Updating Values In A Table With Foreign Key Violations
Aug 25, 2004
Hello!
I have a "current" table which users update on a daily basis, it holds forecast data. This table is designed to only hold 7 days of data and is therfore always rolling over by date.
What I want to do is have a procedure that copies this "Current" table to a "History" table every day so the historical information is stored. The copy is simple, but how do I check for and over ride values that are already in the "history" table with the newest values from the "current" table because the "current" values have the possibility of changing a few times while the forecast is updated. I can define a primary key but am not sure how to check for and update the necessary values?
I'm trying to optimize a few batch import procedures we use in our processes.
It currently works like this:
1) Cursor loop cycles through all data to be imported from IMPORT table
2) For every record there is an attempted insert to PROD table in a TRY-CATCH check to see whether the record would pass all the primary key and foreign key constrains in PROD table
3) Only those that pass the TRY-CATCH check gets imported into PROD table
4) Every row gets logged into a separate LOG table, either with a comment like "Import OK" or "Error: foreign key violation in field 'my_id'"
The thing is, the procedure runs fine when I'm importing several thousands of records, but when it comes to hundreds of thousands, the speed becomes an issue, as I currently get 20 records per second and slowing...
There is no other code in that procedure, no queries. Just the Cursor cycle and the try-catch check.
Here ID is the foreign key. I was wondering if there was a way to update tables with foreign keys. Searching for stuff gave me something like update cascade. Can somebody please elaborate on that?
I am trying to update tables "Table A" & " TableB" with a new value for a particular column1. Now "TableA" contains a foreign key "FK1" defined on it and is referencing another table "Table B" containing the similar column "Column1"
Because of this constraint I was not able to update TableA and TableB. My question is
1) If i wanted to go ahead with this update, what are the possible ways?
2) If only solution is to drop the constraint. Then How do i know the definition for this particular Foreign key, i mean it may refer some columns in Table B. I wanted to know the complete definition of it so that i can rebuild the constraint after the update. Right now i can see only the constraint name when i use sp_help TableA. But how do i know the complete reference made by this foreign key.
I've been working as web dev for quite sometime now but there are still few things that i would like to clarify. Hope you guys can shed lights.
I currently have several tables and all this tables are having some 1 to many relationships. I know that how i insert value into my tables are very inefficient. I do it in this manner.. -> Insert a value in TableA -> Query the latest ID that i have inserted in Table A then -> Insert this value in TableB. And so on and so forth.
I believe there is an efficient way to to do this but i'm not sure how? Could anyone shed me a light on this matter?
I have two tables 1) tblCustomer (ID, Name, City) 2) tblemp (ID, NAME, Dept.ID, tblcustomer.ID) Both the tables have ID as PKA emp can be either assigned a) All customers b)single customer c) NO customer Pls note:- there will never be 2 or 3 customer linked to emp (my actuall requirement tables are different but to explain i am using the above tables) I know how to assign single customer......but had problem how to link all customers and "no customer" Please tell me if the following solution is right?1) I will manually insert a record in tblCustomer with id 0 as " all customers" and will not allow the user to delete it 2) store null in FK if it is "no customer" Also please tell me is it ok to store one more value in tblCustomer as -1 and take it as "No customer" I have a DDL in the Employee page which should be displaying the names of allthe customers with 2 extra values "ALL CUSTOMERS" and "SELECT" Select is the default value in DDL which says "NO CUSTOMER" selected yet Thank youSara
I have a table named 'Personal' that has a field that contains values that represent colors (ex: BLACK, BROWN, BLUE, etc.). How do I run an update statement to update the values to defined set. For example (BLACK = BLK, BLUE = BLU, etc.)?
