CREATE VIEW dbo.vwFeat
AS
SELECT dbo.Lk_Feat.Descr, dbo.Lk_Feat.Price, dbo.Lk_Feat.Code, dbo.SubFeat.SubNmbr
FROM dbo.Lk_Feat INNER JOIN
dbo.SubFeat ON dbo.Lk_Feat.Idf = dbo.SubFeat.Idt
When ever I open using SQL Entreprise manager to edit it by adding or removing a field i inserts Expr1,2.. and I don t want that. The result I get is:
SELECT dbo.Lk_Feat.Descr AS Expr1, dbo.Lk_Feat.Price AS Expr2, dbo.Lk_Feat.Code AS Expr3, dbo.SubFeat.SubNmbr AS Expr4
FROM dbo.Lk_Feat INNER JOIN
dbo.SubFeat ON dbo.Lk_Feat.Idf = dbo.SubFeat.Idt
I don t want Entreprise manager to generate the Expr fields since I use the real fields in my application.
Thanks for help
One of my employes deleted a MSSQL Database instead of detach. Now i tried to recover the .mdf and .ldf file but when i trie to attach it it says. "File is not a primary database file"
I was able to view table content easily before, but after Ireinstalled everything, I cannot find the option to view table contentin MS SQL Server Express. I can define table with no problem. Checkout the screen snapshot below, from which you'll see that the popupmenu frrom right-clicking on the table name does not have the "Opentable" option. What is going on?http://farm1.static.flickr.com/167/...839620d0b_o.png
Hi,I use view to join difference table together for some function. However,when the "real" table fields changed (e.g. add/delete/change field). Theview table still use the "old fields".Therefore everytimes when I change the real table, I also needed open theview table and save it by SQL enterprise manager manually for update theview table field.Can we use a SQL command or other method to update it directly?Regards,Silas
Hi, In what way a view can be updated / inserted / deleted (records)? Kinldy make me clear on this. Have gone through lot many blogs / articles and got more and more confused.
I don't know if this is possible but, I have a view that retrieves data between 2 dates. The data is then exported to an Excel spreadsheet. My question is this: Is there some way I can automatically change the date in my alter view window? For example, I want to extract the data at the beginning of each month for the previous month. Then whoever is looking at the data can then refresh every month to get the previous months data. I want something that will automatically update my view every month with the previous month, without me having to go in and physically doing it. Is there a way, and how complicated would it be? Thanks.
Hello everyone, I'm using sqlserver 2005 with SQL management studio.I have a view and it has a problem. The problem is that...SQL management studio automatically generated some sql script for me to update the view.But,it doesn't work.HELP ME please! This is the script it gave me... ------------- UPDATE [skips].[dbo].[Schedule] SET [ContractId] = <ContractId, int,> ,[DriverId] = <DriverId, int,> ,[TruckId] = <TruckId, int,> ,[Completed] = <Completed, bit,> ,[Day] = <Day, varchar,> WHERE <Search Conditions,,> -------------- When I try to execute it...I get this error , Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near '<'.
How do I make this work and update the view? Thanks so much in advance
I have a database that has SQL 2000 as the engine and Access 2003 on the front end, we scan our documents and hyperlink them through Access, the address is stored in SQL Server but we are wanting to move SQL, the scanned documents along witht he ADP over to a different server so instead of the files linking to \gcfso1 they will link to \gcfsql. is there a way to update the address link in SqL to link to \gcfsql as an update view rather then relinking them by hand????
This post concerns updating across a partitioned view, and not unlike others about this subject I am getting this error:
Msg 4436, Level 16, State 12, Line 1 UNION ALL view 'dbII.dbo.MyTable' is not updatable because a partitioning column was not found.
I am aware of the rules for defining a partitioning column, but interpreting them may have beaten me. So perhaps I haven't abided by all the rules. How to spot which one(s) from the view and table definitions? I suspect the CHECK constraint does not allow the ASCII function, but I can't see how to avoid using it given SYSCODE entries in one table are like "[A-Z]%" and in the other are like "[0-9]%".
