How do I update a table's column, with the values of another tables column where the primary key between is Part_Number?
table2 = temp_table
Update Actuator_Components Set Scanned_Drawings = table2.Scanned_Drawings
Hi,I have table with three columns as belowtable name:expNo(int) name(char) refno(int)I have data as belowNo name refno1 a2 b3 cI need to update the refno with no values I write a query as belowupdate exp set refno=(select no from exp)when i run the query i got error asSubquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when thesubquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used asan expression.I need to update one colum with other column value.What is the correct query for this ?Thanks,Mani
View 3 Replies View RelatedI have multiple product tables with a "ListPrice" column. I want to use a temporary table that contains "ProductID" and "ListPrice" columns and execute a stored procedure that will update the "ListPrice" column in all product tables with the "ListPrice" from temporary table where "ProductID" from temporary table matches "ProductID" in product tables.
I am new at writing stored procedures.
I have a query, I am trying to update a certain column in my query you can see that is hard coded. The column that I am trying to update is "O_Test" I used a select statement trying to figure out how many records that accounts for with the entire database of all the tables. I got 643 records. So I am wondering if there is a way I can update all the columns without looking up each table and updating each one. This Update statement wont work because I am accounting for all records in the DB of all tables associated of what I hard coded
SELECT t.name AS table_name,
SCHEMA_NAME(schema_id) AS schema_name,
c.name AS column_name
FROM sys.tables AS t
INNER JOIN sys.columns c ON t.OBJECT_ID = c.OBJECT_ID
WHERE c.name LIKE '%O_Test%'
ORDER BY schema_name, table_name;
I have the following table
Table Name EmployeeInformation
EmployeeID EmployeeFirstName EmployeeLastName
  1       |John            |Baker
  2       |Carl             |Lennon
  3       |Marion           |Herbert
Table Name PeriodInformation
PeriodID PeriodStart PeriodEnd
  1     |1/1/14    |12/30/14
  2     |1/1/15    |12/30/15
[code]...
I want a query to join all this tables based on EmployeeID, PeriodID and LeaveTypeIDÂ sum of LeaveEntitlement.LeaveEntitlementDaysNumber based on LeaveTypeID AS EntitleAnnaul and AS EntitleSick and sum AssignedLeave.AssignedLeaveDaysNumber based on LeaveTypeIDÂ Â AS AssignedAnnaul and AS AssignedSick and subtract EntitleAnnaul from AssignedAnnual based on LeaveTypeIDÂ Â AS AnnualBalance and subtract EntitleSick from AssignedSick based on LeaveTypeIDÂ Â AS SickBalance
and the table should be shown as below after executing the query
EmployeeID, EmployeeFirstName, EmployeeLastName, PeriodID, PeriodStart, PeriodEnd, EntitleAnnual, AssignedAnnual, AnnualBalance, EntitleSick, AssignedSick, SickBalance
I have two tables table1 and table2 and having a common column "col1"
When i ran the following query
UPDATE table1, table2 SET col1=FALSE WHERE id = 1;
getting the following error
Error Code: 1052 Column 'col1' in field list is ambiguous
id column exist in both the tables and need to update both the tables to false where the id is equivalent to 1.
how to achieve this in single query?
I am trying to use a stored procedure to update a column in a sql table using the value from a variable table I getting errors because my syntax is not correct. I think table aliases are not allowed in UPDATE statements.
This is my statement:
UPDATE [dbo].[sessions_teams] stc
SET stc.[Talks] = fmt.found_talks_type
FROM @Find_Missing_Talks fmt
WHERE stc.sessionid IN (SELECT sessionid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks)
AND stc.coupleid IN (SELECT coupleid FROM @Find_Missing_Talks)
Need to update one table with value of a column in another table plus a constant:
UPDATE TABLE_A
SET TABLE_A.COLA=TABLE_B.COLB+'10'
FROM TABLE_A
INNER JOIN TABLE_B
ON TABLE_A.COLA=TABLE_B.COLA
WHERE TABLE_A.COLA=TABLE_B.COLA
The above statement works except the concatenated string has space between TABLE_B.COLB text and '10'. How to remove the space (4 characters) so that the string shows as one word 'TABLE_B.COLB10'?
