL ,[ADD_SALES_DIFF] [numeric](18, 0) NULL ,[ADD_COST_DIFF] [numeric](18, 0) NULL) ON [PRIMARY]GOINSERT RUN_DATE,datetime,INSERT SALES_DIFF,numeric(19,6),INSERT COST_DIFF,numeric(19,6)INSERT ADD_BSL_SALES,numeric(18,0),INSERT ADD_BSL_COST,numeric(18,0),INSERT ADD_SALES_DIFF,numeric(18,0)INSERT ADD_COST_DIFF,numeric(18,0)--- Second TableCREATE TABLE #DUPTOTALS[Sales][Costs]
I need to update a table by copying a column from another table(having the samestructure, but on another database), from the record having the sameprimary key.1 - What is the correct query?2 - I tried copying them record by record, but the datatype is ntext,(it displays <longtext> in the result pane), and trying to update it results in thefollowing errormessage:The text, ntext, and image data types are invalid in this subquery oraggregateexpression.I tried variations of the following:UPDATE TABLESET column0 = (SELECTcolumn0FROManotherDB.dbo.TABLEWHEREanotherDB.dbo.TABLE.column1 = column1)WHEREanotherDB.dbo.TABLE.column1 = column1
Is it possible to update from one table to another?Pls examine my code here: UPDATE tStaffDir SET tStaffDir.ft_prevemp = ISNULL(tStaffDir_PrevEmp.PrevEmp01, ' ') + ' ' + ISNULL(tStaffDir_PrevEmp.PrevEmp02, ' ') + ' ' + ISNULL(tStaffDir_PrevEmp.PrevEmp03, ' ') + ' ' + ISNULL(tStaffDir_PrevEmp.PrevEmp04, ' ') + ' ' + ISNULL(tStaffDir_PrevEmp.PrevEmp05, ' ') Where tStaffDir_PrevEmp.ID=tStaffDir.ID I am trying to concatenate the columns from tStaffDir_PrevEmp to tStaffDir but I have this error where tStaffDir_PrevEmp is recognised as a column and not a table. Pls advise how this can be done. Many Thanks.
I have a table wherein I have to update a particular column (receipt code) based on another column of the same table (receipt number). i have to do calculations in order to generate the correct receipt code, and i have to do this on every row of the table. how can i do this? will this update be in a loop or something?
I am trying to remove a user from Reporting Services via code. I have found that the way to do this is to remove their details from an XML field in the table SecData
Hello all, was wondering if you could point me in the right direction for this.
I have a db with a column classifications, and in that column are 'Accountants - (1234)' 'Book-keepers - (18) etc etc. Now what I want to do is remove the - (xxxx) section and obviously the white space, so I am just left with 'Accountants' 'Book-keepers' etc.
1. Is there an easy way to do this?
Ok so my thoughts were create a another table and put the ammended classifications in that to update the first table. Your probably asking why not just do it on the first table...Answer. There are over 150,000 records to change.
So I now have my first table with column classification and my second table with the correct classification ammendments.
I can sit down and manually type
UPDATE table1 SET classifications = 'Accountants' Where classifications = 'Accounts - (xxxx)'
until i have completed the entire list in table 2 but I was hoping you good people would know a way to work through the list so it would automatically update each classification correctly.
The problem I have here is I dont know how to work through table 2 and match it to something in table 1 and update it.
I am quite new in SSIS and I have a question. I don't know what is the best way to get it work...