Otherwise, I suspect it is because one of the tables has, by legacy, a text column and the view is casting it to varchar(MAX). I also suspect it is because there's a second column with a unique index. These aren't mentioned in the rules (are they?).
Here's the view definition:
SELECT SYSCODE, COL2, CAST(COMMENTS AS varchar(MAX)) AS COMMENTS FROM dbo.MYTABLE UNION ALL SELECT SYSCODE, COL2, COMMENTS FROM OTHERDATABASE.dbo.MYTABLE AS MYTABLE_1
And here are the table definitions:
-- Table in the database where view is defined CREATE TABLE [dbo].[MYTABLE]( [SYSCODE] [char](12) NOT NULL,
Hello everyone, Can someone help me with updating data into a view using triggers? I am struggling hard to write a trigger or stored procedure to update the values on the base tables of the view. Please help me out... Thanks, Godwin
Hi i have a page in which a user fills out info on a page, the problem i am getting is that when the save button is clicked all text box values apart from one are saving to the database this field is the "constructor_ID" field. The save button performs a stored procedure, however there is a view which is doing something as well, would it be possible to write a stored procedure which would update the view at the same time? CREATE PROCEDURE sp_SurveyMainDetails_Update @Constructor_ID int,@SurveyorName_ID int,@Survey_Date char(10),@Survey_Time char (10),@AbortiveCall bit,@Notes text,@Survey_ID int,@User_ID int,@Tstamp timestamp out AS
DECLARE @CHANGED_Tstamp timestampDECLARE @ActionDone char(6)SET @ActionDone = 'Insert' SET @CHANGED_Tstamp = (SELECT Tstamp FROM tblSurvey WHERE Survey_ID = @Survey_ID)IF @Tstamp <> @CHANGED_Tstamp --AND @@ROWCOUNT =0 BEGIN SET @Tstamp = @CHANGED_Tstamp RAISERROR('This survey has already been updated since you opened this record',16,1) RETURN 14 ENDELSE BEGIN SELECT * FROM tblSurvey WHERE Constructor_ID = @Constructor_ID AND --Contractor_ID = @Contractor_ID AND Survey_DateTime = Convert(DateTime,@Survey_Date + ' ' + LTRIM(RTRIM(@Survey_Time)), 103) AND IsAbortiveCall = @AbortiveCall IF @@ROWCOUNT>0 SET @ActionDone = 'Update' UPDATE tblSurvey SET Constructor_ID = @Constructor_ID , SurveyorName_ID = @SurveyorName_ID , Survey_DateTime = Convert(DateTime,@Survey_Date + ' ' + LTRIM(RTRIM(@Survey_Time)), 103) , IsAbortiveCall = @AbortiveCall , Note = @Notes WHERE Survey_ID = @Survey_ID AND Tstamp = @Tstamp IF @@error = 0 begin exec dhoc_ChangeLog_Insert 'tblSurvey', @Survey_ID, @User_ID, @ActionDone, 'Main Details', @Survey_ID end else BEGIN RAISERROR ('The request has not been proessed, it might have been modifieid since you last opened it, please try again',16,1) RETURN 10 END SELECT * FROM tblSurvey WHERE Survey_ID=@Survey_ID END --Make sure this has saved, if not return 10 as this is unexpected error --SELECT * FROM tblSurvey DECLARE @RETURN_VALUE tinyintIF @@error <>0 RETURN @@errorGO This is the view; CREATE VIEW dbo.vw_Property_FetchASSELECT dbo.tblPropertyPeriod.Property_Period, dbo.tblPropertyType.Property_Type, dbo.tblPropertyYear.Property_Year, dbo.tblProperty.Add1, dbo.tblProperty.Add2, dbo.tblProperty.Add3, dbo.tblProperty.Town, dbo.tblProperty.PostCode, dbo.tblProperty.Block_Code, dbo.tblProperty.Estate_Code, dbo.tblProperty.UPRN, dbo.tblProperty.Tstamp, dbo.tblProperty.Property_ID, dbo.tblProperty.PropertyStatus_ID, dbo.tblProperty.PropertyType_ID, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Add4, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Add3, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Add2, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Add1, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Phone, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Name, dbo.tblPropertyStatus.Property_Status, dbo.tblProperty.Floor_Num, dbo.tblProperty.Num_Beds, dbo.vw_LastSurveyDate.Last_Survey_Date, dbo.tblProperty_Year_Period.Constructor_ID, dbo.tblProperty_Year_Period.PropertyPeriod_ID, dbo.tblProperty_Year_Period.PropertyYear_ID, LTRIM(RTRIM(ISNULL(dbo.tblProperty.Add1, ''))) + ', ' + LTRIM(RTRIM(ISNULL(dbo.tblProperty.Add2, ''))) + ', ' + LTRIM(RTRIM(ISNULL(dbo.tblProperty.Add3, ''))) + ', ' + LTRIM(RTRIM(ISNULL(dbo.tblProperty.PostCode, ''))) AS