Searching the KB i only found links to SP1 and SP3, the server is already at SP3.
BOL says the following:
SQL Server 6.x :
Updatable views were restricted to modifications that affected only one table
SQL Server 2000:
Updatable views can modify more than one table involved in the view. The DELETE, INSERT, and UPDATE statements can reference a view as long as SQL Server can translate the user's update request unambiguously to updates in the base tables referenced in the view's definition.
So why can this view not be updated in SS2000 SP3 ?
FROM PS_PER_ORG_ASGN A ,PS_PER_ORG_INST C , PS_JOB D
WHERE A.EMPLID = C.EMPLID AND A.ORG_INSTANCE_ERN = C.ORG_INSTANCE_ERN AND A.EMPLID = D.EMPLID AND A.EMPL_RCD = D.EMPL_RCD AND D.EFFDT = ( SELECT MAX(EFFDT) FROM PS_JOB JOB2 WHERE D.EMPLID = JOB2.EMPLID AND D.EMPL_RCD = JOB2.EMPL_RCD AND (( JOB2.EFFDT <= { FN CURDATE() }) OR (JOB2.EFFDT > { FN CURDATE() } AND { FN CURDATE() } < ( SELECT MIN(J2.EFFDT) FROM PS_JOB J2 WHERE J2.EMPLID = D.EMPLID AND J2.EMPL_RCD = D.EMPL_RCD) ) )) AND D.EFFSEQ = ( SELECT MAX(EFFSEQ) FROM PS_JOB JOB3 WHERE JOB3.EMPLID = D.EMPLID AND JOB3.EMPL_RCD = D.EMPL_RCD AND JOB3.EFFDT = D.EFFDT )
I have read that I need to add an instead of trigger. I have no idea how to do this. I am basicaly trying to update at the moment but will also need to insert later. From the code in VWD2008 I only get the error when i include this info here: When i press update and these below are included in the update statement then i get the error. [S_DATE] = @S_DATE, [END[IS_CONFIRMED] = @IS_CONFIRMED, [IS_PAID] = @IS_PAID, [S_Descript] = @S_DESCRIPT[COMPANY] = @COMPANY[MONTH] = @MONTH[ACCOUNT] = @ACCOUNT
Here is view from SQL 2000. CREATE VIEW dbo.VIEW_TRAINING AS SELECT dbo.ADDRESS.EMAIL, dbo.ADDRESS.FIRST_NAME AS [first name], dbo.ADDRESS.LAST_NAME AS [last name], dbo.ADDRESS.STATE, dbo.ADDRESS.TEL1 AS phone, dbo.CUST.NAME AS Company, dbo.ITEMS.DESCRIPT AS S_Descript, dbo.ADDRESS.JOB_TITLE AS Job_Title, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.[MONTH], dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.S_DATE, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.END_DATE, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.IS_CONFIRMED, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.IS_PAID, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.CUST_CODE AS Account, dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.SCHEDULE_ID
FROM dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE INNER JOIN dbo.CUST ON dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.CUST_CODE = dbo.CUST.CUST_CODE RIGHT OUTER JOIN dbo.X_INVOIC RIGHT OUTER JOIN dbo.INVOICES ON dbo.X_INVOIC.ORDER_NO = dbo.INVOICES.DOC_NO LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.ADDRESS ON dbo.INVOICES.CUST_CODE = dbo.ADDRESS.CUST_CODE LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.ITEMS ON dbo.ITEMS.ITEMNO = dbo.X_INVOIC.ITEM_CODE ON dbo.CUST.CUST_CODE = dbo.ADDRESS.CUST_CODE
WHERE (dbo.X_INVOIC.ITEM_CODE LIKE 'FOT-%') AND (dbo.X_INVOIC.STATUS = 7) AND (dbo.ADDRESS.TYPE IN (4, 5, 6)) AND (dbo.ADDRESS.EMAIL <> '') AND (dbo.ADDRESS.COUNTRY = 'UNITED STATES') AND (dbo.ITEMS.CATEGORY = 'TRAININGCLASSES') AND (dbo.TRAINING_SCHEDULE.CUST_CODE = 'steve')
Here is the forms code I am working with: used VWD to generate the forms...I added update...<%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="training.aspx.cs" Inherits="training" TRACE = TRUE%>
<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd">
View or function 'MutualFund' is not updatable because the modification affects multiple base tables.
