I have a database that has SQL 2000 as the engine and Access 2003 on the front end, we scan our documents and hyperlink them through Access, the address is stored in SQL Server but we are wanting to move SQL, the scanned documents along witht he ADP over to a different server so instead of the files linking to \gcfso1 they will link to \gcfsql. is there a way to update the address link in SqL to link to \gcfsql as an update view rather then relinking them by hand????
CREATE VIEW dbo.vwFeat AS SELECT dbo.Lk_Feat.Descr, dbo.Lk_Feat.Price, dbo.Lk_Feat.Code, dbo.SubFeat.SubNmbr FROM dbo.Lk_Feat INNER JOIN dbo.SubFeat ON dbo.Lk_Feat.Idf = dbo.SubFeat.Idt
When ever I open using SQL Entreprise manager to edit it by adding or removing a field i inserts Expr1,2.. and I don t want that. The result I get is:
SELECT dbo.Lk_Feat.Descr AS Expr1, dbo.Lk_Feat.Price AS Expr2, dbo.Lk_Feat.Code AS Expr3, dbo.SubFeat.SubNmbr AS Expr4 FROM dbo.Lk_Feat INNER JOIN dbo.SubFeat ON dbo.Lk_Feat.Idf = dbo.SubFeat.Idt
I don t want Entreprise manager to generate the Expr fields since I use the real fields in my application. Thanks for help
Hi, In what way a view can be updated / inserted / deleted (records)? Kinldy make me clear on this. Have gone through lot many blogs / articles and got more and more confused.
I don't know if this is possible but, I have a view that retrieves data between 2 dates. The data is then exported to an Excel spreadsheet. My question is this: Is there some way I can automatically change the date in my alter view window? For example, I want to extract the data at the beginning of each month for the previous month. Then whoever is looking at the data can then refresh every month to get the previous months data. I want something that will automatically update my view every month with the previous month, without me having to go in and physically doing it. Is there a way, and how complicated would it be? Thanks.
Hello everyone, I'm using sqlserver 2005 with SQL management studio.I have a view and it has a problem. The problem is that...SQL management studio automatically generated some sql script for me to update the view.But,it doesn't work.HELP ME please! This is the script it gave me... ------------- UPDATE [skips].[dbo].[Schedule] SET [ContractId] = <ContractId, int,> ,[DriverId] = <DriverId, int,> ,[TruckId] = <TruckId, int,> ,[Completed] = <Completed, bit,> ,[Day] = <Day, varchar,> WHERE <Search Conditions,,> -------------- When I try to execute it...I get this error , Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near '<'.
How do I make this work and update the view? Thanks so much in advance
This post concerns updating across a partitioned view, and not unlike others about this subject I am getting this error:
Msg 4436, Level 16, State 12, Line 1 UNION ALL view 'dbII.dbo.MyTable' is not updatable because a partitioning column was not found.
I am aware of the rules for defining a partitioning column, but interpreting them may have beaten me. So perhaps I haven't abided by all the rules. How to spot which one(s) from the view and table definitions? I suspect the CHECK constraint does not allow the ASCII function, but I can't see how to avoid using it given SYSCODE entries in one table are like "[A-Z]%" and in the other are like "[0-9]%".
Otherwise, I suspect it is because one of the tables has, by legacy, a text column and the view is casting it to varchar(MAX). I also suspect it is because there's a second column with a unique index. These aren't mentioned in the rules (are they?).
