Update Sql Server With Data From A Different Sql Server

Aug 1, 2006

I have two different sql server databases on different server.

I need to do a select from one database and based on the results, update a record on the sql server.

thanks,

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SQL Server 2012 :: Update Statement Will Not Update Data Beyond 7 Million Plus Rows Out Of 38 Millions Rows

Dec 12, 2014

I run the following statement and it will not update beyond 7 million plus rows and I have about 38 million to complete. I keep checking updated row counts and after 1/2 day it's still the same so I know something is wrong because it was rolling through no problem when I initiated it. I need to complete ASAP so it's adding to my frustration. The 'Acct_Num_CH' field is an encrypted field (fyi).

SET rowcount 10000
UPDATE [dbo].[CC_Info_T]
SET [Acct_Num_CH] = 'ayIWt6C8sgimC6t61EJ9d8BB3+bfIZ8v'
WHERE [Acct_Num_CH] IS NOT NULL
WHILE @@ROWCOUNT > 0
BEGIN
SET rowcount 10000
UPDATE [dbo].[CC_Info_T]
SET [Acct_Num_CH] = 'ayIWt6C8sgimC6t61EJ9d8BB3+bfIZ8v'
WHERE [Acct_Num_CH] IS NOT NULL
END
SET rowcount 0

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Jun 5, 2014

I got this script but all I get are the errors:

Msg 209, Level 16, State 1, Line 8
Ambiguous column name 'PartNrFabrikant'.
Msg 209, Level 16, State 1, Line 8
Ambiguous column name 'omschrijving'.
Msg 209, Level 16, State 1, Line 8
Ambiguous column name 'verkoopprijs'.
Msg 116, Level 16, State 1, Line 13

Only one expression can be specified in the select list when the subquery is not introduced with EXISTS.

script:
UPDATE artikelen
SET omschrijving = [Hofstede].[dbo].[sparepartsupdate].[omschrijving] ,
verkoopprijs = [Hofstede].[dbo].[sparepartsupdate].[verkoopprijs] ,
gewijzigd = getDate()

[code]...

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Jul 2, 2001

Hi, everyone,

I have a SQL2000(SP1)/Windows2000, and a database - 4GB. The server physical memory is 1GB, and about 900MB is allocated to the SQL2000 through the memory dynamical configuration screen.

A scheduled database maintenance job was created using the standard maintenance planner tool. In this job, only Updata Data Optimization was included. Everytime, this job freezed the whole server - all screens, SQL client accesses, and, even the keyboard. A server machine reboot had to be made.

My understanding about Optimizatoin is that it does reindex for each index of each table in the database. So I picked the largest table in the database - about 1.5 million rows - to run DBCC DBREINDEX manually against each index one at a time, using the Query Analyzer. They were all running through, without causing server lockup. However, I noticed that each time, the DBREINDEX statement made the CPU and Physical I/O climbed extreamlly high. I suspected that, since the Optimization job put all tables together to DBREINDEX, it might exhaused the system resource that caused the server problem, but I am not 100% sure, neither do I know where to confirm this.

Confusing enough, other databases on the same server didn't have the problem. They all have maintance plan and run ok. I did all sorts of DBCC checks against this database which I had problem with, they were no error reported. I even loaded the database, using the backup, to another SQL 2000 server, and run Optimization there, and it had no problem.

I am not sure it is a server issue? or a database issue? or a SQL bug? Anybody had same experience?

Appreicate!

Regards! Yan Li

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c010A92NULL

I need to update the Denominator, which is currently NULL, with the value from the Numerator where the MeasureID=c001 and GroupID=A.

This value is 668 so, the row should look like

c010A92668

create table dbo.TEST
(
MeasureID varchar(10),
GroupID char(1),
Numerator float,
Denominator float
)

[Code] .....

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hi ,
i am new to this.
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i am using asp.net and c#
FIELDS are-
userId,
name,
description,
startTime,
endTime,
audiencePassword,
presenterPassword

i know it must be simple...but i haven't worked on this before.


Jaimin

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So while there will be many sales records for each ItemNumber, I need to loop through and update the ItemCost in that sales record based on the corresponding ItemCost in the flat file. Does this make sense? I really need this for court and I can't figure out how to do it. I took a SQL course about 7 years ago but have forgotten everything.

Database Name: BTData
Database Table: dbo.Sales
Database Columns: ItemNumber (match on this), ItemCost (update this)

FlatFile Name: InventoryCosts.txt
FlatFile Columns: ItemNumber, ItemCost

There will be many sales records for each ItemNumber in the database table. I need to update each one with correct cost based on the item number and cost mapping from flat file.

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Hi,
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I also have a Oracle database which has a similar table.

What I want to do is as follows:
In a SSIS package, I want to pick up details from SQL Server and update the Oracle table. And then should be done without using a linked server connection.

Can someone guide me as to how I can specify a update statement in the destination dataflow.

Thanks.

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I envision a one-time query which will loop through selected records and replace the offending characters with --, however I'm having trouble understanding how this works.

There are roughly 2500 records which meet the criteria of "contains bad characters", frequently containing multiple separate bad chars, and the table contains roughly 100000 rows.

Special Characters are defined as #%&*:<>?/{}|~ and ..

While the field is called "Filename" it isn't always so, it is a parent/child table where foldernames are also stored.