I get the above error when i try to delete rows from a view. i tried the following code with a table. it works perfectly. i want the same behaviour for a view. can anyone help.
Delete MutualFund from MutualFund inner join MutualFund_history on MutualFund.SecurityID= MutualFund_history.SecurityIDwhere MutualFund.MorningstarCategoryID=MutualFund_history.MorningstarCategoryID and MutualFund.MorningstarAssetClassID= MutualFund_history.MorningstarAssetClassID and MutualFund_history.insertdt =(Select MAX(DsegLastUpdated) from Timestamp_History(nolock))
"MutualFund" is a view. if it were a table, the above works well. but how can i simulate the same effect for a view. any help will be greatly appreciated.
Has anyone seen this error? It comes up when my app executes a select statement via linked server (from MSSQL 2000 to 2005) the second time it runs. It's basically a timed poll of tables in the remote database. It works once but the second time it executes I get the error from the remote db, it's just a select but I guess the cursor is still open so it can't run again. After the exception the select will run again, once and it just repeats. I have researched it a little and it looks like it mostly has to do with the isolation level of the transaction. Unfortunately based on the componet being used to access the database I don't beleive I have the ability to use transact SQL to call the isolation level (s) listed.
Here's the weird part though, at another site the same scenario is running fine. Same primary and remote db versions of MSSQL as well as the application and it runs fine. I guess my question is what type of setup parameters that may be defined in MSSQL 2005 for the remote database might make it behave in this manner in one instance and not the other? TIA in advance for any thoughts/assistance.
For example, the table below, has a foreign key (ManagerId) that points to EmployeeId (primary key) of the same table. -------Employees table-------- EmployeeID . . . . . . . . . . int Name . . . . . . . . . . . nvarchar(50) ManagerID . . . . . . . . . . . int
If someone gave you an ID of a manager, and asked you to get him all employee names who directly or indirectly report to this manager. How can that be achieved?
I would like to create a view that joins these tables. Each row show a product and all the qualities it has, from quality 1 to quality 8. If there is no N'th quality, to show blank/null/zero.
The problem is how to get values from multiple rows (in table Qualities) in a single row in the view.
PhoneType is an auxiliary table that has 5 records in it Home phone, Cell phone, Work phone, Pager, and Fax. Is there a way to do a join or maybe make a view of a view that would allow me to ultimately end up with…
StudnetID: 1 Name: John HomePhone: 123-456-7890 WorkPhone: 123-456-7890 CellPhone: Pager: 123-456-7890 Fax: Memo: This is one student record.
Some students will have no phone number, some will have all 5 most will have one or two. If possible I would like to do a setup like this in my database to keep from having to have null fields for 4 phone numbers that the majority of records won’t have. Thanks in advanced, Nathan Rover
Let say i have single dataset with different view (tables/list/matrix etc) with filter on it. Is it possible referencing from one view (table/list/matrix) to another? Basically how to access the other field for instance SUM from different view and used for the other view instead.
Let say i have single dataset with many view (tables/list/matrix etc) and utilise "filter" to manipulate each view.
Is it possible referencing from one view (table/list/matrix) to another? Basically how to access the other field for instance SUM from different view and used for the other view instead. People mentioned about SCOPE but I don't think this is relevant to this situation ?!?!
I have two table studenTtable and courseTable which is each student take more than one course . 1:M...for example Student1 take 2 courses (C1 , C2). Student2 take 3 courses (C1,C2, C3).I need to create a table/View that contain student information from StudentTable plus all the courses and the score for each course from CoursTable in one row.
for example Row1= Student1_Id ,C1_code ,C1_name ,C1_Score ,C2_code,C2_name ,C2_Score Row2= Student2_Id,C1_code, C1_name,C1_Score,C2_code ,C2_name ,C2_Score , C3_code,C3_name,C3_Score
and since Student one just have two courses , I should enter NULL in 'Course 3 fields'.My Struggle is in the insert statement I tried the following but it show an error
Insert Into Newtable ( St_ID, C1_code,c1_name, C1_Score ,C2_code ,C2_name,C2_score,C3_code ,C3_name,C3_score) Select (Select St_ID from StudentTable) , (Select C_code,c_name,c_Score from Coursetable,SudentTable where course.Stid =Studet.stid) , (Select C_code,c_name,c_Score from course ,student where course.Stid =Studet.stid ), (Select C_code,c_name,c_Score from course ,student where course.Stid =Studet.stid );
I'm fully aware that the New table/View will break the rules of normalization ,but I need it for specifc purpose.I tried also the PIVOT BY functionality but no luck with it .I also tried writing a code using Matlab (because it is high level sw that it is easy to learn for people not expret in programming as me) but didn't know how to combine the Student and Courses Matrices in my loop.