Here's the view definition:
SELECT SYSCODE, COL2, CAST(COMMENTS AS varchar(MAX)) AS COMMENTS FROM dbo.MYTABLE UNION ALL SELECT SYSCODE, COL2, COMMENTS FROM OTHERDATABASE.dbo.MYTABLE AS MYTABLE_1
And here are the table definitions:
-- Table in the database where view is defined CREATE TABLE [dbo].[MYTABLE]( [SYSCODE] [char](12) NOT NULL,
Hello everyone, Can someone help me with updating data into a view using triggers? I am struggling hard to write a trigger or stored procedure to update the values on the base tables of the view. Please help me out... Thanks, Godwin
Hi i have a page in which a user fills out info on a page, the problem i am getting is that when the save button is clicked all text box values apart from one are saving to the database this field is the "constructor_ID" field. The save button performs a stored procedure, however there is a view which is doing something as well, would it be possible to write a stored procedure which would update the view at the same time? CREATE PROCEDURE sp_SurveyMainDetails_Update @Constructor_ID int,@SurveyorName_ID int,@Survey_Date char(10),@Survey_Time char (10),@AbortiveCall bit,@Notes text,@Survey_ID int,@User_ID int,@Tstamp timestamp out AS
DECLARE @CHANGED_Tstamp timestampDECLARE @ActionDone char(6)SET @ActionDone = 'Insert' SET @CHANGED_Tstamp = (SELECT Tstamp FROM tblSurvey WHERE Survey_ID = @Survey_ID)IF @Tstamp <> @CHANGED_Tstamp --AND @@ROWCOUNT =0 BEGIN SET @Tstamp = @CHANGED_Tstamp RAISERROR('This survey has already been updated since you opened this record',16,1) RETURN 14 ENDELSE BEGIN SELECT * FROM tblSurvey WHERE Constructor_ID = @Constructor_ID AND --Contractor_ID = @Contractor_ID AND Survey_DateTime = Convert(DateTime,@Survey_Date + ' ' + LTRIM(RTRIM(@Survey_Time)), 103) AND IsAbortiveCall = @AbortiveCall IF @@ROWCOUNT>0 SET @ActionDone = 'Update' UPDATE tblSurvey SET Constructor_ID = @Constructor_ID , SurveyorName_ID = @SurveyorName_ID , Survey_DateTime = Convert(DateTime,@Survey_Date + ' ' + LTRIM(RTRIM(@Survey_Time)), 103) , IsAbortiveCall = @AbortiveCall , Note = @Notes WHERE Survey_ID = @Survey_ID AND Tstamp = @Tstamp IF @@error = 0 begin exec dhoc_ChangeLog_Insert 'tblSurvey', @Survey_ID, @User_ID, @ActionDone, 'Main Details', @Survey_ID end else BEGIN RAISERROR ('The request has not been proessed, it might have been modifieid since you last opened it, please try again',16,1) RETURN 10 END SELECT * FROM tblSurvey WHERE Survey_ID=@Survey_ID END --Make sure this has saved, if not return 10 as this is unexpected error --SELECT * FROM tblSurvey DECLARE @RETURN_VALUE tinyintIF @@error <>0 RETURN @@errorGO This is the view; CREATE VIEW dbo.vw_Property_FetchASSELECT dbo.tblPropertyPeriod.Property_Period, dbo.tblPropertyType.Property_Type, dbo.tblPropertyYear.Property_Year, dbo.tblProperty.Add1, dbo.tblProperty.Add2, dbo.tblProperty.Add3, dbo.tblProperty.Town, dbo.tblProperty.PostCode, dbo.tblProperty.Block_Code, dbo.tblProperty.Estate_Code, dbo.tblProperty.UPRN, dbo.tblProperty.Tstamp, dbo.tblProperty.Property_ID, dbo.tblProperty.PropertyStatus_ID, dbo.tblProperty.PropertyType_ID, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Add4, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Add3, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Add2, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Add1, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Phone, dbo.tblProperty.Correspondence_Name, dbo.tblPropertyStatus.Property_Status, dbo.tblProperty.Floor_Num, dbo.tblProperty.Num_Beds, dbo.vw_LastSurveyDate.Last_Survey_Date, dbo.tblProperty_Year_Period.Constructor_ID, dbo.tblProperty_Year_Period.PropertyPeriod_ID, dbo.tblProperty_Year_Period.PropertyYear_ID, LTRIM(RTRIM(ISNULL(dbo.tblProperty.Add1, ''))) + ', ' + LTRIM(RTRIM(ISNULL(dbo.tblProperty.Add2, ''))) + ', ' + LTRIM(RTRIM(ISNULL(dbo.tblProperty.Add3, ''))) + ', ' + LTRIM(RTRIM(ISNULL(dbo.tblProperty.PostCode, ''))) AS Address, dbo.tblProperty.TenureFROM dbo.tblPropertyType RIGHT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblProperty LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblProperty_Year_Period ON dbo.tblProperty.Property_ID = dbo.tblProperty_Year_Period.Property_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.vw_LastSurveyDate ON dbo.tblProperty.Property_ID = dbo.vw_LastSurveyDate.Property_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblPropertyStatus ON dbo.tblProperty.Status_ID = dbo.tblPropertyStatus.PropertyStatus_ID ON dbo.tblPropertyType.PropertyType_ID = dbo.tblProperty.PropertyType_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblPropertyPeriod ON dbo.tblProperty.PropertyPeriod_ID = dbo.tblPropertyPeriod.PropertyPeriod_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblPropertyYear ON dbo.tblProperty.PropertyYear_ID = dbo.tblPropertyYear.PropertyYear_ID
I have a partitioned view defined by a UNTION ALL of member tables. I can update the member tables through the view without any problem. However, when I declare a cursor on this partitioned view and try to update the view using WHERE CURRENT OF, I get an error saying 'The target object type is not updatable through a cursor'. Does anyone know if it's the case that updating a partitioned view through cursor is not supported in SQL Server 2000?