I have to tables say 'employee1' and 'employee2'
employee1 has lastname
employee2 has firstname, lastname
i have to update firstname in employee1 from firstname in employee2 table and the common field for both tables is 'lastname'
Hi, I have two tables. I want to update two columns in my first table,[ADD_BSL_SALES] and [ADD_BSL_COST] with two values [Sales] and[Costs] held in my #temp table but based on a RUN_DATE from my firsttable.Can anyone point me in the right direction?Thanks in Advance ï?ŠBryanCREATE TABLE [GROSMARG_AUDIT_ADDITION] ([RUN_DATE] [datetime] NULL ,[SALES_DIFF] [numeric](19, 6) NULL ,[COST_DIFF] [numeric](19, 6) NULL ,[ADD_BSL_SALES] [numeric](18, 0) NULL ,[ADD_BSL_COST] [numeric](18, 0) NULL ,[ADD_SALES_DIFF] [numeric](18, 0) NULL ,[ADD_COST_DIFF] [numeric](18, 0) NULL) ON [PRIMARY]GOINSERT RUN_DATE,datetime,INSERT SALES_DIFF,numeric(19,6),INSERT COST_DIFF,numeric(19,6)INSERT ADD_BSL_SALES,numeric(18,0),INSERT ADD_BSL_COST,numeric(18,0),INSERT ADD_SALES_DIFF,numeric(18,0)INSERT ADD_COST_DIFF,numeric(18,0)--- Second TableCREATE TABLE #DUPTOTALS[Sales][Costs]
View 1 Replies View RelatedI need to update a table by copying a column from another table(having the samestructure, but on another database), from the record having the sameprimary key.1 - What is the correct query?2 - I tried copying them record by record, but the datatype is ntext,(it displays <longtext> in the result pane), and trying to update it results in thefollowing errormessage:The text, ntext, and image data types are invalid in this subquery oraggregateexpression.I tried variations of the following:UPDATE TABLESET column0 = (SELECTcolumn0FROManotherDB.dbo.TABLEWHEREanotherDB.dbo.TABLE.column1 = column1)WHEREanotherDB.dbo.TABLE.column1 = column1
View 1 Replies View Relatedhello all,
I don't know how to update table A with data from table B without specifying every column.
These two tables have the same fields and same structure.
I know that it's possible to do the following:
update table A
set A.name = B.name,
A.job = B.job
from table B
But I have many columns and don't want to describe every column, is that possible?
Thanks!
Is it possible to update from one table to another?Pls examine my code here:
UPDATE tStaffDir SET tStaffDir.ft_prevemp = ISNULL(tStaffDir_PrevEmp.PrevEmp01, ' ') + ' ' + ISNULL(tStaffDir_PrevEmp.PrevEmp02, ' ') + ' ' + ISNULL(tStaffDir_PrevEmp.PrevEmp03, ' ') + ' ' + ISNULL(tStaffDir_PrevEmp.PrevEmp04, ' ') + ' ' + ISNULL(tStaffDir_PrevEmp.PrevEmp05, ' ') Where tStaffDir_PrevEmp.ID=tStaffDir.ID
I am trying to concatenate the columns from tStaffDir_PrevEmp to tStaffDir but I have this error where tStaffDir_PrevEmp is recognised as a column and not a table.
Pls advise how this can be done. Many Thanks.
I have a table wherein I have to update a particular column (receipt code) based on another column of the same table (receipt number). i have to do calculations in order to generate the correct receipt code, and i have to do this on every row of the table. how can i do this? will this update be in a loop or something?
View 6 Replies View RelatedI need to write a update statement which will update the same table with value from the same column but the values will be changing.
For an example.
The source table is as below.
ROWID DATA Header
1 AAA H1
2 isa1
3 isb2
4 AAA3b3 H2
5 same
Now the records with rowid 2 and 3 should be updated with H1 as Header which is present in the Rowid 1.