So simply I have in my SQL Server database 2 tables :
First table "SER" fields SER_ID SER_IS_CHANGE_RELATED
where I have only the field SER_ID filled like SER_ID SER_IS_CHANGE_RELATED 1234 NULL 1235 NULL 1236 NULL
Second table "SRE" fields SRE_ID SRE_SER_ID SRE_CHA_ID and the content would be for example SRE_ID SRE_SER_ID SRE_CHA_ID 1 1234 2345 2 1234 2346 3 1236 2347
The 2 tables are related by the fields : SER_ID = SRE_SER_ID
So I would like to have the following result in my table "SER": SER_ID SER_IS_CHANGE_RELATED 1234 True 1235 NULL 1236 True
"True" because one or more entry is present in table "SRE" for each SER_ID (= SRE_SER_ID)
How do I update a table's column, with the values of another tables column where the primary key between is Part_Number? table2 = temp_table Update Actuator_Components Set Scanned_Drawings = table2.Scanned_Drawings
This should be easy for someone, but I just can't seem to find a sample to do this.....I have created a table...CREATE TABLE dbo.test ( oId int NOT NULL UNIQUE, test1 varchar(50) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY )Now, I need to go back and simply add another column to the table such as test2 varchar(50)Not sure if the insert is the way to go and been playing around with various statements but with no luck.Suggestions?Thanks all,Zath
Hifor MS SQL 2000/2005I am having a table (an old database, not mine) with char value for the column [localisation]Users[name] [nvarchar] (100) NOT NULL ,[localisation] [nvarchar] (100)NULLNow i have created a table [Localisation]Localisation[id_Localisation] [int] NOT NULL,[localisation] [nvarchar] (100) NOT NULLI am adding a new column to UsersALTER TABLE [Users] ADD [id_Localisation] int NULLand I want to update the Column [Users].[id_Localisation] before to drop the column [Users].[Localisation]something like UPDATE [Users] SET id_Localisation = (SELECT Localisation.id_LocalisationFROM Localisation FULL OUTER JOINUsers ON Localisation.Localisation = Users.Localisation)Users.Localisation can have a NULL value (then no id_localisation return)but it doesnt work because it returns > 1 rowthank youhow can I do it ?
I need to create trigger on table which will not allow to update value "1" into column and if tried to update.. then it should show error massage "Good To GO"
ID Name Roll 1 Ron 1 2 Jon 0 3 Nil 3 4 Par 1
if you try to update value "1" in Roll then it will through error
I have a simple question that is more about performance on my code for updating a column with the sum of two columns:
Example
Table = dbo.adding
c1 c2 c3Sum 1 2 3 5 4 6
Now if I just simple write
Update dbo.adding set c3SUM = c1 + c2
This works, but there is a null in c1 or c2 then I know I can write this:
if exists (select * from dbo.adding where c1 is NULL)
Update dbo.adding
set c1 = '0', c3SUM = '0' + c2 where c1 is NULL
if exists (select * from dbo.adding where c2 is NULL)
Update dbo.adding
set c2 = '0', equals = c1 + '0' where c2 is NULL
Update dbo.adding
set c3SUM = c1 + c2
This works as well, but I am not sure how perficient it is being that from my understanding the code will evaluate the table three times and update it based on the criteria. If the table consists of 100,000 rows then this might not be a good solution
Is there a more proficient way to do this... I personally try to as little coding as possible to help increase performance. I know I can make this very complex and declare variables and put everything in a loop, but I personally think that would be less profient..
My client want me to update a table and the view with a new column which should be hidden. I am kind of confused on how to go about this in order to get a good result. PLEASE HELP!!
update a tables value(a single column), based on a query of another database, using a common column.
Here's what I've cooked up so far:
Declare @trackingNo nvarchar (50) Set @trackingNo = ( select tracking_no from P21_Shipping.dbo.shipping_data t1 inner join P21.dbo.oe_hdr t2 on t1.order_no = t2.order_no
[Code] ...
print @trackingNoThe error it's returning is:
Msg 512, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression.
So, I'm wanting to query Shipping_data for order_No that matches the same orderNo column value in P21 Database(oe_hdr table), then update P21 oe_hdr table with "trackingNo from Shipping_data
I upload data from a Txt File(Txt_Temp) where I have VinNumber with 6 digits. Another table name Resrve_Temp1 where I have Vinumber with 17 digit. Now I need to update the vinnumber 6 digit to 17 digit or to new column in Txt_temp.