I notice that when I change my table schema, the view that was created based on the older schema remains using the older schema, and when I try running it, it will give me error.
I assume that's because the view is still using the old execution plan? Is there a way to force an automatic recompilation of execution plans for all views when there is a change to the underlying table?
Hello everyone, I'm using sqlserver 2005 with SQL management studio.I have a view and it has a problem. The problem is that...SQL management studio automatically generated some sql script for me to update the view.But,it doesn't work.HELP ME please! This is the script it gave me... ------------- UPDATE [skips].[dbo].[Schedule] SET [ContractId] = <ContractId, int,> ,[DriverId] = <DriverId, int,> ,[TruckId] = <TruckId, int,> ,[Completed] = <Completed, bit,> ,[Day] = <Day, varchar,> WHERE <Search Conditions,,> -------------- When I try to execute it...I get this error , Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near '<'.
How do I make this work and update the view? Thanks so much in advance
I have gridview bound with SqlDataSource control. One of the grid columns is a dropdown list which is populated programatically, (the gridview has template column with edittemplate field with dropdown list), dropdown Value contains of course collection of IDs.Please tell me how to declare UpdateCommand which will update the row with the dropdown list. The problem is with parameter regarding the column with dropdown list. When i declare this parameter and bind it to SelectedValue property of the dropdownlist from edittemplate tag - it doesnt work, because datasource control cannot see this dropdown list. So, how am i supposed to declare the ID of the row being updated in <updateParameters>? Thanks in advance!
sri writes "Suppose I have a table to enter the name,number,address of employees in different coloumns.I want the names to be as hyperlink.how can i get that? should we do that at the time of creating database?or do we need to write the code? If we have to write code please let me know the code also."
Does anyone know how to add a hyperlink with a target frame. In the navigation tab of reporting services I am having difficulites adding http://www.linkgoeshere.com target="framename"
Hello, Im running into some frustrations with the Jump to Hyperlink feature in SSRS. I have a report containing hyperlinks to a URL. Just to keep it simple for now, Ive made that URL http://www.google.com.
Below is the javascript Im using as my expression value to create the hyperlink on the report:
The hyperlink works fine when its parent report is not loaded into a frame; a new browser window opens and loads up Google as expected. But as soon as the parent report is loaded into a frame, the hyperlink doesnt respond at all. I click, and the page just sits there, no error message, nothing. Ive combed quite a few posts and cant come up with any thing that works other than to remove the parent report from the frame and load it into its own browser window. Unfortunately I have to make this work in a frame, because the entire website hinges on this design.
Any ideas as to why the report hyperlinks just seem to go dead when called from a report that resides inside a frame?
Hi, We are having a problem with the Excel renderer that comes with RS2005, It doesn't have an option to OmitHyperlinks so when we export files they come out over 20x the size they should be. So what I'm trying to do is write a Custom Renderer that will take in the Report Object, and Strip out the hyperlinks, then pass it on to the RS ExcelRenderer, but I ran into a little problem.
I'm looping through the ReportItems, and trying to clear out all the Hyperlinks but I keep getting this exception:
Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object.
This is the part of the code thats throwing up the exception.
Recently we upgraded to SSRS-2008 R2 from SSRS-2008 (enterprise edition) and noticed that all the underlines for hyper-links in all reports are missing. Also the font color has reset back to default color (had set to blue to indicate a hyperlink).