Hello, I have been SSIS for a bit now, but really only it its most straight forward simple tasks I have the following issue which for the life of me I can't seem to sort out
1)Excel Source - - -> all data pushed into a initial SQL table
2) Data in initial SQL table gets sorted, certain fields get made UPPER , right trim that sort of thing
3) now I select a set of distinct values of a certain column in the SQL table and get a list of maybe 60 results
these results I want to enter into a table in a different database on same server, the table in the destination db has a identity column and a value column
adding / appending all the distinct value from the import data works fine,
but I want to add only the values which are not already in the destination table what is the best way to update the destination table, should I be using stored proc or is there a easier way in SSIS to do this
I am brand new to SQL Server 2000 and have encountered an issue. I created a DB with 5 or so tables all of which contain different client information. All tables are related via the Client_ID primary key I set in my main table, and foreign key in all the subsequent tables. Im using a Microsoft Access Project form as the front end.
Im having trouble figuring out how to populate the subsequent tables with the Client_ID after a enter the data in the Main table where the primary key resides.
Do I create a trigger or a stored procedure...am i even in the ballpark?
Hey guys this is a SQL Server 2005, .net 2.0 question. I got 3 tables: Job, Times, Employee. The times table is related to Job and Employee by foreign keys. The Times table is pretty much a table where the employee's time logs are kept for a specific job. Since there was a M:M relationship between Job - Employee, I decided to create a Times table in between, and the primary key of this table should actually be the PK of Job and the PK Employee, but I couldn't figure out how to make a PK consisting of two fields. Anyhow, my main question is: How to assign an Employee to a specific job in .net? In other words, what's the best way of retrieving the Job_id and Emp_id and sticking them in the Times table? I was doing a form with a drop down for Emp_id and Job_id, but I don't know how to do the inserts... I'm confused and would appreciate any help.THANKS!
I am in the process of building a fact table in a staging area. The data in the host system has numerous composite keys, so I have replaced all the composite keys in the dimensions with surrogate keys (integer) which are generated using an identity at load time. When I load the staging (fact) table, I have set the default value of all the foreign keys to 0. What I must do now is update all the foreign key values with the surrogate key values from the dimensions. I'm using an update command and the original gid values from the source system in the where clause...i.e. UPDATE X SET x.key_1 = y.key_1 FROM TableA X WITH (NOLOCK) INNER JOIN TableB Y WITH (NOLOCK) ON x.org_id = y.org_id AND x.bus_id = y.bus_id AND x.prov_gid = y.prov_gid AND x.log_gid = y.loc_gid;
This seems to work fine for most tables. However, I am now trying to update a table that has over 10 million rows and approximately 30 foreign keys. The script runs for hours. I ususally stop it after about 8 hours when it still hasn't completed. Since the keys are dynamic and they could possibly change during each load process, I can't add them during the load process.
Is there a better way to update these keys. I need to regenerate the fact tables every night and taking this much time to reload a fact table is just not practicle. I've indexed the alternate keys on all the dimensions and have also indexed the gids on the target fact table. Am I doing something wrong? Have I over indexed the target table? Please help! Thanks Jerry
I have a dimension called 'Caller Type' with the following attributes:
CallerTypeKey ---- surrogate key
CallerTypeID
CallerTypeDesc
CreatedByKey ---- foreign surrogate key from User Dimension
I used Script Task to get the last used key and increment it so i can use it for new records in my dimension. however, my dimension is linked to a User Dimension and I need the surrogate key of that once I insert the new record to CallerType Dimension.
Hi all, In my project i will have the data in a collection of objects, I need to update series of tables with foreign key relations Right now my code looks like this foreach(object obj in Objects){ int accountId=Account.Insert(obj.accountOpenDate,obj.accountName);//this will update the accounts table and returns account id which is a Identity column in Acccounts table int DebtId=Debt.Insert(accountd,obj.debtamount,obj.debtbalance); this will update the Debts table and returns DebtId ///series of tables like above but all the relevant data comes from obj and in the Insert Methods i am using stored procedures to Insert the data into table } The no of objects varies from 1000 to 1 milliion,, with this approach its taking more time to update all the data. Please let me know if any alternative procedure to handle this kind of scenario.