Txt_Temp - Table
I tried this code with no succes and only one row is updating
update Txt_Temp Set Txt_Temp.Vinnumber=dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin from dbo.R_ResrvStock inner join Txt_Temp on Right (dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin,6)=Txt_Temp.VinNumber
OR Add this code in viewÂ
Select dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin,R_Txt_Temp.Vinnumber,R_Txt_Te mp.Model_Code from dbo.R_ResrvStock inner join R_Txt_Temp on Right (dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin,6)=R_Txt_Temp.VinNumber
In SQL 2005, I've created a test scenario in AdventureWorks where I:
1.) Create a database master key:
IF NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.symmetric_keys WHERE symmetric_key_id = 101) CREATE MASTER KEY ENCRYPTION BY PASSWORD = '<password>'
GO
2.) Create a certificate:
CREATE CERTIFICATE HRCert WITH SUBJECT = 'Comments' GO
3.) Create a symmetric key:
CREATE SYMMETRIC KEY CommentKey WITH ALGORITHM = DES ENCRYPTION BY CERTIFICATE HRCert GO
4.) Add a test column to the HumanResources.JobCandidate table:
ALTER TABLE HumanResources.JobCandidate ADD Comments varbinary(8000) GO
5.) Open the symmetric key for use:
OPEN SYMMETRIC KEY CommentKey DECRYPTION BY CERTIFICATE HRCert GO
6.) Insert and Encrypt values ('Yes') to the newly created column:
UPDATE HumanResources.JobCandidate SET Comments = EncryptByKey(Key_GUID('CommentKey'), 'Yes') GO
-------
Great. Now all the textbooks say that, to view the column values in a decrypted state, you should:
SELECT CONVERT(varchar, DecryptByKey(Comments)) AS [Decrypted Comments], * FROM HumanResources.JobCandidate
------
Great, I get it. But here's the rub. What is the best way to permanently decrypt the column and keep it in a cleartext state?
Running the following works, but keeps the column values in a varbinary (hexadecimal) state which is what we originally created:
UPDATE HumanResources.JobCandidate SET Comments = DecryptByKey(Comments) GO
But if I want to transform this varbinary(8000) column into a human-readable varchar column, the only thing I could come up with was a temp table solution:
UPDATE HumanResources.JobCandidate SET Comments = DecryptByKey(Comments) GO
DECLARE @temp varchar(1000) SET @temp = (SELECT TOP 1 CommentsFROM Human Resources.JobCandidate)
CREATE TABLE #decrypt (Comment varchar(1000)) INSERT INTO #decrypt (Comments) VALUES (@temp) GO
ALTER TABLE HumanResources.JobCandidate ALTER COLUMN Comments varchar(1000) GO
UPDATE HumanResources.JobCandidate SET Comments = (SELECT Comments FROM #decrypt) GO
I am building a data warehouse. I have many columns I want to populate in a fact table using integration services. Sample fields are: companyID, companyName, companyNumberOfAccounts, company, NumberOfUsers.
In the integration services package, I would like to keep this fact table in place and populated with data and to build integration services packages that update each of the existing row's specific columns (e.g. companyNameOfAccounts) one by one. For example, I have a source of data that has companyID and companyNumberOfAccounts data.
Is it possible to use the SQL Server Destination or OLE DB Destination Integration Services elements to import companyID and companyNumberOfAccounts data so that existing records just have their companyNumberOfAccounts column updated?
Hi. I am trying to figure out the code for sorting a manual (non-identity) number column in my table. the purpose is to show the user's pictures in perfect order (1,2,3,4,5,6...).
The Jist of my problem... When a user first inserts six pictures, he gets:
|1| |2| |3| |4| |5| |6|
All is good. But, say he deletes picture |3|. Now the list order looks like this:
|1| |2| <- |3| is removed |4| |5| |6|
And, then he inserts two more pictures, now he his this:
|1| |2|
|4| |5| |6| |7| <- |7| & |8| are added |8|
What i want to acheive is a "reshuffling" of the number order every time a picture is removed. So, when |3| is removed, |4| becomes |3|, |5| becomes |4| and so on. There should never be a gap in the order.
I am new to stored procedures, and have been trying to figure this out. Below is my guesswork:
BEGIN SELECT @photo_date = CONVERT(DATETIME,convert(char(26), getdate(), 109)) END
BEGIN SET @photo_number = 1 SELECT
@photo_number = ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM dbo.PersonalPhotos b WHERE a.photo_date < b.photo_date ) FROM dbo.PersonalPhotos a ORDER BY a.photo_date END
BEGIN
My thinking is that it would be a safe bet to use the "photo_date" column as a litmus for my "photo_number" column (ie, the most recent record inserted by the user will always be at a later date than the previously inserted record). So:
I am writing a query to update table variable. It is throwing me some error.
I have a table variable declared and inserted the data with three columns. I want to update col1 of that table variable when the second column of that table variable= one column from a physical table
update @MYtabvar set @Mytabvar.LatestDate=B.LatestDate from TableB B where @Mytabvar.id=B.ID