Example data:
Tablename = Items
ItemID Filename ListID
1 Badfile<2015>.docx 15
2 Goodfile.docx 15
3 MoreBad#.docx 15
4 Dog&Cat#17.pdf 15
5 John's "Special" Folder 16

The examples I'm finding are all oriented around SELECT statements, to change the output of what I see returned, however I'd rather just fix the entire column using an UPDATE. Initial testing using REPLACE fails because I don't always have a single character as the bad thing in a string.

In a better solution, I found an example using a User Defined Function to modify the output of a select, but I cannot use that UDF in an UPDATE.

My alternative is to learn enough C# to modify the "migration tool" to do this in-transit, but I know even less about C# than I do of SQL.

I gather I want to use @@ROWCOUNT to loop through the rows but I really can't put it all together in a cohesive way.

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Update On Machine Runs Immediately, Update On Linked Server Takes 8 Minutes

Jan 2, 2008

What's up with this?

This takes like 0 secs to complete:

update xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159

where enc_id in

('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',

'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',

'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')

but From linked server this takes 8 minutes????!!!??!:

update [xxx_servername_xxxx].xxx_DatabaseName_xxx.dbo.xxx_TableName_xxx
set d_50 = 'DE',modify_timestamp = getdate(),modified_by = 1159

where enc_id in

('C24E6640-D2CC-45C6-8C74-74F6466FA262',

'762E6B26-AE4A-4FDB-A6FB-77B4782566C3',

'D7FBD152-F7AE-449C-A875-C85B5F6BB462')


What settings or whatever would cause this to take so much longer from the linked server?

Edit:
Note) Other queries from the linked server do not have this behavior. From the stored procedure where we have examined how long each query/update takes... this particular query is the culprit for the time eating. I thought it was to do specefically with this table. However as stated when a query window is opened directly onto that server the update takes no time at all.

2nd Edit:
Could it be to do with this linked server setting?
Collation Compatible
right now it is set to false? I also asked this question in a message below, but figured I should put it up here.

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Nov 11, 2007

I am hoping someone can shed light on this odd behavior I am seeing running a simple UPDATE statement on a table in SQL Server 2000.  I have 2 tables - call them Table1 and Table2 for now (among many) that need to have certain columns updated as part of a single transaction process.   Each of the tables has many columns. I have purposely limited the target column for updating to only ONE of the columns in trying to isolate the issue.  In one case the UPDATE runs fine against Table1... at runtime in code and as a manual query when run in QueryAnalyzer or in the Query window of SSManagementStudio - either way it works fine. 
However, when I run the UPDATE statement against Table2 - at runtime I get rowsaffected = 0 which of course forces the code to throw an Exception (logically).  When I take out the SQL stmt and run it manually in Query Analyzer, it runs BUT this is the output seen in the results pane...
(0 row(s) affected)
(1 row(s) affected)
How does on get 2 answers for one query like this...I have never seen such behavior and it is a real frustration ... makes no sense.  There is only ONE row in the table that contains the key field passed in and it is the same key field value on the other table Table1 where the SQL returns only ONE message (the one you expect)
(1 row(s) affected)
If anyone has any ideas where to look next, I'd appreciate it.
Thanks 
 

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EXAMPLE:

CREATE TABLE dbo.MYTABLE(
ID NUMERIC(18,0) IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
FirstName VARCHAR(50) NULL,
LastName VARCHAR(50) NULL,

[Code] ....

If an INSERT looks like any of the following what can I do to change the NULL being assigned to DateAdded to a real date, preferable the value of GetDate() at the time of the insert? I've heard of INSTEAD of Triggers but I'm not trying tto over rise the entire INSERT or update just the on (maybe 2) fields that are being left as null or explicitly set to null. The same would apply for any UPDATE where DateModified is not specified or explicitly set to NULL. I would want to change it so that DateModified is not null on any UPDATE.

INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
VALUES('John','Smith',NULL)

INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName)
VALUES('John','Smith')

INSERT INTO dbo.MYTABLE( FirstName, LastName, DateAdded)
SELECT FirstName, LastName, NULL
FROM MYOTHERTABLE

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Cunning plan #1, ulgy - not at all a fan of triggers - but use an after update trigger to run a sp on the remote box via a linked server in this format, with a SQL Server login for the linked server with permissions to EXEC the remote proc.

CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[SourceUpdate] ON [dbo].[SourceTable]
AFTER UPDATE
AS
SET XACT_ABORT ON;
SET NOCOUNT ON;
IF UPDATE(ColumnName)

[Code] ....

However, while the sp can be run against the linked server as a standalone query OK, when running it in a trigger it's throwing

OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "WIBBLE" returned message "The transaction manager has disabled its support for remote/network transactions.".

Msg 7391, Level 16, State 2, Procedure TheAfterUpdateTrigger, Line 19

The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "SQLNCLI" for linked server "WIBBLE" was unable to begin a distributed transaction.

Whether it actually possible to call a proc on a remote box via a trigger and if so what additional hoops need to be jumped through (like I said, it'll run OK called via SSMS)?

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Hi all,
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2. Stop SQL Server on SRV1, SRV2
3. Copy all my user-databases files on SRV1 to SRV2
4. Copy MASTER files on SRV1 overwrite to MASTER files on SRV2
5. Restart SQL on SRV2
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PTH

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Below error occurred during process .

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[code]...

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