I am very new to SQL Server 2005. I have created a package to load data from a flat delimited file to a database table. The initial load has worked. However, in the future, I will have flat files used to update the table. Some of the records will need to be inserted and some will need to update existing rows. I am trying to do this from SSIS. However, I am very lost as to how to do this.
I have a projects table with 2 foreign key fields that both link to the same employees table because a project has a Package Engineer (PkgEngineerID) and a Contract Administrator (PkgContrAdmin). When I try to insert a record with null values for either or both of these foreign keys I get an error:
The data in row xxx was not commited. The record can't be added or changed. Referential integrity rules require a related record in table 'tblEmployees'. The transaction ended in the trigger. The batch has been aborted.
An insert statement for the above would look something like the following:
I am trying to append records from one table to another in a db running onMSDE, knowing fullwell that some of the data in the source will beduplicates of that in the destination table's pk.What I would like to happen is to have the stored procedure plunk in allrecords that don't violate the constraintand silently let the duplicate info fall by the wayside. The trouble is SQLserver seems to abort the whole procedure ifeven a single record violates the constraint.In a regular Access mdb, an INSERT statement (append query) would do justthat. Of course it warns you of the violation but a DoCmd.SetWarnings FALSEtakes care of that.Any ideas as to what I need to do to achieve that same thing?
I have the following tables in an SQL Server database.
Contact ======= NameID TitleID Name
JobTitle ======== TitleID Title
I'm trying to make a form to add entries to the Contact table that lets me associate a job title to a name by choosing it from a drop down list. I have been able to make it so I get a drop down list of TitleID but I need the Title field displayed. I haven't been able to do it. Does anyone have any tips on how to do this?
I have a Merge Replication Problem and I'm not sure how to proceed. Given the following: Multiple clients have merge subscriptions to a central Server's DB. DB contains a table tblUser tblUser has a Varchar field; UserLoginName, which is Primary Key. It also has an integer field, UserValue
The replication is configured to resolve to the greater integer value.
Client 1 creates a new User INSERT tblUser (UserLoginName, UserValue) VALUES('Fred',1)
At the same time Client 2 does the same thing, but with a larger value INSERT tblUSer (UserLoginName, UserValue) VALUES('Fred', 2)
One of the inserts will get to the Central Server first. The other will form a conflict. A row insert at 'Client2.dbUsers' could not be propagated to 'CentralServer.dbUsers'. This failure can be caused by a constraint violation. Violation of PRIMARY KEY constraint 'PK_tblUser_1'. Cannot insert duplicate key in object 'dbo.tblUser'.
So now I have two different value fields and a conflict that cannot be resolved.
Is this fixable? Do I need to make changes at athe Architechture level?
I am transferring data from one SQL table to another. The first table has a PK on the unique id only, the second table has PK on five fields (the idea being to reject duplicate records etc. etc.). I am using a DTS package to do this, but when run it will fail when it hits a PK violation. How do I getround this??????? What simple thing am i missing??
I have 2 identical tables one contains current settings, the other contains all historical settings.I could create a union view to display the current values from table A and all historical values from table B, butthat would also require a Variable to hold the tblid for both select statements.
Q. Can this be done with one joined or conditional select statement?
DECLARE @tblid int = 501 SELECT 1,2,3,4,'CurrentSetting' FROM TableA ta WHERE tblid = @tblid UNION SELECT 1,2,3,4,'PreviosSetting' FROM Tableb tb WHERE tblid = @tblid
I have table A which has and accountid,df_date1,df_date2. The table is a demographic one which has 1 record for each account I have a table B which I need to populate from the first df_date1 fields in table A. Table B which is normalized and has an accountid and a df_date1 field but may have several records per accountid. I need the max(date) from this table. I wanted to do an update statement like below
update A set df_date1 = max(df_date1) from b where a.account_id = b.account_id
I get the error message Server: Msg 157, Level 15, State 1, Line 3 An aggregate may not appear in the set list of an UPDATE statement.