Hi, In the SQL92 Specifications i read the foloowingf statement... "All base tables are updatable. Derived tables are either updatable or read-only. The operations of insert, update, and delete are permitted for updatable tables, subject to constraining Access Rules. The operations of insert, update, and delete are not allowed for read-only tables." But i am concentrating on the below line from the above written lines, "Derived tables are either updatable or read-only." I want to ask that is derived tables are updatable or not??? if yes then how,???i tried the following querry but its not working...
I want to create a view to get records from multiple tables. I have a UserID in all the tables. When I pass UserID to view it should get records from multiple tables. I have a table
UserInfo with as data as UserID=1, FName = John, LName=Abraham and Industry = 2. I have a Industry table with data as ID=1 and Name= Sports, ID =2 and Name= Film.
When I query view where UserID=1 it should return record as
Hello,We are researching whether the following scenario would be possible:In an upcoming application release, we have to move some tables (Logtables, look up tables, and a couple of secure tables) from database Ato database B.Rather than wait and do everything all at once, and have no roll-backplan should it fail, we'd like to create database B now, and startmoving those tables one by one over to it.To ensure compatibility with the existing code-base, we'd like todetermine whether we can use updatable views to allow the current codeto continue to run against the existing DB.Essentially, we would do this:Given a table named LogTable In database A, we'd copy all ofLogTable's data to database B. (We'd look at the transaction log tocopy any changes made on rows modified after copying started.)Then, we'd turn off the site for a few moments, and:In database A, we'd rename LogTable to LogTable-Old, and create a viewcalled LogTable which points to DatabaseB.dbo.LogTable.When we turn the site back on, updates and selects to LogTable wouldphysically pull from database B from now on.I have already verified that performing selects and updates against aview that refers to another physical database actually does work inSQL 2K5.My question is are there any pitfalls or things we should be aware ofthat anyone else has experienced trying to do something like this?Does it sound feasible?Thank you,Josh
We are planning to upgrade. We are using Sql 2008R2 now. Which is the better option migrating to SQL 2012 or migrating to 2014?I am thinking 2014 has memory optimized tables and updatable column stored index. So it is better option.
Hi, I have a self-referencing table, something like Emlplyee-Manager. I want to implement the cascading delete in this table. So when I delete a manager than all the employees should be deleted at ANY level below the manager. I do not have DRI for the Foreignkey (manager)!!! My problem is that the trigger fires only one time (for the "sons") and not for the "grandsons" and below. I've used the following flags: - nested triggers (in "SQL Server Properies", "Server settings" tabsheet) - recursive triggers (database "Properties", "Options" tabsheet) I've combined this 2 flags: 1. nested flag reset and recursive flag reset 2. nested flag reset and recursive flag set or 3. nested flag set and recursive flag reset 4. nested flag set and recursive flag set The results are the following: -for case 1, 2 and 3 the same results: the trigger fires just for the first level (the sons are deleted but the grandsons remains there orphan) -for case 4 I have the following error message: "Maximum stored procedure nesting level exceeded (limit 32)" so I can't delete anything at all.
Any idea why the trigger doesn't fire for "grandsons" and below? Could be that this above mentioned flags doesn't works for self-referencing tables ?
I am totally confused, please help me. I am new to this
I am trying to split one DB (A) into two databases original (A) and new-Blank(B) by moving some tables from DB (A) to the new DB (B) however some of the tables has FK and Stored procedures referencing other tables that need to stay in DB (B), The questions are
1. after scritping these tables while they are in DB (A), and runing the script in DB (B) to re-create them, do I delete these table from DB (A), and the FK that references them.
2. What shall I do with the stored procedures. Turn them into trigers or else if turn them into trigers, in which DB should the triggers run (DB A of DB B),if these are becoming triggers do I delete the stored procedures from DB (A)
Hi everybody, I know that it is possible for one column to reference two different parent tables by defining two foreign keys on a same column, I have done it and SQL Server does give any error. But I want to know that is it advisable to define multiple foreign key on a column referncing two differnt parent table's primary key in differnt case... ? Means If Case 1 then It should reference to column1 or table1 otherwise it should reference to table2? How is it practicle...?