Address, dbo.tblProperty.TenureFROM dbo.tblPropertyType RIGHT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblProperty LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblProperty_Year_Period ON dbo.tblProperty.Property_ID = dbo.tblProperty_Year_Period.Property_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.vw_LastSurveyDate ON dbo.tblProperty.Property_ID = dbo.vw_LastSurveyDate.Property_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblPropertyStatus ON dbo.tblProperty.Status_ID = dbo.tblPropertyStatus.PropertyStatus_ID ON dbo.tblPropertyType.PropertyType_ID = dbo.tblProperty.PropertyType_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblPropertyPeriod ON dbo.tblProperty.PropertyPeriod_ID = dbo.tblPropertyPeriod.PropertyPeriod_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblPropertyYear ON dbo.tblProperty.PropertyYear_ID = dbo.tblPropertyYear.PropertyYear_ID
I have a partitioned view defined by a UNTION ALL of member tables. I can update the member tables through the view without any problem. However, when I declare a cursor on this partitioned view and try to update the view using WHERE CURRENT OF, I get an error saying 'The target object type is not updatable through a cursor'. Does anyone know if it's the case that updating a partitioned view through cursor is not supported in SQL Server 2000?
I notice that when I change my table schema, the view that was created based on the older schema remains using the older schema, and when I try running it, it will give me error.
I assume that's because the view is still using the old execution plan? Is there a way to force an automatic recompilation of execution plans for all views when there is a change to the underlying table?
Hello everyone, I'm using sqlserver 2005 with SQL management studio.I have a view and it has a problem. The problem is that...SQL management studio automatically generated some sql script for me to update the view.But,it doesn't work.HELP ME please! This is the script it gave me... ------------- UPDATE [skips].[dbo].[Schedule] SET [ContractId] = <ContractId, int,> ,[DriverId] = <DriverId, int,> ,[TruckId] = <TruckId, int,> ,[Completed] = <Completed, bit,> ,[Day] = <Day, varchar,> WHERE <Search Conditions,,> -------------- When I try to execute it...I get this error , Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near '<'.
How do I make this work and update the view? Thanks so much in advance
I have gridview bound with SqlDataSource control. One of the grid columns is a dropdown list which is populated programatically, (the gridview has template column with edittemplate field with dropdown list), dropdown Value contains of course collection of IDs.Please tell me how to declare UpdateCommand which will update the row with the dropdown list. The problem is with parameter regarding the column with dropdown list. When i declare this parameter and bind it to SelectedValue property of the dropdownlist from edittemplate tag - it doesnt work, because datasource control cannot see this dropdown list. So, how am i supposed to declare the ID of the row being updated in <updateParameters>? Thanks in advance!