Is there another way to do this with a subselect and update?
The above script works OK on a one-off basis but....
Basically, organisation_number_2 (i.e. 19219) always stays the same. However, I need to update organisation_number_1 several times (i.e. 2311 will then change to 2312, 2313, 2314 etc.).
Rather than pasting the script several hundred times and changing the organisation_number_1 value each time, is there a quick way to encompass all the organisation_number_1 values in one go?
I've tried e.g. VALUES (2311,2312), 19219, 'BRAN' etc. but this doesn't seem to work.
ColumnA ColumnB ColumnC ------------------------------- Alice Lukas Alice.Lucas James Redford James.Redford James Redford James.Redford Michael Jackson Michael.Jackson John Brown John.Brown John Brown John.Brown John Brown John.Brown George Gotham George.Gotham
I want to update duplicated values at ColumnC like:
Alice Lukas Alice.Lucas James Redford James.Redford James Redford James.Redford1 Michael Jackson Michael.Jackson John Brown John.Brown John Brown John.Brown1 John Brown John.Brown2 George Gotham George.Gotham
How can i do it?
Thanks in advance!
Note: Table is for creating email aliases from names...
I want to check if the tbaddress.address1 tbaddress_address1 if it is =null or empty then make it = tbaddress.address2 tbaddress_address2, at the same time I make the tbaddress.address2 tbaddress_address2, null. Otherwise leave it as it is.
Actually, I am working with the report and the tbaddress.address1 carrying the apt number. if there is no aprt # then the line print blanks. so that brings the empty line between the street address and the citystate line. That is what i am tryig to cover. There could be a way to do this from the crystal report but I am thinking of doing this way cause I can't get the solution to do it from the crystal report.
Hi, I'm very new to stored procedures and I've been searching on google to find a way to custom page my results using SQL Server 2005. I'm trying to use Row_Number() and a CTE to keep things efficient and scaleable but I keep getting an error next to my UPDATE statement. I get the following error: "[Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'UPDATE'." The sproc works without the UPDATE statement. Does anyone know where I need to put the UPDATE statement to update the "searched" field for each record selected?
CREATE PROCEDURE [zk_update_request_england](@property_type tinyint,@market_status tinyint,@price int,@bedrooms tinyint,@search_location varchar(30),@search_district varchar(30),@PageSize int,@PageIndex int) AS BEGIN WITH SearchResults AS( UPDATE dbo.zk_request_england SET searched = searched + 1 WHERE property_type = @property_type AND market_status = @market_status AND bedrooms = @bedrooms AND search_location = @search_location AND search_district = @search_district AND min_price <= @price AND max_price >= @price SELECT user_id, min_price, max_price, property_description, searched, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY max_price DESC) AS RowNumber FROM dbo.zk_request_england WHERE property_type = @property_type AND market_status = @market_status AND bedrooms = @bedrooms AND search_location = @search_location AND search_district = @search_district AND min_price <= @price AND max_price >= @price ) SELECT user_id, min_price, max_price, property_description FROM SearchResults WHERE RowNumber BETWEEN (@PageIndex - 1) * @PageSize + 1 and @PageIndex*@PageSize END
In my datawarehouse fact table I have a column (revenue) that I want to populate based on the values of number of columns, for simplicity, say just 2 columns, 'productid' and 'affiliateid'.
I have a revenue lookup table, with those same 2 columns and the amount. So far so simple, but rather than have one row for every possible combination, I use 0 to mean default. For instance, all the affiliates have the same revenue value apart from a couple, so instead of 200 rows identical except for the affiliateid, I have one row with a '0' for the affiliateid and 4 rows with specific affiliateIDs where it differs from the default.
To update the values, I join to the revenues table twice, one for both columns matching, and once for the default. I.E.