I am looking to create a constraint on a table that allows multiplenulls but all non-nulls must be unique.I found the following scripthttp://www.windowsitpro.com/Files/0.../Listing_01.txtthat works fine, but the following lineCREATE UNIQUE CLUSTERED INDEX idx1 ON v_multinulls(a)appears to use indexed views. I have run this on a version of SQLStandard edition and this line works fine. I was of the understandingthat you could only create indexed views on SQL Enterprise Edition?
Hi! I have a general SQL CE v3.5 design question related to table/file layout. I have an system that has multiple tables that fall into categories of data access. The 3 categories of data access are:
1 is for configuration-related data. There is one application that will read/write to the data, and a second application that will read the data on startup.
1 is for high-performance temporal storage of data. The data objects are all the same type, but they are our own custom object and not just simple types.
1 is for logging where the data will be permanent - unless the configured size/recycling settings cause a resize or cleanup. There will be one application writing alot [potentially] of data depending on log settings, and another application searching/reading sections of data. When working with data and designing the layout, I like to approach things from a data-centric mindset, because this seems to result in a better performing system. That said, I am thinking about using 3 individual SDF files for the above data access scenarios - as opposed to a single SDF with multiple tables. I'm thinking this would provide better performance in SQL CE because the query engine will not have alot of different types of queries going against the same database file. For instance, the temporal storage is basically reading/writing/deleting various amounts of data. And, this is different from the logging, where the log can grow pretty large - definitely bigger than the default 128 MB. So, it seems logical to manage them separately.
I would greatly appreciate any suggestions from the SQL CE experts with regard to my approach. If there are any tips/tricks with respect to different data access scenarios - taking into account performance, type of data access, etc. - I would love to take a look at that.
I have a table called ADSCHL which contains the school_code as Primary key and other two table as
RGDEGR(common field as SCHOOl_code) and RGENRl( Original_school_code) which are refrencing the ADSCHL. if a school_code will be updated both the table RGDEGR (school_code) and RGERNL ( original_schoolcode) has to be updated as well. I have been provided a new data that i have imported to SQL server using SSIS with table name as TESTCEP which has a column name school_code. I have been assigned a task to update the old school_code vale ( ADSCHL) with new school_code ( TESTCEP) and make sure the changes happen across all 3 tables.
I tried using Merge Update function not sure if this is going to work.
Update dbo.ADSCHL SET dbo.ADSCHL.SCHOOL_CODE = FD.SCHOOL_Code FROM dbo.ADSCHL AD INNER JOIN TESTCEP FD ON AD.SCHOOL_NAME = FD.School_Name
Hi All, I am designing database where few of the master tables will reside in different database or in case different server. Scenario is Server "A" with Database "A" may host the "Accounts" table. Server "B" with Database "B" may host the "Product" table. I am designing database "Project" which will hosted in Server "A". My application requires this master tables [readonly access] as data inserted in my application refers this tables. Also there are reports to be generated which refer this tables. How do i design my database and sql queries? I am thinking of approach of having equivalent tables created in my database and writing service which keep tables in my database in sync. This will ensure good perfomance during transaction and reports as they will need to refer this table locally as opposed to different database or different server.
Any thoughts on above approach?? or any better/standard way for such scenarios ?
Thanks in Advance. Your inputs will be of great help.
I have a requirement where in i have around 15 different flat files , filenames are fixed but folder path can be changed(i think i should use a variable for folder path). These 15 files data should go to their respective tables in the database.
Whether I need to create separate data flow task for each file or separate package? In addition to these, example : while importing product data into product table, if product ID already exists, we need to ignore it and upload only the new records.
I have just taken over the job of sorting out a rather poorly designed database. It looks like it was 'upsized' from an access database to the SQL server. The SQL server is the 2000 version.
Now I am trying to generate a report of what the students in the database are owing by referencing the Receipt table and then all the available payment methods and allocations. I was wondering if there was anyway to work out data being displayed twice (Let me demonstrate)
Note1: All the tables are linked by a key of ReceiptNo. From what I can see there is a table for every payment type and allocation but no link between the two other then the receipt number.