I am looking to create a constraint on a table that allows multiplenulls but all non-nulls must be unique.I found the following scripthttp://www.windowsitpro.com/Files/0.../Listing_01.txtthat works fine, but the following lineCREATE UNIQUE CLUSTERED INDEX idx1 ON v_multinulls(a)appears to use indexed views. I have run this on a version of SQLStandard edition and this line works fine. I was of the understandingthat you could only create indexed views on SQL Enterprise Edition?
Write a CREATE VIEW statement that defines a view named Invoice Basic that returns three columns: VendorName, InvoiceNumber, and InvoiceTotal. Then, write a SELECT statement that returns all of the columns in the view, sorted by VendorName, where the first letter of the vendor name is N, O, or P.
This is what I have so far,
CREATE VIEW InvoiceBasic AS SELECT VendorName, InvoiceNumber, InvoiceTotal From Vendors JOIN Invoices ON Vendors.VendorID = Invoices.VendorID
I created a query, which makes use of a temp table, and I need the results to be displayed in a View. Unfortunately, Views do not support temp tables, as far as I know, so I put my code in a stored procedure, with the hope I could call it from a View....
I compared view query plan with query plan if I run the same statementfrom view definition and get different results. View plan is moreexpensive and runs longer. View contains 4 inner joins, statisticsupdated for all tables. Any ideas?
I had given one of our developers create view permissions, but he wants to also modify views that are not owned by him, they are owned by dbo.
I ran a profiler trace and determined that when he tries to modify a view using query designer in SQLem or right clicks in SQLem on the view and goes to properties, it is performing a ALTER VIEW. It does the same for dbo in a trace (an ALTER View). He gets a call failed and a permission error that he doesn't have create view permissions, object is owned by dbo, using both methods.
If it is doing an alter view how can I set permissions for that and why does it give a create view error when its really doing an alter view? Very confusing.
I was looking through our vendors views, searching for something Ineeded for our Datawarehouse and I came across something I do notunderstand: I found a view that lists data when I use it in t-sql,however when I try to use the statement when I modified the view (viaMS SQL Server Management Studio) I can not execute the statement. I getThe column prefix 'dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit' does not match with atable name or alias name used in the query.Upon closer inspection, I found two ON for the inner join, which I dontthink is correct.So, how can the view work, but not the SQL that defines the view?SQL Server 2000, up to date patches:SELECT dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.aEventID,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nParentEventID,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nUserID,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nColumnID,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nKeyID,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.dChangeTime,CAST(dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.vToValue ASnVarchar(512)) AS vToValue, dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nChangeMode,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.tChildEventText, CASEWHEN nConstraintType = 3 THEN 5 ELSE tblColumnMain.nDataType END ASnDataType,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nID,CAST(dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.vFromValue AS nVarchar(512)) ASvFromValueFROM dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT OUTER JOINdbo.tblColumnMain WITH (NoLock) INNER JOIN---- Posters comment: here is the double ON--dbo.tblCustomField WITH (NoLock) ONdbo.tblColumnMain.aColumnID = dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nColumnID ONdbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nColumnID =dbo.tblCustomField.nColumnID LEFT OUTER JOINdbo.tblConstraint WITH (NOLOCK) ONdbo.tblCustomField.nConstraintID = dbo.tblConstraint.aConstraintID AND(dbo.tblConstraint.nConstraintType = 4 ORdbo.tblConstraint.nConstraintType = 9 ORdbo.tblConstraint.nConstraintType = 3)UNION ALLSELECT aEventID, nParentEventID, nUserID, nColumnID, nKeyID,dChangeTime, CAST(CAST(vToValue AS decimal(19, 6)) AS nVarchar(512)) ASvToValue,nChangeMode, tChildEventText, 5 AS nDataType,nID, CAST(CAST(vFromValue AS decimal(19, 6)) AS nVarchar(512)) ASvFromValueFROM dbo.tbl_5001_FloatAudit WITH (NOLOCK)UNION ALLSELECT aEventID, nParentEventID, nUserID, nColumnID, nKeyID,dChangeTime, CAST(vToValue AS nVarchar(512)) AS vToValue, nChangeMode,tChildEventText, 2 AS nDataType, nID,CAST(vFromValue AS nVarchar(512)) AS vFromValueFROM dbo.tbl_5001_StringAudit WITH (NOLOCK)UNION ALLSELECT aEventID, nParentEventID, nUserID, nColumnID, nKeyID,dChangeTime, CONVERT(nVarchar(512), vToValue, 121) AS vToValue,nChangeMode,tChildEventText, 3 AS nDataType, nID,CONVERT(nVarchar(512), vFromValue, 121) AS vFromValueFROM dbo.tbl_5001_DateAudit WITH (NOLOCK)
A colleague of mine has a view that returns approx 100000 rows in about 60 seconds.