Redeployed the same report from VS-2008 SP1 but no luck. Although the formatting (color + underline) looks ok in the preview mode in VS.if there's any workarounds as many end users are getting confued with this change.
I am trying to replace names found in 'xml' field name as hyperlinks, by matching with the names in database_tags.I am using the following function below, however the UDF is only recognizing one name from the XML fieldname data, instead of all the names present in the XML data.
ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[ReplaceTags](@XML VARCHAR(MAX)) RETURNS VARCHAR(MAX) AS BEGIN
[code]...
for example, if the XML input data is the following: It consists of: BANKP, BCJA, BCJAM, BFTH, BFTH, and EMPOP.But the updated function is only recognizing two of names BFTH, BFTH, as hyperlinks, from the database_tags table.Is there a way to get the function to recognize more than one names as hyperlinks.
Is it possible to add hyperlinks to the Report Manager Home Page that link to other aspx pages? I have created some associated data entry aspx pages that I want to enable access to from the Report Manager Home Page (if possible).
I am very new to SQL Server 2005. I have created a package to load data from a flat delimited file to a database table. The initial load has worked. However, in the future, I will have flat files used to update the table. Some of the records will need to be inserted and some will need to update existing rows. I am trying to do this from SSIS. However, I am very lost as to how to do this.
I am looking to create a constraint on a table that allows multiplenulls but all non-nulls must be unique.I found the following scripthttp://www.windowsitpro.com/Files/0.../Listing_01.txtthat works fine, but the following lineCREATE UNIQUE CLUSTERED INDEX idx1 ON v_multinulls(a)appears to use indexed views. I have run this on a version of SQLStandard edition and this line works fine. I was of the understandingthat you could only create indexed views on SQL Enterprise Edition?
Write a CREATE VIEW statement that defines a view named Invoice Basic that returns three columns: VendorName, InvoiceNumber, and InvoiceTotal. Then, write a SELECT statement that returns all of the columns in the view, sorted by VendorName, where the first letter of the vendor name is N, O, or P.
This is what I have so far,
CREATE VIEW InvoiceBasic AS SELECT VendorName, InvoiceNumber, InvoiceTotal From Vendors JOIN Invoices ON Vendors.VendorID = Invoices.VendorID
I created a query, which makes use of a temp table, and I need the results to be displayed in a View. Unfortunately, Views do not support temp tables, as far as I know, so I put my code in a stored procedure, with the hope I could call it from a View....
I compared view query plan with query plan if I run the same statementfrom view definition and get different results. View plan is moreexpensive and runs longer. View contains 4 inner joins, statisticsupdated for all tables. Any ideas?
I had given one of our developers create view permissions, but he wants to also modify views that are not owned by him, they are owned by dbo.
I ran a profiler trace and determined that when he tries to modify a view using query designer in SQLem or right clicks in SQLem on the view and goes to properties, it is performing a ALTER VIEW. It does the same for dbo in a trace (an ALTER View). He gets a call failed and a permission error that he doesn't have create view permissions, object is owned by dbo, using both methods.
If it is doing an alter view how can I set permissions for that and why does it give a create view error when its really doing an alter view? Very confusing.