Similarly the record rowid 5 should be updated with H2 as header from rowid 4.
I am trying to remove a user from Reporting Services via code. I have found that the way to do this is to remove their details from an XML field in the table SecData
The name of the column is xml_description
An example value of the column is below:
<Policy>
<GroupUserName>BUILTINAdministrators</GroupUserName>
<GroupUserId>AQIAAAAAAAUgAAAAIAIAAA==</GroupUserId>
<Roles>
<Role>
<Name>Content Manager</Name>
[Code]....
I would like to remove the bolded part in the column when I put in the user's name.
So the code would start with:
Declare @username varchar (20)
Set @ username = 'EMEAMJohnson'
Followed by the logic to remove the bolded part of the column.
The column is called xml_description and the name of the table is SecData.
Hello all, was wondering if you could point me in the right direction for this.
I have a db with a column classifications, and in that column are 'Accountants - (1234)' 'Book-keepers - (18) etc etc. Now what I want to do is remove the - (xxxx) section and obviously the white space, so I am just left with 'Accountants' 'Book-keepers' etc.
1. Is there an easy way to do this?
Ok so my thoughts were create a another table and put the ammended classifications in that to update the first table. Your probably asking why not just do it on the first table...Answer. There are over 150,000 records to change.
So I now have my first table with column classification and my second table with the correct classification ammendments.
I can sit down and manually type
UPDATE table1
SET classifications = 'Accountants'
Where classifications = 'Accounts - (xxxx)'
until i have completed the entire list in table 2 but I was hoping you good people would know a way to work through the list so it would automatically update each classification correctly.
The problem I have here is I dont know how to work through table 2 and match it to something in table 1 and update it.
Any help is greatfully appreciated
Hi,
I am quite new in SSIS and I have a question. I don't know what is the best way to get it work...
So simply I have in my SQL Server database 2 tables :
First table "SER" fields
SER_ID
SER_IS_CHANGE_RELATED
where I have only the field SER_ID filled like
SER_ID SER_IS_CHANGE_RELATED
1234 NULL
1235 NULL
1236 NULL
Second table "SRE" fields
SRE_ID
SRE_SER_ID
SRE_CHA_ID
and the content would be for example
SRE_ID SRE_SER_ID SRE_CHA_ID
1 1234 2345
2 1234 2346
3 1236 2347
The 2 tables are related by the fields : SER_ID = SRE_SER_ID
So I would like to have the following result in my table "SER":
SER_ID SER_IS_CHANGE_RELATED
1234 True
1235 NULL
1236 True
"True" because one or more entry is present in table "SRE" for each SER_ID (= SRE_SER_ID)
Hope my example is clear....
Thanks for your help
This should be easy for someone, but I just can't seem to find a sample to do this.....I have created a table...CREATE TABLE dbo.test ( oId int NOT NULL UNIQUE, test1 varchar(50) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY )Now, I need to go back and simply add another column to the table such as test2 varchar(50)Not sure if the insert is the way to go and been playing around with various statements but with no luck.Suggestions?Thanks all,Zath
View 2 Replies View RelatedHifor MS SQL 2000/2005I am having a table (an old database, not mine) with char value for the column [localisation]Users[name] [nvarchar] (100) NOT NULL ,[localisation] [nvarchar] (100)NULLNow i have created a table [Localisation]Localisation[id_Localisation] [int] NOT NULL,[localisation] [nvarchar] (100) NOT NULLI am adding a new column to UsersALTER TABLE [Users] ADD [id_Localisation] int NULLand I want to update the Column [Users].[id_Localisation] before to drop the column [Users].[Localisation]something like UPDATE [Users] SET id_Localisation = (SELECT Localisation.id_LocalisationFROM Localisation FULL OUTER JOINUsers ON Localisation.Localisation = Users.Localisation)Users.Localisation can have a NULL value (then no id_localisation return)but it doesnt work because it returns > 1 rowthank youhow can I do it ?