He wants to use the data returned from that view in an OLE DB Source component.
When he selects the view from the drop-down list of available tables then SSIS seems to hang without any data being returned (he waited for about 15 mins).
He then changed the OLE DB Source component to use a SQL statement and the SQL statement was: SELECT * FROM <viewname>
In this instance all the data was returned in approx 60 seconds (as expected).
This makes no sense. One would think that selecting a view from the drop-down and doing a SELECT *... from that view would be exactly the same. Evidently that isn't the case.
I need to create a view that will look at payments made by clients and show me the clients that made payments last year but not this year. tblPayments (ClientID, PmtID, PmtDate, PmtAmt) How would I set the criteria for this?
How do I set up a sql statement to use as a view? I want to use two tables but they are both from different databases. From the Offices database I want to use a table called Office Code and only the Name column The other database is called Library and I want to use a table called Requestors and join it to others. I've set the stored procedure up that I want to use to get most of the data besides the data in the offices database. Create view GetDataview select requestors.officeCode, requestors.Fname + ' ' + requestors.Lname as [Name], Titles.title as Title from requestors join libraryrequest on libraryrequest.requestorid = requestors.requestoridjoin Titles on Titles.Titleid = libraryrequest.Titleidwhere officecode <> 0order by OfficecodeGO How do I add the database offices, table officecodes to this view to use the Name column? I hope this makes sense
I am trying to write a view to retrieve data from two different servers.. create view as select c1 from ser1.database1.dbo.table1 union select 1 from ser2.database2.dbo.table1
First it is not accepting to write it from EM, hence I wrote it from QA, the problem when I am trying to execute it is giving following error
i need to create a view for a table which is residing on another remote server how to do this could u guide me with the process and give me an example.
I have a view which I am supposed to run manually first thing tomorrow morning but I will not be in tomorrow. Is it possible for me to schedule it as a job to run tomorrow.
When I ran this SQL Query, I got an unexpected result.
//Sql Query
Code:
SELECT distinct Year FROM vw_EMD_Options_Pricing WHERE (Year >= '2003') AND (Year <= '2008')
The view is the "vw_EMD_Options_Pricing". The request I got is the year that go from 1981 to 2008. This is for MS-SQL 2000. Why does the SQL Query does that?
I have a database with a view to another table in another database which I created a form out of. I was wondering when if this rule applies "Data Entry" property of the form is set to True. The default value for this property is "False" which means that Access opens the form and shows the existing records. However, if set to True, the Data Entry property of the form specifies that the form will only show a blank record.
The reason I am asking is because you cant see the records after you close the form and reopen it again.
I have 2 databases, db1, db2 in the SQL Server. In db1, I created the view to link one table from db2. When I run it, it is just read-only, I want to edit/insert data in the view. Can we edit/insert the data in the view from db1(which linked table from db2)?
When I write a sql joining more than views how will be executed?. Does SQL Server execute each view and join the result set or interpret into one final sql and execute?