UPDATE facttable SET revenue = ISNULL(rev1.revenue, ISNULL(rev2.revenue,0)) FROM facttable FT LEFT OUTER JOIN revenues rev1 ON FT.AffiliateID = rev1.AffilateID and FT.TypeID = rev1.TypeID LEFT OUTER JOIN revenues rev2 ON rev1.AffilateID = 0 and FT.TypeID = rev1.TypeID (In fact, this is over-simplified, because in fact there are 3 columns, so I have to have 8 joins like this).
This works very well, and cuts down the management of revenues significantly, there are a few 100 rows instead of the more than 100,000 there would be if I put every possible combination of values in its own row.
However, now there is a requirement to increase the granularity of the revenue allocation up to 5 columns, which makes 36 joins and there could well be more columns added later.
Has anyone come across a situation like this (and found a neater solution).
I am a SQL DBA involved in accomplishing various activities using Enterprise Manager by regestering servers of various countries.
Now as the NT Team has gone for auditing implementation in all the servers in OS lever, they find Access violations from the workstation from where I connect to the server. This does not happens if I unregester the Servers from Enterprise manager and use only query analyzer.
Note: We have our own users in OS as wel as in SQL SERVER .
I need to get rid of negative values in the same ProductCat by adding surplus values to the negative values in the same ProductCat ie. This is what I ant the table to look like.
ProductCat Product Qty NewQty TypeA ProductA -10 -5 (Add ProductB to ProductA in the same ProductCat to reduce the deficit) TypeA ProductB 5 0 (Due to the fact that I added 5 to ProductA NewQty must be reduced by 5) TypeB ProductX 8 3 TypeB ProductY -5 0 (Deficit only has to be reduced to 0 where possible therefor the balance of 3 for ProductX)
Note the values in Qty can stay as the same. I am interested in the New values. Could someone please help me with the correct method of doing this?
Im trying to update the values int the database and the query is executed correctly but database is not updated and the returned message is one, I really dont know whats causing this here is my code.1 private void UpdatetheDatabase(string connection) 2 { 3 SqlConnection connect = new SqlConnection(connection); 4 SqlCommand update_customer_details = new SqlCommand("UPDATE [app_CustomerDetails] " + 5 " SET [Name]=@Name,[City]=@City, " + 6 " WHERE [ID]=@ID", connect); 7 update_customer_details.Parameters.Add("@Name", SqlDbType.NVarChar, 50).Value = txtCustomerName.Text; 8 update_customer_details.Parameters.Add("@City", SqlDbType.NVarChar, 50).Value = txtCity.Text; 9 update_customer_details.Parameters.Add("@ID", SqlDbType.Int, 4).Value = ID; 10 connect.Open(); 11 int x = update_customer_details.ExecuteNonQuery(); 12 connect.Close(); 13 StatusLabel.Text = x.ToString(); 14 } your help will be highly appreciated.
HiI am new to the world of aspx, .net and C#.In aspx .net 2.0. I am trying to work out how to get a datagrid to perform an update. Using Visual Developer I have successfully added the control and specifed a select statement to return data via my SQLData Source. This works fine. However having specifed the control as editable I would like to perform an update through the datagrid and SQLDatasource. I see in the properties for the SQLDatasource object I can specify my update statement.However I do not understand how to get that update statement to have variable values and how newly entered values from the grid can be placed into these variables when the update takes place. Can someone please point me in the right direction? I have not found the MS doc very illuminating thus far and have not found any examples.Many ThanksT
I am looking for suggestions on how to accomplish the following task with the least amount of hand keying that I can get away with.
I have a main table named Office and 4 other tables that have the Office table ID field value in them. I have been given a new set of ID values that need to replace the values that are currently in the Office table and then update the ID field in the other 4 tables.
I have only thought of 2 solution and I don’t like either one. 1 Add a new column to the Office table and key in the new ID’s then go through the pages that reference the old ID field and change the SQL queries to use the new field.
2 Change the value of the current Office ID field to the new value. Search the other 4 tables for the old value and then update them to the new value.