View 10 Replies View RelatedI have a table with this structure
ID | Ticker
-------------------
1330 |AAB-Bank
1336 |AEGON
1367 |ALZSE
1420 |ASSGEN
2812 |AVLN
I have a sproc called usp_validTicker that will take 2 parameters: ticker and date. It will return the valid ticker for that date.
I like to have the sproc going through each ticker in the table and return the valid tickers.
For example
exec usp_validTicker 'AAB-Bank','2008-6-10' will return 'AAB' and my final table will be
ID | Ticker
-------------------
1330 |AAB
1336 |AEGON
1367 |ALZSE
1420 |ASSGEN
2812 |AVLN
I need to create trigger on table which will not allow to update value "1" into column and if tried to update.. then it should show error massage "Good To GO"
ID Name Roll
1 Ron 1
2 Jon 0
3 Nil 3
4 Par 1
if you try to update value "1" in Roll then it will through error
nil
I have a simple question that is more about performance on my code for updating a column with the sum of two columns:
Example
Table = dbo.adding
c1 c2 c3Sum
1 2
3 5
4 6
Now if I just simple write
Update dbo.adding
set c3SUM = c1 + c2
This works, but there is a null in c1 or c2 then I know I can write this:
if exists (select * from dbo.adding where c1 is NULL)
Update dbo.adding
set c1 = '0', c3SUM = '0' + c2 where c1 is NULL
if exists (select * from dbo.adding where c2 is NULL)
Update dbo.adding
set c2 = '0', equals = c1 + '0' where c2 is NULL
Update dbo.adding
set c3SUM = c1 + c2
This works as well, but I am not sure how perficient it is being that from my understanding the code will evaluate the table three times and update it based on the criteria. If the table consists of 100,000 rows then this might not be a good solution
Is there a more proficient way to do this... I personally try to as little coding as possible to help increase performance. I know I can make this very complex and declare variables and put everything in a loop, but I personally think that would be less profient..
I want to be able to duplicate every single record that is inserted or updated in a particular table to another table, but not the delete. Is the best way to set-up a trigger? If so can anyone provide me with an example of how to do this? Also could you just duplicate certain columns in the row I would you have to do all columns?
Thanks for help.
I have a script that is supposed to run thru 2 joined tables and update a field in the 3rd table. The script works but takes approx. 4 hours to run against 250k records.
UPDATE a
SET Con_Mailings = STUFF((SELECT '; ' + c.ListName
FROM [server].[xxxxx_MSCRM].[dbo].ListBase c with (nowait)
INNER JOIN [server].[xxxxxx_MSCRM].[dbo].[ListMemberBase] b with (nowait)
ON b.ListID = c.ListID
WHERE b.EntityID = a.TmpContactID
FOR XML PATH('')),1,1,'')
FROM [xx_Temp].[dbo].[Lyris_CombinedTest] a
I should end up with something like this in the con_mailings field:
'Mailing1, Mailing2, Mailing3'
Hi,
I have a set of records in database table and I want to update one column to be the same for all of them.
Can you suggest code solution?
My client want me to update a table and the view with a new column which should be hidden. I am kind of confused on how to go about this in order to get a good result. PLEASE HELP!!
View 1 Replies View Relatedmy table payment_details structure is
payment_id payment_code
1 null
2 null
3 null
4 null
here payment_id is a primary key and i need to update the whole payment_id column to payment_code column.so i just tried the below query
update payment_details
set payment_code = payment_no
where payment_code is null
but it shows subquery error?
I'm trying to do the following:
update a tables value(a single column), based on a query of another database, using a common column.
Here's what I've cooked up so far:
Declare @trackingNo nvarchar (50)
Set @trackingNo =
(
select tracking_no from P21_Shipping.dbo.shipping_data t1
inner join P21.dbo.oe_hdr t2 on t1.order_no = t2.order_no
[Code] ...
print @trackingNoThe error it's returning is:
Msg 512, Level 16, State 1, Line 3
Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression.