I was looking through our vendors views, searching for something Ineeded for our Datawarehouse and I came across something I do notunderstand: I found a view that lists data when I use it in t-sql,however when I try to use the statement when I modified the view (viaMS SQL Server Management Studio) I can not execute the statement. I getThe column prefix 'dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit' does not match with atable name or alias name used in the query.Upon closer inspection, I found two ON for the inner join, which I dontthink is correct.So, how can the view work, but not the SQL that defines the view?SQL Server 2000, up to date patches:SELECT dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.aEventID,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nParentEventID,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nUserID,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nColumnID,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nKeyID,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.dChangeTime,CAST(dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.vToValue ASnVarchar(512)) AS vToValue, dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nChangeMode,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.tChildEventText, CASEWHEN nConstraintType = 3 THEN 5 ELSE tblColumnMain.nDataType END ASnDataType,dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nID,CAST(dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.vFromValue AS nVarchar(512)) ASvFromValueFROM dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT OUTER JOINdbo.tblColumnMain WITH (NoLock) INNER JOIN---- Posters comment: here is the double ON--dbo.tblCustomField WITH (NoLock) ONdbo.tblColumnMain.aColumnID = dbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nColumnID ONdbo.tbl_5001_NumericAudit.nColumnID =dbo.tblCustomField.nColumnID LEFT OUTER JOINdbo.tblConstraint WITH (NOLOCK) ONdbo.tblCustomField.nConstraintID = dbo.tblConstraint.aConstraintID AND(dbo.tblConstraint.nConstraintType = 4 ORdbo.tblConstraint.nConstraintType = 9 ORdbo.tblConstraint.nConstraintType = 3)UNION ALLSELECT aEventID, nParentEventID, nUserID, nColumnID, nKeyID,dChangeTime, CAST(CAST(vToValue AS decimal(19, 6)) AS nVarchar(512)) ASvToValue,nChangeMode, tChildEventText, 5 AS nDataType,nID, CAST(CAST(vFromValue AS decimal(19, 6)) AS nVarchar(512)) ASvFromValueFROM dbo.tbl_5001_FloatAudit WITH (NOLOCK)UNION ALLSELECT aEventID, nParentEventID, nUserID, nColumnID, nKeyID,dChangeTime, CAST(vToValue AS nVarchar(512)) AS vToValue, nChangeMode,tChildEventText, 2 AS nDataType, nID,CAST(vFromValue AS nVarchar(512)) AS vFromValueFROM dbo.tbl_5001_StringAudit WITH (NOLOCK)UNION ALLSELECT aEventID, nParentEventID, nUserID, nColumnID, nKeyID,dChangeTime, CONVERT(nVarchar(512), vToValue, 121) AS vToValue,nChangeMode,tChildEventText, 3 AS nDataType, nID,CONVERT(nVarchar(512), vFromValue, 121) AS vFromValueFROM dbo.tbl_5001_DateAudit WITH (NOLOCK)
I am trying to make a stored procedure in my website for updating an address:1 CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.UPDATE 2 ( 3 @add NVarchar(50), 4 @cit NVarchar(50), 5 @state NVarchar(50), 6 @zip NVarchar(50), 7 @CNum int 8 ) 9 10 UPDATE table_name 11 AppAdd = @add, AppCity = @cit, AppState = @state, AppZip = @zip 12 WHERE CertNum = @CNum When I try to save it it give me an error: Incorrect syntax near keyword 'UPDATE'Must declare scalar variable '@add'
Hi, I'm new to ASP.Net quite new to C# (My first attempt at a database website) and am trying to get a button to add "1" to "int" value called "Comments" a each time its pressed basically counting each time a comment is added. I also only wnat it to affect the row where "ModID" in my database is equal to the query string "ModID" I'm using on the page. I cannot find any tutorials so this is my best guess so far. This is probably a Noobie type stupid question but I'm stuck. This is the code I have so far for my Button_Click event: protected void Button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e){ SqlDataSource CommentCountDataSource = new SqlDataSource(); CommentCountDataSource.ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Main_Site_DatabaseConnectionString1"].ToString(); CommentCountDataSource.UpdateCommandType = SqlDataSourceCommandType.Text; CommentCountDataSource.SelectCommand = "SELECT (ModID, DateTimeLastComment, Comments) FROM Mods"; CommentCountDataSource.UpdateCommand = "UPDATE Mods SET (DateTimeLastComment=@DateTimeLastComment, Comments=@Comments) WHERE ModID=@ModID"; //How do i get the Where to use the query string info? CommentCountDataSource.UpdateParameters.Add("DateTimeLastComment", DateTime.Now.ToString()); CommentCountDataSource.UpdateParameters.Add("Comments", "10"); //"10" is just a value to test I'll change this to add "1" once I figure how. CommentCountDataSource.Update();} Sorry if I'm using the wrong lingo but as I say I'm new. If my code is a mile off then please can you send me in the right direction of some code that works.Thanks in advance if anyone can help me. Cheers,Alan
I am a DBA who is moving in the direction of minor database design. I have gone through the steps to get my tables normalized, and I am ready to get them set up so they will update from table to table. How do I set this up? I know SQL does not cascade like Access, so how is this done? From what I have read (Robert Vieira's book) I should use triggers? Any help would be appreciated. Dallas