Using the query: SELECT T_Receipt.ReceiptNo, T_cheque.Amount AS Chq_Amount, T_credit.Amount AS Cre_Amount, StandingOrder.Amount AS Stn_Amount, T_BankTransfer.amount AS Bnk_Amount, T_cash.TotalAmount AS Cas_Amount, T_RentPayment.AmountPayed AS Ren_Paid, T_AdminPayment.AmountPaid AS Adm_Paid, T_InternetBilling.Total AS Int_Paid, T_Utilities.AmountPaid AS Util_Amount, T_InvoicePayment.amountPaid AS Inv_Paid, T_OtherPayments.paymentAmount AS Oth_Paid, T_parkingBill.paymentAmount AS Prk_Paid, T_TelephoneBills.TelephoneCredit AS Tel_Paid, T_DepositPayment.[Deposit payment] AS Dep_Amount, T_Receipt.cancelled AS Canceled, T_Receipt.RemittanceReceiptNo AS Rec_Ref, T_Receipt.Student FROM T_Receipt INNER JOIN T_DepositPayment ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_DepositPayment.receiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_RentPayment ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_RentPayment.RentPaymentNo LEFT OUTER JOIN StandingOrder ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = StandingOrder.ReceiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_TelephoneBills ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_TelephoneBills.ReceiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_parkingBill ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_parkingBill.ReceiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_OtherPayments ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_OtherPayments.ReceiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_InvoicePayment ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_InvoicePayment.receiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_cash ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_cash.ReceiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_AdminPayment ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_AdminPayment.ReceiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_BankTransfer ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_BankTransfer.receiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_Utilities ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_Utilities.receiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_credit ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_credit.ReceiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_cheque ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_cheque.ReceiptNo LEFT OUTER JOIN T_InternetBilling ON T_Receipt.ReceiptNo = T_InternetBilling.ReceiptNo GROUP BY T_Receipt.Student, T_Receipt.ReceiptNo, T_cheque.Amount, T_credit.Amount, StandingOrder.Amount, T_BankTransfer.amount, T_cash.TotalAmount, T_AdminPayment.AmountPaid, T_InternetBilling.Total, T_Utilities.AmountPaid, T_InvoicePayment.amountPaid, T_OtherPayments.paymentAmount, T_parkingBill.paymentAmount, T_TelephoneBills.TelephoneCredit, T_Receipt.cancelled, T_Receipt.RemittanceReceiptNo, T_DepositPayment.[Deposit payment], T_RentPayment.AmountPayed, T_Receipt.Student HAVING (T_Receipt.Student LIKE N'06%')
Which gives a result of:
RecNo. 30429 Cheque 250 Deposit 250
30429 679.98 250
This is fine but when I do analysis on this it appears as though the student has paid two deposit payments. I was wondering with out querying each table independently from an application if there was a criteria to specify that I only get one deposit result. So as such say, give me all the payments but I only want one result from the other tables. I though about discrete but that wouldn't work here.
I have 7 source databases and one target database, all using the same structure. The structure is made of 10 tables, with foreign key constraints.
I need to merge the source databases into the target (which won't have any data before that process, but will already have the correct schema), and to keep the relationships between the records.
I know how to iterate over the source databases (with SMO foreach), but I'd like to know if someone can advise the best copy method for that context in SSIS ? (I don't want to keep the primary keys, but I need to keep the relationships...)
I have a couple of hundred flat files to import into database tables using SSIS.
The files can be divided into groups by the format they use. I understand that I could import each group of files that have a common format at the same time using a Foreach Loop Container.
However, the example for the Foreach Loop Container has multiple files all being imported into the same database table. In my case, each file needs to be imported into a different database table.
Is it possible to import each set of files with the same format into different tables in a simple loop? I can't see a way to make a Data Flow Destination item accept its table name dynamically, which seems to prevent me doing this.
I suppose I could make a different Data Flow Destination item for each file, in the Data Flow. Would that be a reasonable solution, or is there a simpler solution, or should I just resign myself to making a separate Data Flow for every single file?
Hello I am building a survey application. I have 8 questions. Textbox - Call reference Dropdownmenu - choose Support method Radio button lists - Customer satisfaction questions 1-5 Multiline textbox - other comments. I want to insert textbox, dropdown menu into a db table, then insert each question score into a score column with each question having an ID. I envisage to do this I will need an insert query for the textbox and dropdownlist and then an insert for each question based on ID and score. Please help me! Thanks Andrew