So, I'm wanting to query Shipping_data for order_No that matches the same orderNo column value in P21 Database(oe_hdr table), then update P21 oe_hdr table with "trackingNo from Shipping_data
HI ALL,
CAN ANYBODY HELP ME TO SOLVE THE ISSUE
I WANNA UPDATE A RECORD OF ONE TABLE WITH VALUES THAT ARE PRESENT IN A COLUMN OF ANOTHER TABLE
OR
CAN I DO THE SAME USING INSERT QUERY
THANKS IN ADVANCE
I upload data from a Txt File(Txt_Temp) where I have VinNumber with 6 digits. Another table name Resrve_Temp1 where I have Vinumber with 17 digit. Now I need to update the vinnumber 6 digit to 17 digit or to new column in Txt_temp.
Txt_Temp - Table
I tried this code with no succes and only one row is updating
update Txt_Temp Set Txt_Temp.Vinnumber=dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin
from dbo.R_ResrvStock inner join Txt_Temp on Right (dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin,6)=Txt_Temp.VinNumber
OR Add this code in viewÂ
Select dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin,R_Txt_Temp.Vinnumber,R_Txt_Te mp.Model_CodeÂ
from dbo.R_ResrvStock inner join R_Txt_Temp on Right (dbo.R_ResrvStock.Vin,6)=R_Txt_Temp.VinNumber
Vin
123456
123123
123789
Resrve_Temp1 - Table
asddfghjklk123654
asddfghjklk123456
asddfghjklk321564
asddfghjklk123123
asddfghjklk123789
asddfghjklk654655
asddfghjklk456465
My Result can be in Txt_Temp table or new table or with one or two columns
asddfghjklk123456 123456
asddfghjklk123123 123123
asddfghjklk123789 123789
Dear friends, can anyone please guide me on how to update table with results from derived column tool?
thanks,
In SQL 2005, I've created a test scenario in AdventureWorks where I:
1.) Create a database master key:
IF NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.symmetric_keys WHERE symmetric_key_id = 101)
CREATE MASTER KEY ENCRYPTION BY PASSWORD = '<password>'
GO
2.) Create a certificate:
CREATE CERTIFICATE HRCert
WITH SUBJECT = 'Comments'
GO
3.) Create a symmetric key:
CREATE SYMMETRIC KEY CommentKey
WITH ALGORITHM = DES
ENCRYPTION BY CERTIFICATE HRCert
GO
4.) Add a test column to the HumanResources.JobCandidate table:
ALTER TABLE HumanResources.JobCandidate
ADD Comments varbinary(8000)
GO
5.) Open the symmetric key for use:
OPEN SYMMETRIC KEY CommentKey
DECRYPTION BY CERTIFICATE HRCert
GO
6.) Insert and Encrypt values ('Yes') to the newly created column:
UPDATE HumanResources.JobCandidate
SET Comments = EncryptByKey(Key_GUID('CommentKey'), 'Yes')
GO
-------
Great. Now all the textbooks say that, to view the column values in a decrypted state, you should:
SELECT CONVERT(varchar, DecryptByKey(Comments)) AS [Decrypted Comments], *
FROM HumanResources.JobCandidate
------
Great, I get it. But here's the rub. What is the best way to permanently decrypt the column and keep it in a cleartext state?
Running the following works, but keeps the column values in a varbinary (hexadecimal) state which is what we originally created:
UPDATE HumanResources.JobCandidate
SET Comments = DecryptByKey(Comments)
GO
But if I want to transform this varbinary(8000) column into a human-readable varchar column, the only thing I could come up with was a temp table solution:
UPDATE HumanResources.JobCandidate
SET Comments = DecryptByKey(Comments)
GO
DECLARE @temp varchar(1000)
SET @temp = (SELECT TOP 1 CommentsFROM Human Resources.JobCandidate)
CREATE TABLE #decrypt (Comment varchar(1000))
INSERT INTO #decrypt (Comments) VALUES (@temp)
GO
ALTER TABLE HumanResources.JobCandidate
ALTER COLUMN Comments varchar(1000)
GO
UPDATE HumanResources.JobCandidate
SET Comments = (SELECT Comments FROM #decrypt)
GO
DROP TABLE #decrypt
GO
--------
It works, but seems so inelegant to me.
Is there an easier way?